Latest MPESB Assistant Engineer Civil Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Knowledge, General Hindi, General English, General Mathematics, General Reasoning Ability, General Science, General Computer Knowledge, Civil
Question Bank MPESB Assistant Engineer (Civil) Exam - English
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 7Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 8Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 9Single Answer
Which ancient city in Madhya Pradesh was a significant cultural and political center during the Maurya and Gupta periods?
A
Indore
B
Bhopal
C
Ujjain
D
Gwalior
Question 10Single Answer
The Parmar dynasty was primarily associated with which region of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Bundelkhand
B
Malwa
C
Baghelkhand
D
Mahakoshal
Question 11Single Answer
The famous temples of Khajuraho were built by which dynasty?
A
Parmar
B
Gupta
C
Chandela
D
Maurya
Question 12Single Answer
Which dynasty ruled the Gondwana region of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Kalachuri
B
Gond
C
Tomar
D
Solanki
Question 13Single Answer
Which Maratha dynasty held significant influence in Gwalior?
A
Holkar
B
Scindia
C
Peshwa
D
Gaekwad
Question 14Single Answer
Which ancient empire's influence extended to parts of Madhya Pradesh, as evidenced by Ashokan edicts?
A
Gupta
B
Maurya
C
Vakataka
D
Vardhana
Question 15Single Answer
The famous 'Bhojpur Temple' was constructed by which Parmar ruler?
A
Raja Munja
B
Raja Sindhuraja
C
Raja Bhoj
D
Raja Udayaditya
Question 16Single Answer
Which ministry launched the e-SHRAM portal to register unorganized workers in India?
A
Ministry of Labour and Employment
B
Ministry of Finance
C
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
D
Ministry of Home Affairs
Question 17Single Answer
What is the primary objective of the ‘BioE3 Policy’ approved by the Union Cabinet?
A
Foster high-performance biomanufacturing
B
Promote traditional farming practices
C
Increase coal production
D
Enhance organic farming
Question 18Single Answer
Which state launched the ‘Indiramma Atmiya Bharosa Scheme’ in 2025?
A
Telangana
B
Andhra Pradesh
C
Karnataka
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 19Single Answer
How many individuals were announced to receive the Padma Awards in 2025 by the Government of India?
A
121
B
139
C
140
D
165
Question 20Single Answer
Which Indian bank became the first to implement Clari5’s NCRP Integration Solution?
A
Bank of Baroda
B
Punjab National Bank
C
Bank of India
D
Canara Bank
General Hindi
Question 21Single Answer
'ऋ' अर् में बदलता है -
A
गुण संधि के अनुसार
B
यण संधि के अनुसार
C
वृद्धि संधि के अनुसार
D
अयादि संधि के अनुसार
Question 22Single Answer
निम्न में कौनसा नासिक्य व्यंजन है -
A
त्
B
न्
C
द्
D
भ्
Question 23Single Answer
निम्न में से उत्क्षिप्त व्यंजन है -
A
ल
B
ष
C
ड़
D
न
Question 24Single Answer
निम्न में से अल्प प्राण नहीं है -
A
ख
B
ग
C
च
D
द
Question 25Single Answer
तालव्य व्यंजन है-
A
ट ड द ढ
B
च छ ज झ
C
त थ द ध
D
प फ ब भ
Question 26Single Answer
'अ' स्वर का उच्चारण स्थान क्या है -
A
मूर्धा
B
कण्ठ
C
तालु
D
ओष्ठ
Question 27Single Answer
निम्लखित मे कंट- तालव्य स्वर कौनसे है ?
A
ए - ऐ
B
ए - ओ
C
ए - ऊ
D
त - द
Question 28Single Answer
जो धातु या शब्द के अंत में जोड़ा जाता है उसे कहते है ?
A
समास
B
अव्यय
C
उपसर्ग
D
प्रत्यय
Question 29Single Answer
प्रख्यात में प्रयुक्त उपसर्ग है -
A
प्र
B
त
C
प्रख
D
आत
Question 30Single Answer
'साखी' शब्द का तत्सम रूप है -
A
सखी
B
शाखा
C
राखी
D
साक्षी
General English
Question 31Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 32Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 33Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 34Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 35Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 36Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 37Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 38Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 39Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 40Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
General Mathematics
Question 41Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 43Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 44Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 45Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 46Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 47Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 48Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 49Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 50Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
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General Reasoning Ability
Question 51Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 52Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 53Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 54Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 55Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 56Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 57Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 58Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 59Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 60Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
General Science
Question 61Single Answer
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 62Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 63Single Answer
Dimensions of impulse are
A
[MLT –1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT–2]
D
[ML–1T–3]
Question 64Single Answer
Potential is measured in
A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these
Question 65Single Answer
One Nanometer is equal to
A
10–9m
B
10–6m
C
10–10m
D
10–3m
Question 66Single Answer
Maxwell is the unit of
A
magnetic susceptibility
B
intensity of Magnetisation
C
magnetic Flux
D
magnetic Permeability
Question 67Single Answer
Which of the following is derived physical quantity ?
