Latest MPESB Inspector of Weights and Measures Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Knowledge, General Hindi, General English, General Mathematics, General Reasoning Ability, General Science, General Computer Knowledge, Related Topics
Question Bank MPESB Inspector of Weights and Measures Exam - English
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 8Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 9Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 10Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 11Single Answer
Which day is observed on October 1, 2025 to promote elderly care and respect?
A
World Heart Day
B
International Day of Older Persons
C
World Habitat Day
D
International Coffee Day
Question 12Single Answer
Which international day is observed on October 1, 2025 to raise awareness about habitat and urban issues?
A
World Habitat Day
B
World Animal Day
C
International Day of Non-Violence
D
World Teachers' Day
Question 13Single Answer
India's first indigenous 5G mmWave module was developed by which organization on October 1, 2025?
A
DRDO
B
C-DOT
C
BEL
D
ISRO
Question 14Single Answer
The "PM Vishwakarma Scheme" was launched on October 1, 2025, targeting which group?
A
Farmers
B
Artisans and craftsmen
C
Students
D
Senior citizens
Question 15Single Answer
Which international day is observed on October 1, 2025, to honor Mahatma Gandhi?
A
Gandhi Jayanti
B
International Day of Non-Violence
C
World Peace Day
D
Human Rights Day
General Hindi
Question 16Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
अधम्र
B
अध्रम
C
अधर्म
D
अध्रिम
Question 17Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
स्थायि
B
स्थायी
C
स्थाई
D
स्थाइ
Question 18Single Answer
वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?
A
महत्व
B
महतव
C
महत्तव
D
महतत्व
Question 19Single Answer
निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध छांटिए?
A
आयुष्मान
B
आयुश्मान
C
आयुशमान
D
आयुश्यमान
Question 20Single Answer
शुद्ध शब्द नहीं हैं?
A
कवियत्री
B
कौसल्या
C
एश्वर्य
D
श्रृंगार
Question 21Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
पूज
B
पुजय
C
पूज्य
D
पुज्य
Question 22Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
अनुसरण
B
अनूशरणन
C
अनुशरण
D
अणुशर
Question 23Single Answer
किस क्रमांक में सभी शुद्ध हैं?
A
एक्य,साप्ताहिक
B
आजीविका,आशीर्वाद
C
आर्शिवाद ,अनूकूल
D
निरिक्षण ,कृपालु
Question 24Single Answer
'उज्वल' शब्द का शुद्ध रूप है ?
A
उज्जव
B
उज्ज्ल
C
उज्ज्वल
D
उजवल
Question 25Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
जागृत
B
जाग्रति
C
जाग्रित
D
जाग्रत
Question 26Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
उन्नति
B
उनति
C
उन्ती
D
उनती
Question 27Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न मे चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
अनुशहरण
B
अनोसरण
C
अनुसरन
D
अनुसरण
Question 28Single Answer
'पृथ्वीराज रासो' किस काल की रचना है ?
A
आदिकाल
B
रीतिकाल
C
भक्तिकाल
D
आधुनिक काल
Question 29Single Answer
हिन्दी की उत्पत्ति किस भाषा से हुई है?
A
प्राकृत
B
संस्कृत
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी
Question 30Single Answer
राजभाषा आयोग के प्रथम अध्यक्ष थे ?
A
बी. जी. खरे
B
राजा लक्ष्मण सिंह
C
प्रताप नारायण मिश्र
D
इंशाअल्ला खा
General English
Question 31Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 32Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 33Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 34Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 35Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 36Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 37Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 38Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 39Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 40Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 41Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 42Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 43Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 44Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 45Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
General Mathematics
Question 46Single Answer
The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
A
{–2, 2}
B
{–1, 0, 1}
C
{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D
{0, 1, 2}
Question 47Single Answer
A
B
C
D
None of these
Question 48Single Answer
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
A
{2}
B
{1, 2}
C
{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D
{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
Question 49Single Answer
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
A
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C
{2, 4, 6}
D
{1, 3, 5}
Question 50Single Answer
If A B and A B, then
A
A is called a proper subset of B
B
A is called a super set of B
C
A is not a subset of B
D
B is a subset of A
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General Mathematics
Question 51Single Answer
The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is
A
15
B
14
C
16
D
17
Question 52Single Answer
The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is
A
2m – 1
B
m
C
m2
D
2m
Question 53Single Answer
If A = {x : x = n2, n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is
A
3
B
8
C
7
D
None of these
Question 54Single Answer
If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is
A
16
B
15
C
4
D
None of these
Question 55Single Answer
Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then
A
A is always a subset of the complement of B
B
B is always a subset of A
C
A and B are always disjoint
D
A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint
Question 56Single Answer
Which of the following is/are empty set?
