Latest MPESB Junior Laboratory Assistant Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Knowledge General Knowledge, General Knowledge, General Hindi, General English, General Mathematics, General Reasoning Ability, General Science, General Computer Knowledge, Junior Laboratory Assistant
Question Bank MPESB Junior Laboratory Assistant Exam - English
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 7Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 8Single Answer
Which ancient city in Madhya Pradesh was a significant cultural and political center during the Maurya and Gupta periods?
A
Indore
B
Bhopal
C
Ujjain
D
Gwalior
Question 9Single Answer
The Parmar dynasty was primarily associated with which region of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Bundelkhand
B
Malwa
C
Baghelkhand
D
Mahakoshal
Question 10Single Answer
The famous temples of Khajuraho were built by which dynasty?
A
Parmar
B
Gupta
C
Chandela
D
Maurya
Question 11Single Answer
Which dynasty ruled the Gondwana region of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Kalachuri
B
Gond
C
Tomar
D
Solanki
Question 12Single Answer
Which Maratha dynasty held significant influence in Gwalior?
A
Holkar
B
Scindia
C
Peshwa
D
Gaekwad
Question 13Single Answer
Which ancient empire's influence extended to parts of Madhya Pradesh, as evidenced by Ashokan edicts?
A
Gupta
B
Maurya
C
Vakataka
D
Vardhana
Question 14Single Answer
The famous 'Bhojpur Temple' was constructed by which Parmar ruler?
A
Raja Munja
B
Raja Sindhuraja
C
Raja Bhoj
D
Raja Udayaditya
Question 15Single Answer
Which ministry launched the e-SHRAM portal to register unorganized workers in India?
A
Ministry of Labour and Employment
B
Ministry of Finance
C
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
D
Ministry of Home Affairs
Question 16Single Answer
What is the primary objective of the ‘BioE3 Policy’ approved by the Union Cabinet?
A
Foster high-performance biomanufacturing
B
Promote traditional farming practices
C
Increase coal production
D
Enhance organic farming
Question 17Single Answer
Which state launched the ‘Indiramma Atmiya Bharosa Scheme’ in 2025?
A
Telangana
B
Andhra Pradesh
C
Karnataka
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 18Single Answer
How many individuals were announced to receive the Padma Awards in 2025 by the Government of India?
A
121
B
139
C
140
D
165
Question 19Single Answer
Which Indian bank became the first to implement Clari5’s NCRP Integration Solution?
A
Bank of Baroda
B
Punjab National Bank
C
Bank of India
D
Canara Bank
General Knowledge General Knowledge
Question 20Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
General Hindi
Question 21Single Answer
'ऋ' अर् में बदलता है -
A
गुण संधि के अनुसार
B
यण संधि के अनुसार
C
वृद्धि संधि के अनुसार
D
अयादि संधि के अनुसार
Question 22Single Answer
निम्न में कौनसा नासिक्य व्यंजन है -
A
त्
B
न्
C
द्
D
भ्
Question 23Single Answer
निम्न में से उत्क्षिप्त व्यंजन है -
A
ल
B
ष
C
ड़
D
न
Question 24Single Answer
निम्न में से अल्प प्राण नहीं है -
A
ख
B
ग
C
च
D
द
Question 25Single Answer
तालव्य व्यंजन है-
A
ट ड द ढ
B
च छ ज झ
C
त थ द ध
D
प फ ब भ
Question 26Single Answer
'अ' स्वर का उच्चारण स्थान क्या है -
A
मूर्धा
B
कण्ठ
C
तालु
D
ओष्ठ
Question 27Single Answer
निम्लखित मे कंट- तालव्य स्वर कौनसे है ?
A
ए - ऐ
B
ए - ओ
C
ए - ऊ
D
त - द
Question 28Single Answer
जो धातु या शब्द के अंत में जोड़ा जाता है उसे कहते है ?