A
Mass
B
Velocity
C
Length
D
Time
Question 68Single Answer
What are the units of magnetic permeability ?
A
Wb A–1 m–1
B
Wb–1 Am
C
Wb A m–1
D
Wb A–1 m
Question 69Single Answer
The dimensions of pressure gradient are
A
[ML–2 T–2]
B
[ML–2 T–1]
C
[ML–1 T–1]
D
[ML–1 T–2]
Question 70Single Answer
The dimensions of Rydberg's constant are
A
[M0L–1T]
B
[MLT–1]
C
[M0 L–1T0]
D
[ML0 T2]
Question 71Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 72Single Answer
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A
Ca3Al2O6
B
Ca3SiO5
C
Ca2SiO4
D
Ca3(PO4)2
Question 73Single Answer
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium
Question 74Single Answer
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
A
Super phosphate
B
Nitrolim
C
Muriate of Potash
D
Humus
Question 75Single Answer
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
A
Aluminium sulphate
B
Copper sulphate
C
Cobalt sulphate
D
Nickel sulphate
Question 76Single Answer
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 77Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus
Question 78Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
A
Manganese
B
Potassium
C
Phosphorus
D
Calcium
Question 79Single Answer
Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?
A
Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
B
Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
C
Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
D
Vacuole, cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria
Question 80Single Answer
For which among the following is not a true fruit ?
A
Apple
B
Date
C
Grape
D
Plum
General Computer Knowledge
Question 81Single Answer
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 82Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 83Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 84Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 85Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 86Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 87Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 88Single Answer
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically
Question 89Single Answer
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 90Single Answer
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline
Question 91Single Answer
The term classic style implies
A
you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B
a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C
both a and b
D
font style
E
None of these
Question 92Single Answer
The term click implies
A
to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
a button in a dialog box
C
to shut down or exit a dialog box
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 93Single Answer
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
A
Minimize the window
B
Close the associated window or application
C
Maximize the window
D
Move the window
Question 94Single Answer
A command button
A
is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B
is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
D
is a small button with an X on it
E
None of these
Question 95Single Answer
What is smallest unit of the information?
A
A bit
B
A byte
C
A block
D
A nibble
Question 96Single Answer
A cursor is
A
to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on the clipboard
B
a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
pressing and holding the main mouse button
D
A button in a dialog box
E
None of these
Question 97Single Answer
What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?
A
A structured collection of data only
B
Software used to create, manage, retrieve, and update data in databases
C
A physical device for storing database backups
D
A programming language used only for calculations
Question 98Single Answer
The meaning of cut is
A
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
B
to cut a document in two unequal parts
C
to cut a document in two equal parts
D
Only b and c are correct
Question 99Single Answer
A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user is called as
A
pre - determined setting
B
user - setting
C
default
D
setting
E
None of these
Question 100Single Answer
The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and manage files and programs is
A
wall paper
B
desktop
C
background
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Civil
Question 101Single Answer
A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
A
Maximum daily demand
B
Maximum hourly demand and fire demand
C
Average demand
D
Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher
Question 102Single Answer
A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
A
Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
B
Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year
C
Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year
D
Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days
Question 103Single Answer
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
A
40.5m3
B
50m3
C
75m3
D
94.7m3
Question 104Single Answer
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
A
Flow rate through the tank
B
Diameter of the particle intended to be removed
C
Volume of the sedimentation tank
D
Detention time in the tank
Question 105Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant :
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
3 and 4 only
Question 106Single Answer
A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?
A
3.6 mg/l
B
13.6 mg/l
C
33.6 mg/l
D
53.6 mg/l
Question 107Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 108Single Answer
Quick sand condition occurs when
A
the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
B
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
C
the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil
D
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil
Question 109Single Answer
The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.