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z} B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}
A
A
B
B
C
Both A and B
D
None of the above
Question 57Single Answer
The set {x : x4 = 1 and x R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
A
empty
B
finite
C
infinite
D
singleton
Question 58Single Answer
The universal set for the sets
A = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0} and
B = {x : x2 – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is
A
{1, 2}
B
{1, 3}
C
{1, 2, 3}
D
{0, 1, 2, 3}
Question 59Single Answer
If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0},
C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and
D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are
A
A and B
B
A and C
C
A, B and C
D
A, C and D
Question 60Single Answer
If A = (–3, 5) and B = [–7, 9], then
A
A = B
B
A B
C
B A
D
None of these
General Reasoning Ability
Question 61Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 62Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 63Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 64Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 65Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 66Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 67Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 68Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 69Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 70Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 71Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 72Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 73Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 74Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 75Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
General Science
Question 76Single Answer
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 77Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 78Single Answer
Dimensions of impulse are
A
[MLT –1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT–2]
D
[ML–1T–3]
Question 79Single Answer
Potential is measured in
A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these
Question 80Single Answer
One Nanometer is equal to
A
10–9m
B
10–6m
C
10–10m
D
10–3m
Question 81Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 82Single Answer
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A
Ca3Al2O6
B
Ca3SiO5
C
Ca2SiO4
D
Ca3(PO4)2
Question 83Single Answer
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium
Question 84Single Answer
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
A
Super phosphate
B
Nitrolim
C
Muriate of Potash
D
Humus
Question 85Single Answer
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
A
Aluminium sulphate
B
Copper sulphate
C
Cobalt sulphate
D
Nickel sulphate
Question 86Single Answer
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 87Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus
Question 88Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
A
Manganese
B
Potassium
C
Phosphorus
D
Calcium
Question 89Single Answer
Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?
A
Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
B
Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
C
Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
D
Vacuole, cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria
Question 90Single Answer
For which among the following is not a true fruit ?
A
Apple
B
Date
C
Grape
D
Plum
General Computer Knowledge
Question 91Single Answer
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 92Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 93Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 94Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 95Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 96Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 97Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 98Single Answer
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically
Question 99Single Answer
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 100Single Answer
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline
Related Topics
Question 101Single Answer
Which of the following is not a fundamental quantity?
A
Mass
B
Velocity
C
Time
D
Length
Question 102Single Answer
Which law states that the rate of change of momentum is proportional to the applied force?
A
Newton’s First Law
B
Newton’s Second Law
C
Newton’s Third Law
D
Law of Gravitation
Question 103Single Answer
The SI unit of power is?
A
Joule
B
Erg
C
Newton
D
Watt
Question 104Single Answer
Which of the following is a vector quantity?
A
Speed
B
Distance
C
Work
D
Force
Question 105Single Answer
Which quantity has the same unit as work?
A
Power
B
Torque
C
Pressure
D
Momentum
Question 106Single Answer
The inertia of a body depends on its?
A
Mass
B
Velocity
C
Volume
D
Shape
Question 107Single Answer
Which one of the following is a scalar quantity?
A
Force
B
Momentum
C
Energy
D
Acceleration
Question 108Single Answer
The SI unit of angular velocity is?
A
rad
B
rad/s
C
m/s
D
Hz
Question 109Single Answer
Which law explains the motion of a rocket?
A
Newton’s First Law
B
Newton’s Second Law
C
Newton’s Third Law
D
Law of Gravitation
Question 110Single Answer
Work done is zero when the displacement is?
A
Maximum
B
Minimum
C
Along the force
D
Perpendicular to the force
Question 111Single Answer
The work-energy theorem states that?
