The prehistoric rock shelters of Bhimbetka are located in which district of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Raisen
B
Dhar
C
Ujjain
D
Satna
Question 2Single Answer
Bhimbetka is particularly famous for its?
A
Buddhist stupas
B
Prehistoric rock paintings
C
Mughal architecture
D
Jain temples
Question 3Single Answer
Bhimbetka Rock Shelters were included in the UNESCO World Heritage List in?
A
1999
B
2001
C
2005
D
2003
Question 4Single Answer
The prehistoric site Adamgarh is located near which city of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Hoshangabad (Narmadapuram)
B
Indore
C
Rewa
D
Morena
Question 5Single Answer
Kayatha, an important Chalcolithic site, is located in which region of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Bundelkhand
B
Malwa
C
Baghelkhand
D
Mahakoshal
Question 6Single Answer
The Kayatha culture is primarily associated with which period?
A
Paleolithic
B
Chalcolithic
C
Mesolithic
D
Gupta
Question 7Single Answer
Navdatoli, an important archaeological site, is situated on the bank of which river?
A
Chambal
B
Betwa
C
Son
D
Narmada
Question 8Single Answer
Maheshwar and Navdatoli are important archaeological sites associated mainly with which culture?
A
Northern Black Polished Ware culture
B
Harappan culture
C
Painted Grey Ware culture
D
Malwa culture
Question 9Single Answer
Eran, an important ancient archaeological site of Madhya Pradesh, is located in which district?
A
Sagar
B
Sehore
C
Ratlam
D
Sidhi
Question 10Single Answer
The famous inscription mentioning Sati at Eran belongs to which historical period?
A
Gupta period
B
Mauryan period
C
Kushana period
D
Sultanate period
Question 11Single Answer
The ancient city of Ujjain was historically known as?
A
Ujjayini
B
Takshashila
C
Kaushambi
D
Indraprastha
Question 12Single Answer
Ujjayini was the capital of which ancient Mahajanapada?
A
Kosala
B
Vatsa
C
Avanti
D
Anga
Question 13Single Answer
Avanti was one of the?
A
Twelve Jyotirlingas
B
Sixteen Mahajanapadas
C
Eight Buddhist councils
D
Four Vedas
Question 14Single Answer
Which ancient ruler is traditionally associated with Ujjain and the Vikram Samvat?
A
Kanishka
B
Harshavardhana
C
Vikramaditya
D
Bimbisara
Question 15Single Answer
Sanchi is primarily associated with which religion?
A
Buddhism
B
Jainism
C
Shaivism
D
Sikhism
Question 16Single Answer
The original Great Stupa at Sanchi was commissioned by?
A
Ashoka
B
Chandragupta Maurya
C
Samudragupta
D
Harsha
Question 17Single Answer
Sanchi is situated in which district of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Raisen
B
Vidisha
C
Sehore
D
Sagar
Question 18Single Answer
The Heliodorus Pillar is located near?
A
Mandu
B
Vidisha
C
Orchha
D
Amarkantak
Question 19Single Answer
The Heliodorus Pillar is also popularly called?
A
Kirti Stambha
B
Ashoka Pillar
C
Victory Pillar
D
Garuda Pillar
Question 20Single Answer
Heliodorus described himself as a devotee of?
A
Shiva
B
Mahavira
C
Buddha
D
Vasudeva
Question 21Single Answer
The Udayagiri caves near Vidisha are particularly associated with which dynasty?
A
Mughal
B
Slave
C
Lodi
D
Gupta
Question 22Single Answer
The famous Varaha sculpture is located at?
A
Bagh Caves
B
Bharhut
C
Bhimbetka
D
Udayagiri Caves
Question 23Single Answer
The ancient Buddhist site of Bharhut is located in which district?
A
Mandla
B
Raisen
C
Dhar
D
Satna
Question 24Single Answer
Bharhut is famous mainly for its ancient?
A
Maratha palace
B
Mughal fort
C
Jain cave complex
D
Buddhist stupa
Question 25Single Answer
The Bagh Caves are located in which district of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Guna
B
Dhar
C
Panna
D
Katni
Question 26Single Answer
The Bagh Caves are primarily associated with?
