Question for MPMKVVCL Bhopal AE JE 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest MPMKVVCL AE JE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Electrical, General Awareness, Aptitude

Question Bank MPMKVVCL AE JE Exam (Electrical) - English

Electrical

Question 1Single Answer

Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is

A
0.8 Ω
B
1.4 Ω
C
2 Ω
D
2.8 Ω

Question 2Single Answer

For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10^-6 (ohm-m)^-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m²/V-s and 0.04 m²/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?

A
7.0 × 10¹² m^-3
B
7.0 × 10^-12 m^-3
C
7.0 × 10^-12 m³
D
7.0 × 10¹² m³

Question 3Single Answer

The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m²/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m²/V-s?

A
9.2 × 10⁵/m³
B
2.77 × 10³/m³
C
2.43 × 10¹⁹/m³
D
8.9 × 10¹²/m³

Question 4Single Answer

Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place

A
By the mobility of the carriers
B
Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
C
By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
D
By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms

Question 5Single Answer

Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is

A
Parallel polarized
B
Perpendicularly polarized
C
Normally polarized
D
None of the above

Question 6Single Answer

An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if

A
Forward voltage increases up to the rating
B
Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
C
Forward voltage decreases below the rating
D
Reverse voltage decreases below the rating

Question 7Single Answer

The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is

A
Very difficult to form, machine or case
B
The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
C
The poor strength-to-weight ratio
D
The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures

Question 8Single Answer

Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?

A
High stiffness and strengths
B
Low densities
C
Unusual electrical property
D
Non-ductile

Question 9Single Answer

The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from

A
Meissner effect
B
Josephson effect
C
Isotope effect
D
x quantization experiments

Question 10Single Answer

Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?

A
Phenol formaldehyde
B
Polytetrafluoroethylene
C
Polyvinyl chloride
D
Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene

Question 11Single Answer

For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is

A
Ferrite
B
Piezoelectric
C
Pyroelectric
D
Ferromagnetic above 768°C

Question 12Single Answer

The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called

A
Peak temperature
B
Neel temperatur
C
Critical temperature
D
Weiss temperature

Question 13Single Answer

Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?

A
Seeback effect
B
Thomson effect
C
Hall effect
D
Joule effect

Question 14Single Answer

Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are

A
Soft magnetic materials
B
Hard magnetic materials
C
High eddy current loss materials
D
High hysteresis loss materials

Question 15Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
Both 1 and 2
B
Neither 1 nor 2
C
1 only
D
2 only

Question 16Single Answer

The impact ionization phenomenon in semiconductor may be viewed as the reverse process of

A
Radiative recombination
B
Auger recombination
C
Surface recombination
D
Shockley-Read-Hall recombination

Question 17Single Answer

Refractive index of a slice glass can be reduced by doping it with tiny amount of

A
GeO₂
B
B₂O₃
C
P₂O_5x
D
Al₂O₃

Question 18Single Answer

If a diameter of a copper wire is increased by two times keeping its terminal voltage same, then the drift velocity will

A
Become twice
B
Become half
C
ecome four times
D
Remain unchanged

Question 19Single Answer

In an induction type energy meter, the steady speed attained by the rotating disc is
1.Proportional to the deflecting torque.
2.Proportional to the resistance of the path of eddy currents.
3.Inversely proportional to the effective readings of disc from its axis.
4.Inversely proportional to the square of brake magnetic flux.
Which of the above are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 20Single Answer

If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?

A
MCHTX
B
MXHTC
C
XMHCT
D
XMHTC

Question 21Single Answer

When a very small amount of higher conducting metal is added to a conductor, its conductivity will

A
increase
B
decrease
C
remain the same
D
increase or decrease depending on the impurity

Question 22Single Answer

An electrically balanced atom has 30 protons in its nucleus and 2 electrons in its outermost shell. The materials made of such atom is

A
a conductor
B
an insulator
C
a semiconductor
D
a superconductor

Question 23Single Answer

The temperature coefficient of resistance of a doped semiconductor is

A
always positive
B
always negative
C
zero
D
positive or negative depending upon the level of doping

Question 24Single Answer

In the slice processing of an integrated circuit

A
components are formed in the areas where silicon dioxide remains
B
components are formed in the areas where silicon dioxide has been removed
C
the diffusing elements diffuse through silicon dioxide
D
only on diffusion process is used

Question 25Single Answer

Permanent magnet loses the magnetic behaviour when heated because of
1. atomic vibration
2. dipole vibration
3. realignment of dipoles
Which of the above are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 and 3

Question 26Single Answer

A Zener regulator has an input voltage varying between 20 V and 30 V. The desired regulated voltage is 12 V, while the load varies between 140

and 10k The maximum resistance in series with the unregulated source and Zener diode would be

A
3.3
B
6.6
C
36.6
D
93.3

Question 27Single Answer

A short in any type of circuit (series, parallel or combination) causes the total circuit
1. resistance to decrease
2. power to decreases
3. current to increase
Which of the above are correct?