A
Work done = Change in potential energy
B
Work done = Change in total energy
C
Work done = Change in kinetic energy
D
Work done = Constant energy
Question 112Single Answer
Escape velocity of a body from Earth’s surface is approximately?
A
10.8 km/s
B
8.4 km/s
C
11.2 km/s
D
12.2 km/s
Question 113Single Answer
The gravitational force between two bodies depends on?
A
Both mass and distance
B
Distance only
C
Masses only
D
None of these
Question 114Single Answer
The SI unit of torque is?
A
N·m
B
J
C
N
D
kg·m/s
Question 115Single Answer
The time period of a simple pendulum depends on?
A
Length of pendulum
B
Mass of bob
C
Amplitude
D
Density of bob
Question 116Single Answer
The displacement in SHM is maximum at?
A
Extreme position
B
Mean position
C
Midway
D
Zero position
Question 117Single Answer
The kinetic energy of a body in SHM is maximum at?
A
Extreme position
B
Mean position
C
Every position
D
None
Question 118Single Answer
A body in circular motion experiences?
A
Centrifugal force
B
Magnetic force
C
Gravitational force
D
Centripetal force
Question 119Single Answer
Which of the following is not an example of SHM?
A
Free fall
B
Spring-mass system
C
Tuning fork
D
Pendulum
Question 120Single Answer
The unit of angular momentum is?
A
N/s
B
N·m
C
kg·m/s
D
kg·m²/s
Question 121Single Answer
The resonance occurs when?
A
Frequency of force < natural frequency
B
Frequency of force = natural frequency
C
Frequency of force > natural frequency
D
Frequency is zero
Question 122Single Answer
The Doppler effect is related to?
A
Reflection
B
Refraction
C
Change in frequency due to motion
D
Interference
Question 123Single Answer
Unit of gravitational constant G is?
A
N·m²/kg²
B
N·m/kg²
C
N/kg²
D
m²/kg²
Question 124Single Answer
The product of moment of inertia and angular velocity gives?
A
Torque
B
Work
C
Angular momentum
D
Power
Question 125Single Answer
The restoring force in SHM is directly proportional to?
A
Velocity
B
Displacement
C
Acceleration
D
Time
Question 126Single Answer
The unit of work done is?
A
Joule
B
Watt
C
Newton
D
Pascal
Question 127Single Answer
The linear momentum of a system remains constant if?
A
Energy is conserved
B
Friction acts
C
No external force acts
D
Torque acts
Question 128Single Answer
When a body rolls without slipping, its motion is?
A
Translational only
B
Translational and rotational
C
Rotational only
D
None
Question 129Single Answer
Which of the following has no unit?
A
Stress
B
Strain
C
Work
D
Force
Question 130Single Answer
Potential energy of a spring is maximum when?
A
Spring is at equilibrium
B
None
C
Spring is moving
D
Spring is compressed or stretched
Question 131Single Answer
A stationary wave is formed due to?
A
Interference of two opposite waves
B
Refraction
C
Reflection
D
Diffraction
Question 132Single Answer
The frequency of revolution of a satellite depends on?
A
Radius of orbit
B
Mass of satellite
C
Volume
D
Shape
Question 133Single Answer
The law of conservation of energy states that?
A
Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
B
Energy can be destroyed
C
Energy can be created
D
Energy remains constant always
Question 134Single Answer
Frictional force always acts?
A
In direction of motion
B
Perpendicular to motion
C
Opposite to direction of motion
D
None
Question 135Single Answer
In rotational motion, torque is analogous to?
A
Velocity
B
Work
C
Momentum
D
Force
Question 136Single Answer
The amplitude of damped oscillation?
A
Increases with time
B
Becomes infinite
C
Remains constant
D
Decreases with time
Question 137Single Answer
The velocity of sound depends on?
A
Temperature
B
Pressure only
C
Density only
D
None
Question 138Single Answer
Work done by centripetal force is?
A
Positive
B
Negative
C
Zero
D
Infinite
Question 139Single Answer
The acceleration of free fall is maximum at?