A
Buddhism
B
Islam
C
Sikhism
D
Zoroastrianism
Question 27Single Answer
The Paramara dynasty ruled mainly from?
A
Gwalior
B
Dhar
C
Jabalpur
D
Rewa
Question 28Single Answer
Raja Bhoja belonged to which dynasty?
A
Kalachuri
B
Chandela
C
Tomara
D
Paramara
Question 29Single Answer
Bhojpur near Bhopal is associated with which ruler?
A
Raja Bhoja
B
Man Singh Tomar
C
Rani Durgavati
D
Baz Bahadur
Question 30Single Answer
The Bhojeshwar Temple at Bhojpur is dedicated to?
A
Vishnu
B
Surya
C
Shiva
D
Ganesha
Question 31Single Answer
The Khajuraho temples were mainly constructed by which dynasty?
A
Paramara
B
Chandela
C
Holkar
D
Scindia
Question 32Single Answer
Khajuraho is located in which district of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Chhatarpur
B
Tikamgarh
C
Panna
D
Damoh
Question 33Single Answer
The temples of Khajuraho represent predominantly which architectural style?
A
Nagara
B
Dravida
C
Vesara
D
Indo-Saracenic
Question 34Single Answer
The Kandariya Mahadeva Temple is located at?
A
Ujjain
B
Orchha
C
Khajuraho
D
Mandu
Question 35Single Answer
The medieval kingdom of Gondwana is closely associated with which ruler?
A
Rani Durgavati
B
Ahilyabai Holkar
C
Rani Lakshmibai
D
Razia Sultan
Question 36Single Answer
Rani Durgavati belonged by birth to which ruling clan?
A
Paramara
B
Chandela
C
Tomara
D
Pratihara
Question 37Single Answer
Rani Durgavati ruled the kingdom of?
A
Garha-Katanga
B
Malwa
C
Bundi
D
Mewar
Question 38Single Answer
Rani Durgavati fought against the Mughal forces led by?
A
Todar Mal
B
Bairam Khan
C
Asaf Khan
D
Man Singh
Question 39Single Answer
The medieval city of Mandu is located in which district?
A
Indore
B
Dhar
C
Ujjain
D
Dewas
Question 40Single Answer
Baz Bahadur is historically associated with?
A
Mandu
B
Orchha
C
Sanchi
D
Maheshwar
Question 41Single Answer
The romantic legend of Baz Bahadur is associated with?
A
Durgavati
B
Rupmati
C
Ahilyabai
D
Avantibai
Question 42Single Answer
Orchha was founded by which Bundela ruler?
A
Rudra Pratap Singh
B
Chhatrasal
C
Bir Singh Deo
D
Madhukar Shah
Question 43Single Answer
Maharaja Chhatrasal is mainly associated with which region?
A
Baghelkhand
B
Malwa
C
Nimar
D
Bundelkhand
Question 44Single Answer
Ahilyabai Holkar ruled primarily from?
A
Sagar
B
Gwalior
C
Maheshwar
D
Bhopal
Question 45Single Answer
The Holkar dynasty is primarily associated with?
A
Datia
B
Rewa
C
Panna
D
Indore
Question 46Single Answer
The Scindia dynasty is historically associated with?
A
Bhopal
B
Gwalior
C
Dhar
D
Jhabua
Question 47Single Answer
Rani Avantibai Lodhi is associated with the uprising of?
A
1857
B
1905
C
1920
D
1942
Question 48Single Answer
Rani Avantibai Lodhi was the queen of?
A
Orchha
B
Ramgarh
C
Datia
D
Rewa
Question 49Single Answer
Tatya Tope was executed at which place in present-day Madhya Pradesh?
A
Jabalpur
B
Gwalior
C
Indore
D
Shivpuri
Question 50Single Answer
Rani Lakshmibai died fighting near which city of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Ujjain
B
Gwalior
C
Sagar
D
Bhopal
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Subject Related (Law)
Question 51Single Answer
The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on?
A
15 August 1947
B
26 January 1950
C
26 November 1949
D
24 January 1950
Question 52Single Answer
The Constitution of India came into force on?