A
समास
B
अव्यय
C
उपसर्ग
D
प्रत्यय
Question 29Single Answer
प्रख्यात में प्रयुक्त उपसर्ग है -
A
प्र
B
त
C
प्रख
D
आत
Question 30Single Answer
'साखी' शब्द का तत्सम रूप है -
A
सखी
B
शाखा
C
राखी
D
साक्षी
General English
Question 31Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 32Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 33Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 34Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 35Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
General Mathematics
Question 36Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 37Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 38Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 39Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 40Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 41Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 42Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 43Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 44Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 45Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 46Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 47Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 48Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 49Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 50Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
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General Reasoning Ability
Question 51Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 52Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 53Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 54Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 55Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 56Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 57Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 58Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 59Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 60Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 61Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 62Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 63Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 64Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 65Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
General Science
Question 66Single Answer
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 67Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 68Single Answer
Dimensions of impulse are
A
[MLT –1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT–2]
D
[ML–1T–3]
Question 69Single Answer
Potential is measured in
A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these
Question 70Single Answer
One Nanometer is equal to
A
10–9m
B
10–6m
C
10–10m
D
10–3m
Question 71Single Answer
Maxwell is the unit of
A
magnetic susceptibility
B
intensity of Magnetisation
C
magnetic Flux
D
magnetic Permeability
Question 72Single Answer
Which of the following is derived physical quantity ?
A
Mass
B
Velocity
C
Length
D
Time
Question 73Single Answer
What are the units of magnetic permeability ?
A
Wb A–1 m–1
B
Wb–1 Am
C
Wb A m–1
D
Wb A–1 m
Question 74Single Answer
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 75Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus
Question 76Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
A
Manganese
B
Potassium
C
Phosphorus
D
Calcium
Question 77Single Answer
Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?
A
Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
B
Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
C
Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
D
Vacuole, cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria
Question 78Single Answer
For which among the following is not a true fruit ?
A
Apple
B
Date
C
Grape
D
Plum
Question 79Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane ?
A
Cholesterol
B
Glycoplids
C
Proline
D
Phospholipids
Question 80Single Answer
The replication of DNA is a pre-requisite for a eukaryotic cell to undergo division. During the cell cycle, the DNA replicates in
A
S–phase
B
G1–phase
C
G2–phase
D
M-phase
General Computer Knowledge
Question 81Single Answer
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 82Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 83Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 84Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 85Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 86Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 87Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 88Single Answer
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically
Question 89Single Answer
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 90Single Answer
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline
Question 91Single Answer
The term classic style implies
A
you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B
a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C
both a and b
D
font style
E
None of these
Question 92Single Answer
The term click implies
A
to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
a button in a dialog box
C
to shut down or exit a dialog box
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 93Single Answer
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
A
Minimize the window
B
Close the associated window or application
C
Maximize the window
D
Move the window
Question 94Single Answer
A command button
A
is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B
is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
D
is a small button with an X on it
E
None of these
Question 95Single Answer
What is smallest unit of the information?
A
A bit
B
A byte
C
A block
D
A nibble
Junior Laboratory Assistant
Question 96Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 97Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 98Single Answer
The one which decreases with dilution is
A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance
Question 99Single Answer
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A
28 mm
B
56 mm
C
70 mm
D
140 mm
Question 100Single Answer
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A
1 M solution of glucose
B
0.05 M solution of glucose
C
6% solution of glucose
D
25% solution of glucose
Question 101Single Answer
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
A
to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B
to minimise the snow fall
C
to minimise pollution
D
to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Question 102Single Answer
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A
AB2
B
A2B
C
AB
D
AB3
Question 103Single Answer
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A
decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B
decreases electron density at meta position
C
increases electron density at meta position
D
increases electron density at ortho and para position
Question 104Single Answer
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
A
PCI5
B
PCI3
C
SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
D
dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Question 105Single Answer
The carbon bond length in benzene is
A
in between C2H6 and C2H4
B
same as in C2H4
C
in between C2H6 and C2H2
D
in between C2H4 and C2H2
Question 106Single Answer
The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium formate and calcium acetate is
A
methanal
B
propanal
C
propanone
D
ethanal
Question 107Single Answer
An organic compound x is oxidised by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts with phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structured of X is
A
CH3CH2OH
B
CH3 – C – CH3
C
(CH3)2CHOH
D
CH3CHO
Question 108Single Answer
Arrange the following in the increasing of their. Basic strengths CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)2N, NH3
A
NH3, < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
B
NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
C
(CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
D
CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N , NH3
Question 109Single Answer
The one which has least iodine value is
A
sunflower oil
B
ginger oil
C
ghee
D
groundnut oil
Question 110Single Answer
A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because
A
glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly
B
glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
C
glucose reduces the blood sugar level
D
glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously
Question 111Single Answer
There are 20 naturally occurring among acids. The maximum number of tripeptides than can be obtained is
A
8000
B
6470
C
7465
D
5360
Question 112Single Answer
At what temperature ill the RMS velocity of SO2 be the same as that of O2 at 303 K ?