A
5 m2
B
25 m2
C
10 m2
D
20 m2
Question 110Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
Question 111Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 112Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
2, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 113Single Answer
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
A
Methane and Hydrogen
B
Hydrogen Sulphide
C
Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
D
Ammonia
Question 114Single Answer
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
A
Excessive burning of bricks
B
High silt content in brick clay
C
High porosity of bricks
D
Soluble salts present in parent clay
Question 115Single Answer
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 116Single Answer
Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 117Single Answer
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 118Single Answer
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
A
Tricalcium silicate
B
Dicalcium silicate
C
Tricalcium aluminate
D
Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
Question 119Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
Question 120Single Answer
In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be
A
3.00
B
3.45
C
4.50
D
6.00
Question 121Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 122Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
2 and 3 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1 and 4 only
Question 123Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
3 and 4 only
Question 124Single Answer
Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 125Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 3 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 126Single Answer
Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only
Question 127Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 128Single Answer
A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm2 and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is
A
100.6 N/mm2
B
120.4 N/mm2
C
140.2 N/mm2
D
160.0 N/mm2
Question 129Single Answer
In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called
A
Annealing effect
B
Bauschinger effect
C
Strain rate effect
D
Fatigue effect
Question 130Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
3 only
Question 131Single Answer
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
A
30 l
B
35 l
C
40 l
D
45 l
Question 132Single Answer
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
A
1 : 1 : 1
B
1 : 2 : 3
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
1 : 3 : 4
Question 133Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?
A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 3 and 5
C
2, 3 and 4
D
2, 4 and 5
Question 134Single Answer
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
A
10
B
20
C
25
D
30
Question 135Single Answer
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
A
11.8
B
12.4
C
14.2
D
14.8
Question 136Single Answer
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4
Question 137Single Answer
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
3 and 4
Question 138Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 139Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 5 only
C
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Question 140Single Answer
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
A
165 l
B
205 l
C
245 l
D
285 l
Question 141Single Answer
Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?
A
IS : 4970-1973
B
IS : 1708-1969
C
IS : 1141-1958
D
IS : 399-1963
Question 142Single Answer
Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 143Single Answer
The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
A
Parallel to each other
B
At right angle to one another
C
45° oblique to adjacent grain
D
Not constrained by any consideration
Question 144Single Answer
Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?
A
It must be free from lumps of lime
B
It should not be mixed with salty water
C
It must be non-homogeneous
D
It should not contain vegetable and organic matter
Question 145Single Answer
The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than
A
440 kg/cm2
B
175 kg/cm2
C
100kg/cm2
D
75kg/cm2
Question 146Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 4
Question 147Single Answer
Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3
C
1, 2 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4
Question 148Single Answer
Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?
A
Magnesium oxide
B
Silica
C
Alumina
D
Calcium sulphate
Question 149Single Answer
Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?
A
Ordinary Portland
B
High Alumina
C
Low-heat Portland
D
Portland Cement
Question 150Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
3, 4 and 5
D
2, 3 and 5
Question 151Single Answer
What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?
A
11 to 15 mm
B
8 to 10 mm
C
15 to 17 mm
D
5 to 7 mm
Question 152Single Answer
Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (QA to QB) .
A
B
C
1
D
Question 153Single Answer
Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .
A
The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
B
Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
C
The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
D
The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
Question 154Single Answer
A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is
A
0.5 L
B
0.85 L
C
2 L
D
0.75 L
Question 155Single Answer
What is the principle of plane surveying ?
A
Working from part to whole
B
Working from point to area
C
Working from angle to volume
D
Working from whole to part
Question 156Single Answer
According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :
A
100 m
B
1000 m
C
600 m
D
150 m
Question 157Single Answer
A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :
A
20
B
25
C
15
D
10
Question 158Single Answer
What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?
A
Reduces the secondary hydration process
B
Increases the heat of hydration
C
Increases the amount of air entrainment
D
Reduces the heat of hydration
Question 159Single Answer
As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :
A
M 20 and M 30
B
M 20 and M 25
C
M 22 and M 40
D
M 15 and M 25
Question 160Single Answer
Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :
A
Mass density
B
Moment of inertia
C
Poission’s ratio
D
Modulus of elasticity
Question 161Single Answer
As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?
A
120
B
140
C
70
D
60
Question 162Single Answer
No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :
A
0.5 m2
B
1.0 m2
C
3 m2
D
0.75 m2
Question 163Single Answer
What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?