A
26 November 1949
B
26 January 1950
C
15 August 1947
D
2 October 1950
Question 53Single Answer
Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees?
A
Equality before law and equal protection of laws
B
Freedom of religion
C
Freedom of speech only
D
Right against exploitation
Question 54Single Answer
The prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth is primarily contained in?
A
Article 23
B
Article 17
C
Article 19
D
Article 15
Question 55Single Answer
Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment is guaranteed by?
A
Article 14
B
Article 16
C
Article 18
D
Article 20
Question 56Single Answer
Abolition of untouchability is provided under?
A
Article 17
B
Article 16
C
Article 15
D
Article 18
Question 57Single Answer
Article 19 primarily guarantees certain freedoms to?
A
Every person in the world
B
Only government servants
C
Citizens of India
D
Only elected representatives
Question 58Single Answer
Protection in respect of conviction for offences is provided under?
A
Article 19
B
Article 21
C
Article 20
D
Article 22
Question 59Single Answer
The constitutional protection against double jeopardy is contained in?
A
Article 20(2)
B
Article 20(1)
C
Article 20(3)
D
Article 21
Question 60Single Answer
Protection against self-incrimination is guaranteed by?
A
Article 21A
B
Article 20(3)
C
Article 22(4)
D
Article 32
Question 61Single Answer
The right to life and personal liberty is guaranteed under?
A
Article 19
B
Article 21
C
Article 20
D
Article 25
Question 62Single Answer
The right to education for children between six and fourteen years is provided by?
A
Article 20A
B
Article 24A
C
Article 21A
D
Article 45A
Question 63Single Answer
Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases is provided under?
A
Article 21
B
Article 24
C
Article 23
D
Article 22
Question 64Single Answer
Traffic in human beings and begar are prohibited under?
A
Article 21
B
Article 22
C
Article 25
D
Article 23
Question 65Single Answer
Employment of children below fourteen years in factories, mines or hazardous employment is prohibited by?
A
Article 21
B
Article 24
C
Article 23
D
Article 29
Question 66Single Answer
Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion is guaranteed under?
A
Article 30
B
Article 27
C
Article 29
D
Article 25
Question 67Single Answer
The right to constitutional remedies is guaranteed under?
A
Article 21
B
Article 32
C
Article 25
D
Article 44
Question 68Single Answer
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described which Article as the "heart and soul" of the Constitution?
A
Article 32
B
Article 19
C
Article 21
D
Article 14
Question 69Single Answer
Which writ is issued to produce a person who has allegedly been unlawfully detained?
A
Mandamus
B
Habeas Corpus
C
Certiorari
D
Quo Warranto
Question 70Single Answer
Which writ commands a public authority to perform a public or statutory duty?
A
Quo Warranto
B
Prohibition
C
Habeas Corpus
D
Mandamus
Question 71Single Answer
Which writ may be issued to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction?
A
Prohibition
B
Quo Warranto
C
Habeas Corpus
D
Mandamus
Question 72Single Answer
Which writ questions the legal authority of a person to hold a public office?
A
Certiorari
B
Quo Warranto
C
Mandamus
D
Habeas Corpus
Question 73Single Answer
Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in?
A
Part II
B
Part IV
C
Part III
D
Part V
Question 74Single Answer
Fundamental Duties are contained in?
A
Part III
B
Part IVA
C
Part IV
D
Part V
Question 75Single Answer
Fundamental Duties are enumerated in?
A
Article 50
B
Article 51A
C
Article 51
D
Article 52
Question 76Single Answer
The President of India is provided for under?
A
Article 53
B
Article 52
C
Article 54
D
Article 55
Question 77Single Answer
The executive power of the Union is vested in the?
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Chief Justice of India
D
Parliament
Question 78Single Answer
The Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at its head aids and advises the President under?
A
Article 72
B
Article 78
C
Article 76
D
Article 74
Question 79Single Answer
The Attorney-General for India is provided under?
A
Article 76
B
Article 74
C
Article 78
D
Article 80
Question 80Single Answer
Parliament of India consists of?