A
403 K
B
303 K
C
606 K
D
273 K
Question 113Single Answer
Phenol is treated with bromine water and shaken well. The white precipitate formed during the process is
A
m–bromophenol
B
2, 4, 6 tribromophenol
C
2-4 dibromophenol
D
A mixture of o-and p-bromophenols
Question 114Single Answer
In thermite process the metal used as reducing agent is:
A
Nickel
B
Zinc
C
Sodium
D
Aluminium
Question 115Single Answer
Which of the following compounds on boiling with alkaline KMnO4 and subsequent acidification will not give benzoic acid?
A
Benzyl alcohol
B
Acetophenone
C
Anisole
D
Toluene
Question 116Single Answer
The base present in DNA, but not in RNA is:
A
Guanine
B
Adenine
C
Uracil
D
Thymine
Question 117Single Answer
The total number of lattice arrangements in different crystal system is:
A
7
B
3
C
8
D
14
Question 118Single Answer
Alcoholic potash is used to bring about :
A
Dehydrogenation
B
Dehydration
C
Dehydrohalogenation
D
Dehalogenation
Question 119Single Answer
Which of the following is the correct statement?
A
Order of a reaction has always an integral value
B
Mechanism of a reaction proposed is always final
C
Zero order reactions are multi-step reactions
D
Order of reaction can be predicted even without knowing the rate law
Question 120Single Answer
The unit of quantity of electricity is:
A
Ohm
B
Ampere
C
Coulomb
D
Volt
Question 121Single Answer
Which of the following organic compounds answers both iodoform test and fehling’s test ?
A
Methanal
B
Ethanol
C
Propane
D
Ethanal
Question 122Single Answer
10 dm3 of N2 gas and 10 dm3 of gas X at the same temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules.
A
NO
B
H2
C
CO2 or CO
D
All of these
Question 123Single Answer
When the electrons of hydrogen atoms return to L shell from shells of higher energy, we get a series of lines in the spectrum. This series is called
A
Balmer series
B
Lyman series
C
Bracket series
D
Paschen series
Question 124Single Answer
The alcohol obtained by the hydrolysis of oils and fats is:
A
Glycol
B
Glycerol
C
Propanol
D
Pentanol
Question 125Single Answer
Which of the following alloys is used for making magnets for hearing aids?
A
Alnico
B
German silver
C
Invar
D
Monel metal
Question 126Single Answer
One dm3 of 2M ethanoic acid is mixed with one dm3 of 3M ethanol to form an easter
CH3COOH + C2H5OH → CH3COOC2H5 +H2O
The decrease in the initial rate if each solution is diluted with an equal volume of water would be
A
2 times
B
4 times
C
0.25 times
D
0.5 times
Question 127Single Answer
Which one of the following can be classified as a Bronstead base?