A
Equator
B
Poles
C
Tropics
D
Center of Earth
Question 140Single Answer
The frequency of a wave is the reciprocal of?
A
Time period
B
Amplitude
C
Wavelength
D
Velocity
Question 141Single Answer
The wavelength of a wave is the distance between?
A
Two crests
B
Two troughs
C
Both a and b
D
None
Question 142Single Answer
The velocity of a wave is the product of?
A
Frequency and amplitude
B
Amplitude and wavelength
C
Frequency and wavelength
D
None
Question 143Single Answer
When a wave passes from one medium to another, its?
A
Frequency changes
B
Wavelength remains constant
C
Speed changes
D
Energy remains same
Question 144Single Answer
In transverse waves, particle motion is?
A
Parallel to wave motion
B
None
C
Circular
D
Perpendicular to wave motion
Question 145Single Answer
The speed of sound is maximum in?
A
Air
B
Steel
C
Water
D
Vacuum
Question 146Single Answer
Which of the following waves requires a medium for propagation?
A
Light waves
B
Radio waves
C
Sound waves
D
X-rays
Question 147Single Answer
The energy in SHM is proportional to?
A
Amplitude
B
Velocity
C
Amplitude²
D
Velocity²
Question 148Single Answer
In an ideal spring, force is proportional to?
A
Mass
B
Square of extension
C
Extension
D
None
Question 149Single Answer
The instrument used to measure small lengths accurately is?
A
Vernier caliper
B
Screw gauge
C
Meter scale
D
Tape
Question 150Single Answer
Least count of a vernier caliper is usually?
A
1 mm
B
0.1 mm
C
0.01 mm
D
0.02 mm
Question 151Single Answer
The least count of a screw gauge is?
A
Pitch × Circular scale divisions
B
Pitch / Circular scale divisions
C
Circular scale divisions / Pitch
D
None
Question 152Single Answer
The physical quantity which has both magnitude and direction is called?
A
Vector
B
Scalar
C
Tensor
D
None
Question 153Single Answer
The center of gravity of a uniform rod lies at?
A
One end
B
Midpoint
C
Bottom
D
Top
Question 154Single Answer
When two forces act at a point at right angles, their resultant is?
A
Arithmetic sum
B
Geometric sum
C
Vector difference
D
None
Question 155Single Answer
The path of a projectile is?
A
Parabolic
B
Circular
C
Straight line
D
Elliptical
Question 156Single Answer
The mechanical advantage of an ideal machine is equal to?
A
Efficiency
B
Velocity ratio
C
Load/effort
D
None
Question 157Single Answer
The efficiency of an ideal machine is?
A
100%
B
50%
C
75%
D
0%
Question 158Single Answer
The moment of force is equal to?
A
Distance / Force
B
Force / Distance
C
Force × Distance from axis
D
Force + Distance
Question 159Single Answer
The rotational analogue of mass is?
A
Torque
B
Moment of inertia
C
Angular velocity
D
Angular acceleration
Question 160Single Answer
If torque is zero, angular momentum is?
A
Increasing
B
Zero
C
Decreasing
D
Constant
Question 161Single Answer
The power is defined as?
A
Work done × time
B
Work done / time
C
Time / work
D
Force × distance
Question 162Single Answer
One horsepower equals?
A
700 W
B
736 W
C
756 W
D
746 W
Question 163Single Answer
The friction that comes into play before motion starts is?
A
Rolling friction
B
Kinetic friction
C
Static friction
D
None
Question 164Single Answer
The unit of coefficient of friction is?
A
N
B
N/m
C
N·m
D
No unit
Question 165Single Answer
The scalar product of two perpendicular vectors is?
A
Maximum
B
Zero
C
Minimum
D
Constant
Question 166Single Answer
The vector product of two parallel vectors is?
A
Constant
B
Maximum
C
Infinite
D
Zero
Question 167Single Answer
The acceleration of a particle moving in a circle is directed?
A
Tangentially
B
None
C
Radially outward
D
Radially inward
Question 168Single Answer
The law of conservation of angular momentum holds good if?
A
Internal torque = 0
B
External torque = 0
C
Angular acceleration = 0
D
Moment of inertia = 0
Question 169Single Answer
The center of mass of Earth–moon system lies?