A
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha only
B
President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
C
President and Lok Sabha only
D
Prime Minister and two Houses
Question 81Single Answer
The Council of States is constitutionally known as the?
A
Lok Sabha
B
Legislative Council
C
Rajya Sabha
D
Federal Council
Question 82Single Answer
A Money Bill can be introduced only in the?
A
Lok Sabha
B
Rajya Sabha
C
Either House
D
Joint sitting
Question 83Single Answer
The definition of a Money Bill is contained in?
A
Article 108
B
Article 109
C
Article 111
D
Article 110
Question 84Single Answer
The President's power to promulgate Ordinances is contained in?
A
Article 122
B
Article 124
C
Article 123
D
Article 125
Question 85Single Answer
The Supreme Court of India is established under?
A
Article 124
B
Article 129
C
Article 136
D
Article 141
Question 86Single Answer
The Supreme Court is a court of record under?
A
Article 124
B
Article 131
C
Article 129
D
Article 136
Question 87Single Answer
The law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within India under?
A
Article 136
B
Article 141
C
Article 139
D
Article 142
Question 88Single Answer
The Governor of a State is provided for under?
A
Article 152
B
Article 153
C
Article 154
D
Article 155
Question 89Single Answer
The executive power of a State is vested in the?
A
Chief Minister
B
State Legislature
C
Chief Secretary
D
Governor
Question 90Single Answer
The Advocate-General for a State is provided under?
A
Article 163
B
Article 168
C
Article 165
D
Article 214
Question 91Single Answer
A High Court for each State is contemplated under?
A
Article 210
B
Article 226
C
Article 216
D
Article 214
Question 92Single Answer
High Courts' power to issue writs is primarily contained in?
A
Article 226
B
Article 136
C
Article 32
D
Article 227
Question 93Single Answer
The superintendence of High Courts over subordinate courts and tribunals is provided by?
A
Article 226
B
Article 235
C
Article 233
D
Article 227
Question 94Single Answer
The superintendence and control over subordinate courts is an important constitutional function of the?
A
Election Commission
B
High Court
C
Parliament
D
Union Public Service Commission
Question 95Single Answer
The Finance Commission is constituted under?
A
Article 280
B
Article 270
C
Article 300
D
Article 324
Question 96Single Answer
The Election Commission of India derives its constitutional authority principally from?
A
Article 324
B
Article 300A
C
Article 280
D
Article 356
Question 97Single Answer
The proclamation of National Emergency is governed by?
A
Article 352
B
Article 356
C
Article 360
D
Article 368
Question 98Single Answer
Failure of constitutional machinery in a State is dealt with under?
A
Article 356
B
Article 355
C
Article 352
D
Article 360
Question 99Single Answer
Financial Emergency is provided under?
A
Article 356
B
Article 358
C
Article 360
D
Article 365
Question 100Single Answer
The procedure for amendment of the Constitution is principally laid down in?
A
Article 368
B
Article 360
C
Article 356
D
Article 370
Question 101Single Answer
The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 primarily deals with?
A
Criminal procedure
B
Substantive civil law
C
Contractual obligations
D
Property transfers
Question 102Single Answer
BNSS, 2023 replaced which major procedural criminal law?
A
Indian Penal Code, 1860
B
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
C
Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
D
Police Act, 1861
Question 103Single Answer
BNSS came into force on?
A
26 January 2024
B
1 April 2024
C
1 July 2024
D
15 August 2024
Question 104Single Answer
Under BNSS, information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence may be given?
A
Only orally
B
Only in writing
C
Only through an advocate
D
Orally or by electronic communication
Question 105Single Answer
Information relating to a cognizable offence given electronically must generally be signed by the informant within?
A
24 hours
B
Three days
C
Seven days
D
Fourteen days
Question 106Single Answer
A cognizable offence is generally one in which police may?
A
Never investigate
B
Impose punishment directly
C
Act only after civil court permission
D
Arrest without warrant subject to law
Question 107Single Answer
In a non-cognizable case, the police ordinarily require whose order to investigate?