A
2 and 3
B
2 and 4
C
1 and 4
D
1 and 3

Question 28Single Answer

An air-cored solenoid of 250 turns has a cross-sectional area A = 80 cm² and length l = 100 cm. The value of its inductance is

A
0.425 mH
B
0.628 mH
C
0.751 mH
D
0.904 mH

Question 29Single Answer

The current in a coil changes uniformly from 10 A to 1 A in half a second. A voltmeter connected across the coil gives a reading of 36 V. The self-inductance of the coil is

A
0.5 H
B
1 H
C
2 H
D
4 H

Question 30Single Answer

In a mutually coupled circuit, the primary current is reduced from 4A to zero in 10 s. A voltage of 40000 V is observed across the secondary. The mutual inductance between the coils is

A
100 H
B
10 H
C
0.1 H
D
0.01 H

Question 31Single Answer

A CRO screen has 10 divisions on the horizontal scale. If a voltage signal 5 sin (314t + 45°) is examined with a line base setting of 5 ms/div, the number of signals displayed on the screen will be

A
1.25 cycles
B
2.5 cycles
C
5 cycles
D
10 cycles

Question 32Single Answer

Which one of the following conditions will be correct when three identical bulbs forming a star are connected to a three-phase balanced supply?

A
The bulb in R phase will be the brightest
B
The bulb in Y phase will be the brightest
C
The bulb in B phase will be the brightest
D
All the bulbs will be equally bright

Question 33Single Answer

Loading by the measuring instruments introduces an error in the measured parameter. Which of the following devices gives most accurate result?

A
PMMC
B
Hot-wire
C
CRO
D
Electrodynamic

Question 34Single Answer

A moving-coil galvanometer can be used as a DC ammeter by connecting

A
a high resistance in series with the meter
B
a high resistance across the meter
C
a low resistance across the meter
D
a low resistance in series with the meter

Question 35Single Answer

Consider the following types of damping:
1. Air-friction damping
2.Fluid-friction damping
3.Eddy-current damping
PMMC type instruments use which of the above?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1,2 and 3

Question 36Single Answer

In data acquisition system, analog data acquisition system is used

A
for narrow frequency width, while digital data acquisition system is used when wide frequency width is to be monitored
B
for wide frequency width, while digital data acquisition system is used when narrow frequency width is to be monitored
C
when quantity to be monitored varies slowly, while its counterpart is preferred if the quantity to be monitored varies very fast
D
when quantity to be monitored is time-variant, while digital data acquisition system is preferred when quantity is time invariant

Question 37Single Answer

During the measurement of resistance by Carey Foster bridge, no error is introduced due to
1.contact resistance
2. Connecting leads
3.thermoelectric e.m.f.
which of the above are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1,2 and 3

Question 38Single Answer

Which of the following is true for the complete response of any network voltage or current variables for a step excitation to a first-order circuit?

A
It has the form at k₁ e^-at
B
It has the form k
C
It may have either the form (a) or the form of (a) plus (b)
D
It has the form e^+at

Question 39Single Answer

A piezoelectric crystal has a coupling coefficient K of 0.32. How much electrical energy must be applied to produce output energy of 7.06 × 10^–3 J?

A
25.38 mJ
B
22.19 mJ
C
4.80 mJ
D
2.26 mJ

Question 40Single Answer

A wattmeter reads 10 kW, when its current coil is connected in R phase and the potential coil is connected across R and neutral of a balanced 400 V (RYB sequence) supply. The line current is 54 A. If the potential coil reconnected across B-Y phases with the current coil in R phase, the new reading of the wattmeter will be nearly

A
10 kW
B
13 kW
C
16 kW
D
19 kW

Question 41Single Answer

A semiconductor differs from a conductor in that it has

A
Only one path for the free electrons in the valence band
B
Only one path for holes in the conduction band
C
Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an ordinary path in the conduction band and the other one an extraordinary path in the valence band, respectively
D
Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an extraordinary path in the conduction band and the other one an ordinary path in valence band, respectively

Question 42Single Answer

Which of the following circuits is used for converting a sine wave into a square wave?

A
Monostablemultivibrator
B
Bistablemultivibrator
C
Schmitt trigger circuit
D
Darlington complementary pair

Question 43Single Answer

Which of the following elements of electrical engineering cannot be analyzed using Ohm’s law ?