A
20 cm
B
10 cm
C
30 cm
D
25 cm
Question 164Single Answer
Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements
A
Statements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
B
Both statements S1 and S2 are false
C
Statements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
D
Both statements S1 and S2 are true
Question 165Single Answer
If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :
A
121o25'
B
148o25'
C
58o25'
D
211o25'
Question 166Single Answer
The overflowing sheet of water on a weir is called :
A
creek
B
crest
C
limp
D
nappe
Question 167Single Answer
According to IS 456 - 2000, what is the slump of a medium degree of workability of concrete if planed in heavily reinforced sections like slabs, beams, walls, columns ?
A
10 - 25 mm
B
25 - 50 mm
C
0 - 10 mm
D
50 - 100 mm
Question 168Single Answer
Which of the following is Kharif season in India ?
A
March / April to June / July
B
December / January to April / May
C
May / June to October / November
D
October / November to April / May
Question 169Single Answer
The estimated value of a built - up property at the end of its useful life without dismantled is called :
A
market value
B
book value
C
scrap value
D
salvage value
Question 170Single Answer
The amount of cement required for 100 m2 area, of damp proof course with 2.5 cm thinkness, in with proportion of 1: 2 : 4 (cement : sand : aggregate) will be :
A
2.5 m2
B
0.55 m2
C
1.10 m2
D
0.25 m2
Question 171Single Answer
Select the correct statement related to increasing the carbon content in steel from 0.2 to 0.9 percent .
A
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and increases the ductility
B
Increasing the carbon content in steel increases the yield stress and reduces the ductility
C
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and does not affect the ductility
D
Increasing the carbon content in steel does not have any effect on the yield stress or ductility
Question 172Single Answer
Which of the following laws states that pressure or intensity of pressure at a point is static fluid is equal in all directions ?
A
Newton's law
B
Pascal's law
C
Darcy's law
D
Hydrostatic law
Question 173Single Answer
The determination of plasticity index and the percentage by weight of clay mineral finer than 2 µ present in the soil were done for two soil samples A and B. The ratio of plasticity index to the percentage of clay size particle for the samples A and B are given in the table .
Soil sample Ratio of plasticity index to percentage of clay size particle
Sample A Less than 0.75
Sample B Greater than 1.25 The two soil sample A and B are classified as
A
Sample A : Inactive; Sample B : Active
B
Sample A : Active; Sample B : Normal
C
Sample A : Active; Sample B : Inactive
D
Sample A : Normal ; Sample B : Inactive
Question 174Single Answer
Which of the following compounds of cement is responsible for early strength ?
A
C4AF
B
C3S
C
C3A
D
C2A
Question 175Single Answer
According to SP : 27 - 1984, the thickness of slab or RC slab shall be measured to the nearest of :
A
0.0002 m
B
0.005 m
C
0.0001 m
D
0.01 m
Question 176Single Answer
Classify the following pollutants as primary pollutants (PP) and secondary pollutants (SP). Ozone, Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, photochemical smog, Nitrogen oxides, Aerosol/mist, Hydrocarbons, Perory - Acetyl - Nitrate, Sulphur dioxide.
bulk unit weight of a soil when it is fully saturated
B
saturated bulk unit weight to total void
C
total void to saturated bulk unit weight
D
total void to saturated bulk unit weight
Question 178Single Answer
Identify the test to be conducted for the determination of the modulus of subgrade reaction in pavement design .
A
Plate bearing test
B
Triaxial test
C
CBR test
D
Direct shear test
Question 179Single Answer
In limit state design, the design bond stress for deformed bars (conforming to IS 1786) for M20 concrete mentioned in IS 456 : 2000 is (in N/mm2 units) :
A
1.2
B
1.8
C
1.68
D
1.92
Question 180Single Answer
Which of the following can be considered as a taking off point in road planning in India ?
A
Lucknow plan
B
Delhi plan
C
Bombay plan
D
Nagpur plan
Question 181Single Answer
The following two statements pertain to a simply supported under reinforced concrete beam. Select the correct option with regard is these statements .
1. The failure of the beam takes place due to the yielding of steel .
2. The moment of resistance of the beam is more than that of the balanced section of the beam .
A
Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
B
Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true
C
Both statement 1 and 2 are true
D
Both statement 1 and 2 are false
Question 182Single Answer
A continuous beam ABC with span AB = BC = L is shown in the figure. Support A is fixed type, and supports B and C are roller type. The kinematic indeterminacy of the beam is :
A
2
B
3
C
5
D
4
Question 183Single Answer
The soils transported and deposited by a river or a stream care called :
A
aeolian soils
B
alluvial soils
C
lacustrine soils
D
marine soils
Question 184Single Answer
What is the mechanical extra widening required for a two-lane pavement of width 7 m on a horizontal curve of radius 250 m, if the longest wheel base of a vehicle expected on the road is 5 m with a design speed of 70 km/h ?