A
NO3-
B
H3O+
C
CH3COOH
D
NH4+
Question 128Single Answer
Gold sol is an electronegative sol. The amount of electrolyte required to coagulate a certain amount of gold sol is minimum in the case of :
A
CaCl2
B
NaCl
C
AlCl3
D
Na2SO4
Question 129Single Answer
Aluminium displaces hydrogen from acids, but copper does not. A Galvanic cell prepared by combining Cu/Cu2+ and Al/Al3+ has an emf of 2.0 V at 298 K. If the potential of copper electrode is +0.34 V, that of aluminium electrode is:
A
– 2.3 V
B
+ 2.34 V
C
– 1.66 V
D
+ 1.66 V
Question 130Single Answer
1.5 moles of O2 combine with Mg to form the oxide MgO. The mass of Mg that has combined is (Mg = 24):
A
72 g
B
36 g
C
48 g
D
24 g
Question 131Single Answer
How much of NaOH is required to neutralize 1500 cm3 of 0.1 N HCI?(Na = 23):
A
60 g
B
6 g
C
4 g
D
40 g
Question 132Single Answer
The boiling point of water is exceptionally high because:
A
Water molecule is not linear
B
Water molecule is linear
C
There is covalent bond between H and O
D
Water molecules associate due to hydrogen bonding
Question 133Single Answer
P4O10 is not used with to dry NH3 gas because:
A
P4O10 is basic and NH3 is acidic
B
P4O10 is acidic and NH3 is basic
C
P4O10 is not a drying agent
D
P4O10 reacts with moisture in NH3
Question 134Single Answer
A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 10 years. What percentage of the original amount of it remain after 20 years:
A
1
B
12.5
C
8
D
25
Question 135Single Answer
75% of a first order reaction is completed in 30 minutes. What is the time required for 93.75% of the reaction (in minutes)?
A
45
B
120
C
90
D
60
Question 136Single Answer
Excess of Na+ ions in our system causes:
A
High B.P.
B
Low B.P.
C
Diabetes
D
Anaemia
Question 137Single Answer
Which of the following is the most active chemically?
A
Chlorine
B
Flourine
C
Lithium
D
Iodine
Question 138Single Answer
Which among the following is a Noble Gas?
A
Nitrogen
B
Hydrogen
C
Oxygen
D
Helium
Question 139Single Answer
Which among the following is known as White Vitriol?
A
Zinc Sulphate
B
Zinc Chloride
C
Zinc Phosphate
D
Zinc oxide
Question 140Single Answer
The oxidation number and the electronic configuration of sulphur in H2SO4 is:
A
+ 4; 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
B
+2; +6; 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
C
+3; 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1
D
+6; 1s2 2s2 2p6
Question 141Single Answer
The mass of 112 cm3 of CH4 gas at STP is:
A
0.16 g
B
0.8 g
C
0.08 g
D
1.6 g
Question 142Single Answer
The volume of water to be added to 100 cm3 of 0.5 N H2SO4 to get decinormal concentration is:
A
400 cm3
B
500 cm3
C
450 cm3
D
100 cm3
Question 143Single Answer
Reactions that have standard free energy changes less than zero always have equilibrium constant equal to
A
unity
B
greater than unity
C
less than unity
D
zero
Question 144Single Answer
In order to decompose 9g water 142.5 kJ heat is required. Hence the enthalpy of formation of water is:
A
– 142.5 kJ
B
+ 142.5 kJ
C
– 285 kJ
D
+ 285 kJ
Question 145Single Answer
A quantity of PCl5 was heated in a 10 dm3 vessel at 2500 C PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) At equilibrium the vessel contains 0.1 mole of PCl5 and 0.2 mole of Cl2. The equilibrium constant of the reaction is:
A
0.05
B
0.02
C
0.025
D
0.04
Question 146Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 147Single Answer
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A
Ca3Al2O6
B
Ca3SiO5
C
Ca2SiO4
D
Ca3(PO4)2
Question 148Single Answer
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium
Question 149Single Answer
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
A
Super phosphate
B
Nitrolim
C
Muriate of Potash
D
Humus
Question 150Single Answer
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
A
Aluminium sulphate
B
Copper sulphate
C
Cobalt sulphate
D
Nickel sulphate
Question 151Single Answer
What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal and sulphur called ?
A
Glass
B
Cement
C
paint
D
Gun powder
Question 152Single Answer
Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty parlours for hair – setting ?