A
Governor
B
District Collector
C
Magistrate
D
Public Prosecutor
Question 108Single Answer
A person arrested must ordinarily be produced before the nearest Magistrate within?
A
24 hours excluding necessary journey time
B
12 hours
C
48 hours
D
Seven days
Question 109Single Answer
The basic purpose of an FIR is to record information relating to?
A
A cognizable offence
B
Every civil dispute
C
Only matrimonial disputes
D
Administrative misconduct only
Question 110Single Answer
A "Zero FIR" is particularly useful because it allows information to be recorded?
A
Only after trial starts
B
Without mentioning an offence
C
Only by a Sessions Judge
D
Irrespective of territorial jurisdiction initially
Question 111Single Answer
Under BNSS, forensic investigation has been given special emphasis for offences punishable with imprisonment of?
A
One year or more
B
Three years or more
C
Life imprisonment only
D
Seven years or more
Question 112Single Answer
The primary function of investigation in a criminal case is to?
A
Collect evidence concerning the alleged offence
B
Determine civil title
C
Pronounce final punishment
D
Amend the criminal law
Question 113Single Answer
A summons is primarily a legal process requiring a person to?
A
Pay compensation automatically
B
Surrender property permanently
C
Confess guilt
D
Appear before an authority or court
Question 114Single Answer
A warrant of arrest is ordinarily directed to securing the?
A
Dismissal of prosecution
B
Conviction of the accused automatically
C
Confiscation of all property
D
Presence of the accused/person concerned
Question 115Single Answer
Bail in a bailable offence is generally regarded as?
A
Completely prohibited
B
Available only from the Supreme Court
C
Available only after conviction
D
A statutory right subject to prescribed conditions
Question 116Single Answer
Anticipatory bail relates to a person who?
A
Has already completed sentence
B
Is a prosecution witness
C
Has been acquitted
D
Apprehends arrest for a non-bailable offence
Question 117Single Answer
A charge in a criminal trial primarily informs the accused about?
A
The judge's personal opinion
B
The accusation to be tried
C
The sentence already imposed
D
The prosecution's administrative expenses
Question 118Single Answer
A criminal trial before a Court of Session is ordinarily conducted by a?
A
Revenue Officer
B
Police Constable acting as judge
C
Public Prosecutor
D
Civil Registrar
Question 119Single Answer
Compounding of an offence means?
A
Increasing punishment automatically
B
Converting criminal proceedings into taxation proceedings
C
Settlement of specified offences as permitted by law
D
Mandatory conviction
Question 120Single Answer
Plea bargaining is intended to provide?
A
Abolition of criminal courts
B
Automatic acquittal in every case
C
An alternative mechanism for disposal of eligible criminal cases
D
Immunity from all future offences
Question 121Single Answer
An inquest is generally conducted to ascertain facts relating to?
A
Registration of property
B
Company incorporation
C
Certain suspicious or unnatural deaths
D
Tax assessment
Question 122Single Answer
The object of a search warrant is principally to authorize?
A
Conviction without trial
B
Search according to law
C
Preventive detention indefinitely
D
Amendment of charges by police
Question 123Single Answer
The term "investigation" generally includes proceedings for?
A
Constitutional amendment
B
Passing legislation
C
Judicial appointment
D
Collection of evidence conducted by police or an authorized person
Question 124Single Answer
A police report filed after completion of investigation is commonly associated with?
A
Presidential ordinance
B
Constitutional amendment
C
Civil decree
D
Final report/charge-sheet as applicable
Question 125Single Answer
The BNSS recognizes greater use of which mode in criminal procedure?
A
Electronic communication and technology
B
Oral tradition alone
C
Private arbitration for all crimes
D
Revenue records alone
Question 126Single Answer
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 replaced the?
A
Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
B
Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
C
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
D
Indian Penal Code, 1860
Question 127Single Answer
BNS, 2023 came into force on?
A
1 January 2024
B
1 July 2024
C
15 August 2024
D
26 January 2025
Question 128Single Answer
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita primarily contains?
A
Rules of taxation
B
Civil procedure
C
Substantive criminal law
D
Constitutional amendments
Question 129Single Answer
Which punishment was expressly introduced as a form of punishment under BNS?