A
0.155 m
B
0.225 m
C
0.100 m
D
0.552 m
Question 185Single Answer
The following are some of the errors that area associated with a total station survey work. Vertical collimation error, Centering error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error Categorize the given errors as those due to temporary adjustments (T) and permanent adjustments (P).
A
T : Vertical collimation error, Horizontal collimation error
P : Centering error, Eccentricity error
B
T : Centering error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error
P : Vertical collimation error
C
T : Eccentricity error, Horizontal collimation error
P : Centering error, Vertical collimation error, Eccentricity error
D
T : Centering error
P : Vertical collimation error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error
Question 186Single Answer
According to IS 800 : 2007, identify the property which is considered as a mechanical property of structural steel, important in design .
A
Unit mass
B
Maximum percent elongation on a standard gauge length
C
Co - efficient of thermal expansion
D
Poisson ration
Question 187Single Answer
Which of the following methods is NOT used for measuring air content in fresh concrete ?
A
Blaine air permeability method
B
Gravimetric method
C
Pressure method
D
Volumetric method
Question 188Single Answer
Which of the following methods is NOT used for the calculation of depreciation of a structure ?
A
Straight line method
B
Quantity survey method
C
Geometric projection method
D
Declining balance method
Question 189Single Answer
The failure of an over reinforced concrete beam is due to :
A
compression failure
B
mid failure
C
shear failure
D
tension failure
Question 190Single Answer
In which type of estimate is 'Court yard' NOT considered ?
A
Unit rate estimate
B
Plinth area estimate
C
Lump sum estimate
D
Cub rate estimate
Question 191Single Answer
Match the items in List 1 (name of quantities) with those in List 2 (unit of quantities in the SI system). Use codes in List for matching .
List 1 List 2
M. Dynamic viscosity 1. N/m
N. Kinematic viscosity 2. N.m
O. Surface tension 3. N.s/m2
P. Energy 4. m2/s
A
M-3, N-4, O-2, P-1
B
M-3, N-4, O-1, P-2
C
M-4, N-3, O-1, P-2
D
M-2, N-4, O-1, P-3
Question 192Single Answer
A reinforced concrete beam is subjected to the following bending moments .
Moment due to dead load = 50 kNm
Moment due to live load = 50 kNm
Moment due to seismic load = 20 kNm
The design bending moment for limit state of collapse is :
A
120 kNm
B
180 kNm
C
144 kNm
D
150 kNm
Question 193Single Answer
In a workshop shade, trusses are spaced at 4 m centre to centre. The purlins are spaced at 1.4 m centre to centre along the slope of 300. The (Dead Load + Live load) is 3 kNm2 and the wind load in 5 kNm2. The vertical and the inclined point loads, respectively, will be :
A
14.54 kN and 28 kN
B
17.8 kN and 48 kN
C
20 kN and 24 kN
D
18 kN and 21 kN
Question 194Single Answer
What will be the percentage of passing aggregate for the grading zone 1 of sieve size 1.18 mm ?
A
100%
B
10% - 20%
C
7% - 25%
D
30% - 70%
Question 195Single Answer
The annual or periodical payment for repayment of the capital amount invested on a property for a specified period is known as :
A
depreciation
B
obsolescence
C
amortization
D
annuity
Question 196Single Answer
Among the following river training works, which are aligned either parallel or at an angle to the banks, identify the one having a difference in alignment when compared to others :
A
Flood walls
B
Guide banks
C
Groynes
D
Levees
Question 197Single Answer
The test commonly to determine the grade of bitumen in terms of its hardness is :
A
the penetration test
B
the ductility test
C
the softening point test
D
the flash and fire point test
Question 198Single Answer
A level section has formation width of 10 m, side slope of 1 : 2 (vertical : horizontal) and central height of 2 m. Determine the quantity of earthwork required for a 1 km length of formation (in m3) .
A
24,000
B
20,000
C
18,000
D
28,000
Question 199Single Answer
Which type of odour characteristic is NOT used for classifying odour of a given water sample as per IS 3025 (part-5) 1983 ?
A
Degree of sweetness
B
Degree of turbidity
C
Degree of pungency
D
Degree of smokiness
Question 200Single Answer
The liquid limit and plastic limit of clay materials is 45% and 25% respectively, what is the activity of clay materials if 20% by weight of particles of size less than 2 microns ?