A
Sulphur based
B
Phosphorus based
C
Silicon based
D
Iron based
Question 153Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry ?
A
Magnesium oxide
B
Magnesium carbonate
C
Magnesium chloride
D
Magnesium sulphate
Question 154Single Answer
Which one of the following substances is used in the manufacture of safety matches ?
A
Red phosphorus
B
White phosphorus
C
Phosphorus trioxide (P2O3)
D
Black phosphorus
Question 155Single Answer
Which one of the following polymeric materials is used for making bullet proof jacket ?
A
Nylon –6, 6
B
Rayon
C
Kevlar
D
Dacron
Question 156Single Answer
Which one of the following is another name of RDX
A
Cyanohydrin
B
Dextran
C
Cyclohexane
D
Cyclonite
Question 157Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as an explosive ?
A
Phosphorus trichloride
B
Mercuric oxide
C
Graphite
D
Nitroglycerine
Question 158Single Answer
Flint glass is obtained from which of the following ?
A
Zinc and barium borosilicate
B
Sand, red lead and potassium carbonate
C
Sodium aluminium borosilicate
D
Pure silica and zinc oxide
Question 159Single Answer
Which one of the following correctly defines the state of glass ?
A
Crystalline solid
B
Super cooled liquid
C
Condensed gas
D
Liquid crystal
Question 160Single Answer
Which one of the following is not used as fertilizer ?
A
Ammonium nitrate
B
Ammonium sulphide
C
Ammonium phosphate
D
Ammonium sulphate
Question 161Single Answer
Which one of the following elements is needed in the human body to transfer electrical signals by nerve cells ?
A
Lithium
B
Sodium
C
Rubidium
D
Caesium
Question 162Single Answer
Which one of the following is NOT true for bleaching powder ?
A
It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries
B
It is used for bleaching wood pup in paper factories
C
It is used for disinfecting drinking water
D
It is used for bleaching linen in textile industry
Question 163Single Answer
Hard glass having the same ingredientsas soft glass excepts.
A
hard glass have Na in place of K
B
hard glass having K in place of Na
C
hard glass having both Na and K
D
None of the above
Question 164Single Answer
A complete fertilizer provides
A
N,P, K
B
S, K, N
C
S, B, K
D
N, S, P
Question 165Single Answer
Antacids are commonly used to get rid of acidity in the Stomach. A commonly used antacid is.
A
sodium hydrogen phthalate
B
magnesium hydroxide
C
calcium hydroxide
D
manganese acetate
Question 166Single Answer
Annealing of glass is done to.
A
make it brittle
B
make it opaque
C
make it transparent
D
None of the above
Question 167Single Answer
Petrochemicals are obtained from.
A
coal
B
petroleum
C
coal tar
D
All of these
Question 168Single Answer
The use of chemicals for treatment of diseases is called as.
A
isothermotherapy
B
angiotherapy
C
physiotherapy
D
chemotherapy
Question 169Single Answer
Which of the following is a hypnotic drug ?
A
luminal
B
salol
C
catechol
D
chemisol
Question 170Single Answer
Teflon is a polymer of which of the following monomers ?
A
Tetrafluoroethylene
B
Vinyl chloride
C
Acetylene dichloride
D
None of the above/More than one of the above
Question 171Single Answer
LPG used as domestic fuel chiefly contains–
A
Methane
B
Propane
C
Ethylene
D
Butane
E
None of the above/More than one of the above
Question 172Single Answer
Glass is a.
A
liquid
B
colloid
C
non–crystalline amorphous solid
D
crystalline solid
Question 173Single Answer
Which one of the following acids is used for etching glass ?
A
H2SO4
B
HNO3
C
HF
D
HCI
Question 174Single Answer
What is the purpose of adding plasticizers in paint manufacturing process ?
A
They act as a film–forming constituent
B
They reduce the viscosity
C
They prevent the polymerization and condensation
D
They provide elasticity to the film and minimize its cracking
Question 175Single Answer
Which raw material is used in the preperation of soft glass ?