A
Capacitors
B
Inductors
C
Transistors
D
Resistance

Question 44Single Answer

Consider the following statements: A power supply uses bridge rectifier with a capacitor input filter. If one of the diodes is defective, then
1. The dc load voltage will be lower than its expected value
2. Ripple frequency will be lower than its expected value
3. The surge current will increase considerably
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 45Single Answer

Three identical amplifiers each having a voltage gain of 50 are cascaded. The open loop voltage gain of the combined amplifier is

A
71 dB
B
82 dB
C
91 dB
D
102 dB

Question 46Single Answer

A clamper circuit
1. Adds or subtracts a dc voltage to or from a waveform
2. Does not change the shape of the waveform
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 47Single Answer

If a carrier of 100% modulated AM is suppressed before transmission, the power saving is nearly

A
50%
B
67%
C
100%
D
125%

Question 48Single Answer

When the modulating frequency is doubled the modulation index is halved and the modulating voltage remains constant. This happens when the modulating system is

A
AM
B
PM
C
FM
D
Delta Modulation

Question 49Single Answer

The four basic elements in a PLL are loop filter, loop amplifier, VCO and

A
Up converter
B
Down converter
C
Phase detector
D
Frequency multiplier

Question 50Single Answer

In a frequency modulated (FM) system, when the audio frequency is 500 Hz and audio frequency voltage is 2.4 V, the frequency deviation is 4.8 kHz. If the audio frequency voltage is now increased to 7.2 V then what is the new value of deviation?

A
0.6 kHz
B
3.6 kHz
C
12.4 kHz
D
14.4 kHz

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Electrical

Question 51Single Answer

In an IGBT cell the collector and emitter are respectively

A
n and p
B
n+ and p+
C
p and n
D
p+ and n+

Question 52Single Answer

The main units in a pulse code modulator are:
1. Sampler
2. Quantiser
3. Encoder
4. Comparator

A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only

Question 53Single Answer

NAND and NOR gates are called ‘Universal’ gates primarily because

A
They are available everywhere
B
They are widely used in I.C. packages
C
They can be combined to produce AND, OR and NOR gate
D
They can be manufactured easily

Question 54Single Answer

To turn-off a GTO what is required at the gate?

A
A high amplitude (but low energy) negative current
B
A low amplitude negative current
C
A high amplitude negative voltage
D
A low amplitude negative voltage

Question 55Single Answer

In a power transformer, the core loss is 50 W at 40 Hz and 100 W at 60 Hz, under the condition of same maximum flux density in both cases. The core loss at 50 Hz will be

A
64 W
B
73 W
C
82 W
D
91 W

Question 56Single Answer

Consider the following advantages of a distributed winding in a rotating machine:
1. Better utilization of core as a number of evenly placed small slots are used
2. Improved waveform as harmonic emf’s are reduced
3. Diminished armature reaction and efficient cooling
Which of the above advantages are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 57Single Answer

The breadth factor for 3rd harmonic emf of a 3-phase, 4-pole, synchronous machine having 36 stator slots is

A
0.47
B
0.53
C
0.67
D
0.73

Question 58Single Answer

Consider the following factors for a dc machine:
1. Interpole
2. Armature resistance
3. Reduction in field current
Which of the above factors are responsible for decrease in terminal voltage of a shunt generator?

A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 59Single Answer

A dc motor develops an electromagnetic torque of 150 N-m in a certain operating condition. From this operating condition, a 10% reduction in field flux and 50% increase in armature current is made. What will be new value of electromagnetic torque?

A
225 N-m
B
202.5 N-m
C
22.5 N-m
D
20.25 N-m

Question 60Single Answer

If the capacitor of a capacitor-start single-phase motor fails to open when the motor picks up speed,

A
The motor will stop
B
The auxiliary winding will be damaged
C
The capacitor will be damaged
D
The winding will be damaged

Question 61Single Answer

If a square matrix of order 100 has exactly 15 distinct eigenvalues, then the degree of the minimum polynomial is

A
At least 15
B
At most 15
C
Always 15
D
Exactly 100

Question 62Single Answer

For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the core shall be of

A
Ferrite
B
Piezoelectric
C
Pyroelectric
D
Ferromagnetic above 768°C

Question 63Single Answer

Soft magnetic materials should have

A
Large saturation magnetization and large permeability
B
Low saturation magnetization and large permeability
C
Large saturation magnetization and low permeability
D
Low saturation magnetization and low permeability