A
At Earth’s center
B
At moon’s surface
C
Inside the Earth
D
Between Earth and moon
Question 170Single Answer
The acceleration due to gravity at the center of Earth is?
A
Zero
B
g/2
C
g
D
Infinite
Question 171Single Answer
The force of attraction between two masses is?
A
Directly proportional to product of masses
B
Inversely proportional to product of masses
C
Directly proportional to distance
D
None
Question 172Single Answer
The unit of gravitational potential energy is?
A
Joule
B
Watt
C
Newton
D
Pascal
Question 173Single Answer
The work done by gravity on a satellite in circular orbit is?
A
Positive
B
Zero
C
Negative
D
Infinite
Question 174Single Answer
The motion of a freely falling body is?
A
Uniform
B
Uniformly accelerated
C
Variable
D
None
Question 175Single Answer
Which instrument is used for measuring time accurately?
A
Stopwatch
B
Tachometer
C
Tachograph
D
Tachogauge
Question 176Single Answer
In uniform circular motion, speed is constant but?
A
Velocity is constant
B
None
C
Acceleration is zero
D
Velocity changes
Question 177Single Answer
The potential energy in SHM is maximum at?
A
Mean position
B
Extreme position
C
Midway
D
None
Question 178Single Answer
The work done by a conservative force in a closed path is?
A
Positive
B
Negative
C
Infinite
D
Zero
Question 179Single Answer
The energy of a satellite in orbit is?
A
Positive
B
Infinite
C
Zero
D
Negative
Question 180Single Answer
Which law of motion explains why a passenger is pushed backward in a starting car?
A
Second Law
B
First Law
C
Third Law
D
Universal Law of Gravitation
Question 181Single Answer
The point through which the whole weight of a body acts is called?
A
Center of mass
B
Centroid
C
Center of gravity
D
Axis
Question 182Single Answer
The turning effect of force about a point is called?
A
Torque
B
Power
C
Work
D
Energy
Question 183Single Answer
The mass of a body is measured using a?
A
Beam balance
B
Spring balance
C
Barometer
D
Ammeter
Question 184Single Answer
The weight of a body depends on?
A
Mass only
B
Gravitational acceleration
C
Volume
D
Both mass and gravity
Question 185Single Answer
The acceleration produced in a body is inversely proportional to?
A
Force
B
Distance
C
Weight
D
Mass
Question 186Single Answer
The quantity having unit kg·m/s² is?
A
Force
B
Work
C
Power
D
Energy
Question 187Single Answer
The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is?
A
Manometer
B
Altimeter
C
Hygrometer
D
Barometer
Question 188Single Answer
When a body is moving with uniform speed in a circle, its acceleration is?
A
Zero
B
Centripetal
C
Tangential
D
Constant
Question 189Single Answer
The slope of a velocity-time graph represents?
A
Acceleration
B
Displacement
C
Speed
D
Momentum
Question 190Single Answer
The slope of a displacement-time graph gives?
A
Speed
B
Velocity
C
Acceleration
D
Force
Question 191Single Answer
A rigid body rotates about a fixed axis if?
A
All move in same direction
B
All particles move in a line
C
No motion occurs
D
All particles move on concentric circles
Question 192Single Answer
One light year is the distance travelled by light in?
A
One second
B
One day
C
One year
D
One month
Question 193Single Answer
The S.I. unit of density is?
A
kg/m³
B
g/cm³
C
N/m³
D
m³/kg
Question 194Single Answer
The formula for potential energy is?
A
P = mgh
B
E = mv²
C
K = mv²
D
U = mgh
Question 195Single Answer
Which of the following instruments measures electric current?
A
Ammeter
B
Voltmeter
C
Galvanometer
D
Multimeter
Question 196Single Answer
The S.I. unit of angular displacement is?
A
Revolution
B
Degree
C
Radian
D
Meter
Question 197Single Answer
Torque produces?
A
Linear motion
B
Translational motion
C
Rotational motion
D
None
Question 198Single Answer
The process of comparing a measuring instrument with a standard is called?