A
Civil imprisonment only
B
Transportation for life
C
Exile
D
Community service
Question 130Single Answer
An act is not an offence merely because it is done by a child under the age of?
A
Seven years
B
Five years
C
Ten years
D
Twelve years
Question 131Single Answer
The defence based on unsoundness of mind principally concerns the offender's incapacity to know?
A
The market value of property
B
The maximum court fee
C
The identity of the investigating officer
D
The nature of the act or that it is wrong/contrary to law
Question 132Single Answer
The right of private defence under criminal law extends, subject to statutory limitations, to?
A
Body only
B
Property only
C
Body and property
D
Reputation only
Question 133Single Answer
Criminal conspiracy generally involves an agreement between two or more persons to?
A
Commit an illegal act or achieve a lawful act by illegal means
B
Perform only a lawful charitable act
C
File a civil suit
D
Enter into every commercial contract
Question 134Single Answer
Abetment may include?
A
Instigation
B
Conspiracy in circumstances prescribed by law
C
Each of these recognized modes
D
Intentional aid
Question 135Single Answer
An attempt to commit an offence generally occurs when a person?
A
Merely thinks about an offence
B
Reads about criminal law
C
Moves beyond preparation and does an act towards commission as required by law
D
Reports an offence
Question 136Single Answer
Culpable homicide is principally an offence affecting?
A
Public accounts
B
Human life
C
Intellectual property only
D
Electoral rolls
Question 137Single Answer
Murder is legally distinguished from other forms of culpable homicide primarily through?
A
Place of investigation alone
B
The victim's occupation alone
C
The statutory ingredients and exceptions
D
Court fee
Question 138Single Answer
Causing bodily pain, disease or infirmity to any person falls within the general concept of?
A
Mischief
B
Defamation
C
Cheating
D
Hurt
Question 139Single Answer
Wrongful restraint essentially involves voluntarily obstructing a person so as to prevent that person from?
A
Entering any private property regardless of right
B
Filing an income-tax return
C
Voting in Parliament
D
Proceeding in a direction in which the person has a right to proceed
Question 140Single Answer
Wrongful confinement is an aggravated form of?
A
Theft
B
Wrongful restraint
C
Defamation
D
Forgery
Question 141Single Answer
Theft primarily involves dishonest moving of?
A
Immovable property only
B
Intellectual ideas only
C
Government property only
D
Movable property out of another's possession without consent
Question 142Single Answer
Extortion involves intentionally putting a person in fear of injury and thereby dishonestly inducing delivery of?
A
Oral evidence only
B
Property or valuable security as recognized by law
C
Judicial office
D
Citizenship
Question 143Single Answer
Robbery is an aggravated form associated with?
A
Theft or extortion
B
Defamation only
C
Forgery only
D
Trespass only
Question 144Single Answer
Dishonest misappropriation concerns dishonest conversion or misappropriation of?
A
Property
B
Judicial precedent
C
Citizenship
D
Public office only
Question 145Single Answer
Criminal breach of trust fundamentally requires?
A
Physical injury in every case
B
Entrustment or dominion over property and dishonest misuse
C
Public office in every case
D
A written contract in every case
Question 146Single Answer
Cheating fundamentally involves?
A
Deception coupled with the legally required inducement/consequence
B
Mere silence in every situation
C
Accidental loss
D
Lawful persuasion
Question 147Single Answer
Mischief generally involves causing wrongful loss or damage by intending or knowing that an act will cause?
A
A constitutional amendment
B
A lawful transfer
C
Destruction or change affecting property/value/utility as prescribed
D
A judicial appointment
Question 148Single Answer
Criminal trespass generally requires entry into or upon property in another's possession with specified unlawful?
A
Intention
B
Tax liability
C
Citizenship
D
Qualification
Question 149Single Answer
Forgery is primarily connected with making a false document or electronic record with the requisite?
A
Ownership of land
B
Government employment
C
Physical injury
D
Intent
Question 150Single Answer
Defamation generally concerns making or publishing an imputation concerning a person with the requisite intention, knowledge or reason to believe that it will harm the person's?