Question 64Single Answer

Orbital magnetic moment of an electron, in an atom, is of the order of

A
0.1 Bohr magneton
B
1.0 Bohr magneton
C
10 Bohr magneton
D
100 Bohr magneton

Question 65Single Answer

When the temperature of a ferromagnetic material exceeds the Curie temperature, it behaves similar to a

A
Diamagnetic material
B
Ferrimagnetic material
C
Paramagnetic material
D
Antiferromagnetic material

Question 66Single Answer

What is the correct sequence of the following materials in ascending order of their resistivity ?
1. Iron
2. Silver
3. Constantan
4. Mica
5. Aluminium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A
2, 5, 1, 3 and 4
B
4, 5, 3, 1 and 2
C
2, 3, 1, 5 and 4
D
4, 5, 1, 3 and 2

Question 67Single Answer

In the first Cauer network, with a pole at infinity, the first element must be

A
Series capacitor
B
Series inductor
C
Shunt capacitor
D
Shunt inductor

Question 68Single Answer

The total magnetic moment
1. is called saturation magnetization.
2. depends on the number of magnetic dipoles per unit volume, the instant electric current and the area of the current loop.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 69Single Answer

Susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is 1. Negative
2. Positive
3. Dependent on the temperature
4. Independent of the temperature

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 70Single Answer

Superconductivity is a material property associated with

A
Changing shape by stretching
B
Stretching without breaking
C
A loss of thermal resistance
D
A loss of electrical resistance

Question 71Single Answer

An atom in a crystal vibrates at a frequency, determined by
1. Crystal heat current
2. Crystal temperature
3. The stiffness of the bonds with neighbour atoms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 72Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. Nano means 10^–9 so that nano materials have an order of dimension higher than the size of atom and come in the form of rods, tubes, spheres or even thin sheets/films
2. Nano materials have enhanced of changed structural property
3. Nano elements lend themselves to mechanical processing like rolling, twisting, positioning
4. Nano elements show important electrical, magnetic and optical characteristics that are useful in electrical industry
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2, 3 and 4
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only

Question 73Single Answer

For a two-part reciprocal network, the three transmission parameters are A = 4, B = 7 and C = 5. What is the value of D?

A
9.5
B
9.0
C
8.5
D
8.0

Question 74Single Answer

Consider the following as representations of reciprocity in terms of z-parameters:
1. z₁₁ = z₁₂ 2. z₁₂ = z₂₂
3. z₁₂ = z₂₁
Which of the above representations is/are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 75Single Answer

Kirchhoff’s current law is applicable to
1. Closed loops in a circuit
2. Junction in a circuit
3. Magnetic circuits
Which of the above is/are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 76Single Answer

Which of the following are satisfied in a non-linear network?
1. Associative 2. Superposition
3. Homogeneity 4. Bilaterality
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only

Question 77Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. Network theorems are not derivable from Kirchhoff’s law
2. To get the Norton current, one has to short the current source
3. Thevenin’s theorem is suitable for a circuit involving voltage sources and series connections
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
3 only

Question 78Single Answer

What is the octal equivalent of (5621.125)10?

A
11774.010
B
12765.100
C
16572.100
D
17652.010

Question 79Single Answer

What is the hexadecimal representation of (657)₈?

A
1 AF
B
D 78
C
D 71
D
32 F

Question 80Single Answer

In potential transformers, the secondary turns are increased slightly and the primary and secondary windings are wound as closely as possible to compensate for

A
Phase angle and ratio error, respectively
B
Ratio and phase angle error, respectively
C
Any eddy current loss and hysteresis loss, respectively
D
The hysteresis loss and eddy current loss, respectively

General Awareness

Question 81Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 82Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 83Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 84Single Answer

Which of the following is an important Paleolithic site of Madhya Pradesh?

A
Narmada valley
B
Hathnora
C
Jogdaha
D
All of the above

Question 85Single Answer

Bhimbetka Rock shelters, a UNESCO world Heritage Site is located at which place?

A
Indore
B
Bhopal
C
Raisen
D
Mandla

Question 86Single Answer

"It is a complex of many variables, which surrounds man as well as the living organisms."
The given statement refers to which of the following ?

A
Atmosphere
B
Knowledge
C
Environment
D
None of these

Question 87Single Answer

Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of

A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these

Question 88Single Answer

Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:

A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster

Question 89Single Answer

Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?

A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria

Question 90Single Answer

Which ministry launched the Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme of India (GHCI)?

A
Ministry of Power
B
Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
C
Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
D
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

Aptitude

Question 91Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 92Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 93Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 94Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 95Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 96Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 97Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 98Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 99Single Answer

Passage :

information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Chemistry but not in Physics.

A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206

Question 100Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.

A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these

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