A
K2CO3, SiO2, CaCO3
B
K2CO3, SiO2, PbCO3
C
Na2CO3, SiO2, CaCO3
D
Na2CO3, SiO2, PbO
Question 176Single Answer
What is the composition of nitrolim – a chemical fertilizer ?
A
Nitrogen and limestone
B
Calcium carbide and nitrogen
C
Calcium carbide and carbon
D
None of above
Question 177Single Answer
the major component used in preparation of different type of glasses is.
A
Silica
B
Sodium borate
C
Calcium silicate
D
Sodium silicate
Question 178Single Answer
Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to fireworks ?
A
Zinc and sulphur
B
Potassium and mercury
C
Strontium and barium
D
Chromium and nickel
Question 179Single Answer
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Phenyl is used as a household germicide.
Statement II : Phenyl is phenol derivative and phenol is an effective germicide.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
Both Statement I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I
C
Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Question 180Single Answer
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Coal–based thermal power stations contribute to acid–rain.
Statement II : Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
Both Statement I and II are individually correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are individiaully correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C
Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Question 181Single Answer
Terfenadine is commonly used as a/an.
A
transquilizer
B
antihistamine
C
antimicrobial
D
antibiotic
Question 182Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a tranqualizer ?
A
Equanil
B
Veronal
C
Salvarsan
D
Serotonin
Question 183Single Answer
Barbituric acid and its derivatives are well known.
A
antipyretics
B
analgesics
C
antiseptics
D
tranquilizers
Question 184Single Answer
Which one among is not an analgesic ?
A
Ibuprofen
B
Naproxen
C
Aspirin
D
Valium
Question 185Single Answer
Various phenol derivatives, tincture of iodine (2 – 3%) I 2 in (water/alcohol) and some dyes like methylene blue are.
A
antiseptics
B
disinfectants
C
analgesics
D
antipyretics
Question 186Single Answer
Commonly used antiseptics 'Dettol' is a mixture of.
A
o–chlorophenozylenol + terpeneol
B
o–cresol + terpeneol
C
phenol + terpeneol
D
chloroxylenol + terpeneol
Question 187Single Answer
Which of the following is not an antiseptic drug ?
A
Iodoform
B
Dettol
C
Gammexene
D
Genatian violet
Question 188Single Answer
Which one of the following substances is made from natural raw materials ?
A
Rayon
B
Nylon
C
Polyster
D
Polystyrene
Question 189Single Answer
The polymeric fibre used as a substitute for wool in making synthetic blankets, sweaters, etc. is.
A
nylon
B
teflon
C
orlon
D
bakelite
Question 190Single Answer
The cleaning of dirty clothes by soaps and detergents is deue to a type of molecules called surfactants, which are present in soaps and detergents. The surfactant molecules remove the dirt by.
A
making the cloth slippery
B
producing some gases between the dirt and the cloth
C
dissolving the dirt
D
forming some aggregates of themselves and take away the dirt in the core of the aggregates
Question 191Single Answer
Contact lenses are made from.
A
polyvinyl chloride
B
polystyrene
C
lucite
D
teflon
Question 192Single Answer
On of the occupational health hazards commonly faced by workers of ceramics, pottery and glass industry is.
A
stone formation in gall bladder
B
melanoma
C
silicosis
D
stone formation in kidney
Question 193Single Answer
vermicompost is an/a.
A
inorganic fertilizer
B
toxic substance
C
organic bio fertilizer
D
synthetic fertilizer
Question 194Single Answer
The macro nutrients provided by inorganic fertilizer are.
A
carbon, iron and boron
B
magnesium, manganese and sulphur
C
magnesiu, zinc and iron
D
nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
Question 195Single Answer
Which one of the following statement is not correct ?
A
Water starts boiling when its vapour pressure becomes equal to amospheric pressure
B
Water is known as universal solvent
C
Permanent hardness of water is due to presence of MgCl2, CaCl2, MgSO4 and CaSO4