General Knowledge of Madhya Pradesh, National and International Level
Question 1Single Answer
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 2Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 3Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 4Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 5Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 6Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 7Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 8Single Answer
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically
Question 9Single Answer
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 10Single Answer
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline
Question 11Single Answer
The term classic style implies
A
you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B
a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C
both a and b
D
font style
E
None of these
Question 12Single Answer
The term click implies
A
to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
a button in a dialog box
C
to shut down or exit a dialog box
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 13Single Answer
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
A
Minimize the window
B
Close the associated window or application
C
Maximize the window
D
Move the window
Question 14Single Answer
A command button
A
is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B
is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
D
is a small button with an X on it
E
None of these
Question 15Single Answer
What is smallest unit of the information?
A
A bit
B
A byte
C
A block
D
A nibble
Question 16Single Answer
Which ancient city in Madhya Pradesh was a significant cultural and political center during the Maurya and Gupta periods?
A
Indore
B
Bhopal
C
Ujjain
D
Gwalior
Question 17Single Answer
The Parmar dynasty was primarily associated with which region of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Bundelkhand
B
Malwa
C
Baghelkhand
D
Mahakoshal
Question 18Single Answer
The famous temples of Khajuraho were built by which dynasty?
A
Parmar
B
Gupta
C
Chandela
D
Maurya
Question 19Single Answer
Which dynasty ruled the Gondwana region of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Kalachuri
B
Gond
C
Tomar
D
Solanki
Question 20Single Answer
Which Maratha dynasty held significant influence in Gwalior?
A
Holkar
B
Scindia
C
Peshwa
D
Gaekwad
Question 21Single Answer
Which ancient empire's influence extended to parts of Madhya Pradesh, as evidenced by Ashokan edicts?
A
Gupta
B
Maurya
C
Vakataka
D
Vardhana
Question 22Single Answer
The famous 'Bhojpur Temple' was constructed by which Parmar ruler?
A
Raja Munja
B
Raja Sindhuraja
C
Raja Bhoj
D
Raja Udayaditya
Question 23Single Answer
Which period saw the rise of the Baghel dynasty in Rewa?
A
Ancient Period
B
Medieval Period
C
Modern Period
D
Post-Independence Period
Question 24Single Answer
The 'Sanchi Stupa' is associated with which emperor?
A
Chandragupta Maurya
B
Ashoka
C
Samudragupta
D
Kanishka
Question 25Single Answer
Which city in Madhya Pradesh was known as 'Mahishmati' in ancient times?
A
Ujjain
B
Maheshwar
C
Mandu
D
Vidisha
Question 26Single Answer
The 'Guhil' dynasty had a branch that ruled in which region of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Malwa
B
Baghelkhand
C
Bundelkhand
D
Gondwana
Question 27Single Answer
Who was the famous queen of the Gond dynasty who resisted Mughal invasions?
A
Ahilyabai Holkar
B
Rani Durgavati
C
Rani Laxmibai
D
Rani Karnavati
Question 28Single Answer
Which British treaty led to the establishment of the princely state of Gwalior under the Scindias?
A
Treaty of Salbai
B
Treaty of Bassein
C
Treaty of Subsidiary Alliance
D
Treaty of Lahore
Question 29Single Answer
The 'Mandu' fort is associated with which Sultanate?
A
Delhi Sultanate
B
Malwa Sultanate
C
Gujarat Sultanate
D
Bahmani Sultanate
Question 30Single Answer
The 'Baghelkhand' region was known for its patronage of which art form?
A
Dhrupad music
B
Bundeli folk dance
C
Bagheli folk songs
D
Khayal singing
Question 31Single Answer
Which ancient city near Bhopal is famous for its Heliodorus pillar?
A
Sanchi
B
Vidisha
C
Udayagiri
D
Bhimbetka
Question 32Single Answer
The 'Kalachuri' dynasty had its capital at which city in Madhya Pradesh?
A
Jabalpur
B
Indore
C
Rewa
D
Gwalior
Question 33Single Answer
Which historical site in Madhya Pradesh is known for its rock shelters and prehistoric rock paintings?
A
Khajuraho
B
Sanchi
C
Bhimbetka
D
Mandu
Question 34Single Answer
Which ruler of the Parmar dynasty was a renowned scholar and patron of arts?
A
Udayaditya
B
Munja
C
Bhoj
D
Sindhuraja
Question 35Single Answer
The 'Chausath Yogini Temple' is located in which district of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Gwalior
B
Khajuraho
C
Jabalpur
D
Ujjain
Question 36Single Answer
What major infrastructure decision was approved by the MP Cabinet on June 10, 2025?
A
Construction of new airports
B
Connecting 20,600 remote settlements to main roads
C
Expansion of metro lines
D
Development of new dams
Question 37Single Answer
What is the estimated cost for connecting 20,600 remote settlements in MP?
A
Rs.21,630 crore
B
Rs.15,000 crore
C
Rs.25,000 crore
D
Rs.30,000 crore
Question 38Single Answer
Which mission was highlighted by CM Mohan Yadav for youth empowerment in June 2025?
A
Garib Kalyan Mission
B
Women Empowerment Mission
C
Farmer Welfare Mission
D
Yuva Shakti Mission
Question 39Single Answer
What initiative was launched to support farmers with solar pumps in MP?
A
Farmers pay Rs.50,000, rest by government
B
Subsidized electricity for pumps
C
Free solar pumps for all farmers
D
Farmers pay Rs.30,000, rest in installments
Question 40Single Answer
Which policy was part of the Industrial Promotion Policy 2025 approved in MP?
A
Education Policy
B
Renewable Energy Equipment Manufacturing Policy
C
Healthcare Policy
D
Tourism Safety Policy
Question 41Single Answer
World AIDS Day is observed annually on December 1 to raise awareness about HIV/AIDS. Which theme was adopted for World AIDS Day 2025?
A
Ending the HIV Epidemic
B
Know Your Status
C
My Health, My Right
D
Zero Discrimination
Question 42Single Answer
India has been re-elected to the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) Council for the 2025-26 biennium. In which category did India secure the highest votes?
A
Category B (Economic Influence)
B
Category A (Major Maritime States)
C
Category C (Geographical Representation)
D
Observer Category
Question 43Single Answer
The Samudrayaan project, India's first manned deep-sea mission, faced delays in 2025 due to issues with components from which country?
A
United States
B
Russia
C
France
D
Japan
Question 44Single Answer
According to the Lowy Institute's Asia Power Index 2025, India has risen to which position in Asia?
A
3rd
B
2nd
C
1st
D
4th
Question 45Single Answer
Kashi Tamil Sangamam (KTS) 4.0 is scheduled to begin on December 2, 2025. Which ministry is hosting this event to strengthen cultural ties between Tamil Nadu and Varanasi?
A
Ministry of Culture
B
Ministry of Education
C
Ministry of Tourism
D
Ministry of External Affairs
Question 46Single Answer
In the Asia Power Index 2025, which city overtook Tokyo to become the world's most populous?
A
Mumbai
B
Delhi
C
Shanghai
D
Jakarta
Question 47Single Answer
The 19th edition of the joint military exercise between India and Nepal, Surya Kiran, is being held from November 25 to December 8, 2025. Where is it conducted?
A
Kathmandu
B
Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand
C
Pokhara
D
Siliguri
Question 48Single Answer
Indian scientists developed the AI tool 'OncoMark' in 2025. What is its primary purpose?
A
Decoding cancer biomarkers
B
Predicting climate patterns
C
Optimizing crop yields
D
Analyzing traffic data
Question 49Single Answer
A destructive storm system in late November 2025 affected South and Southeast Asia, killing over 1,100 people. Which country reported the highest death toll?
A
India
B
Thailand
C
Sri Lanka
D
Indonesia
Question 50Single Answer
India B (Manipur) won the 15th Manipur Polo International Tournament in November 2025. Whom did they defeat in the final?
A
Australia
B
Colombia
C
UK
D
Bhutan
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Civil
Question 51Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 52Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
2 and 3 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1 and 4 only
Question 53Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
3 and 4 only
Question 54Single Answer
Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 55Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 3 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 56Single Answer
Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only
Question 57Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 58Single Answer
A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm2 and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is
A
100.6 N/mm2
B
120.4 N/mm2
C
140.2 N/mm2
D
160.0 N/mm2
Question 59Single Answer
In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called
A
Annealing effect
B
Bauschinger effect
C
Strain rate effect
D
Fatigue effect
Question 60Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
3 only
Question 61Single Answer
The span of a cantilever beam is 2m. The cross-section of the beam is a hollow square with external sides 100 mm; and its 1 = 4 × 105 mm4. The safe bending stress for the beam material is 100 N/mm2. The safe concentrated load at the free end would be
A
100 N
B
200 N
C
300 N
D
400 N
Question 62Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of arched construction made of voussoirs:
1. The superimposed load is transferred to the sidewalls only by the strength of cohesion of the mortar between the voussoirs.
2. The arch may fail under crushing when the compressive stress or thrust in it exceeds the safe crushing strength of the voussoir material.
3. Every element in the arch is subjected to compression only.
4. Failure of the arch due to the sliding of any voussoir past the adjacent one due to transverse shear can be avoided by reducing the height of the voussoirs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 4 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 63Single Answer
Which of the following are examples of indeterminate structures?
1. Fixed beam
2. Continuous beam
3. Two-hinged arch
4. Beam overhanging on both sides
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only
Question 64Single Answer
A cantilever beam, 3m long, carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire length. If the slope at the free end is 1°, the deflection at the free end is
A
49.27 mm
B
39.27 mm
C
30.27 mm
D
20.27 mm
Question 65Single Answer
The maximum bending moment at a given section, in which a train of wheel loads moves occurs when the average load on the left segment is
1. Equal to the average load on the right segment.
2. More than the average load on the right segment.
3. Less than the average load on the right segment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
3 only
Question 66Single Answer
A single degree of freedom system of mass 22 kg and stiffness 17 kN/m vibrates freely. If damping in the system is 2%, the cyclic frequency and the damped circular frequency, respectively, are nearly
A
0.4 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
B
0.88 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
C
4.4 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
D
0.88 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
Question 67Single Answer
A cable of insignificant weight, 18 m long, is supported at its two ends, 16m apart, at the same level. The cable supports at its mid-reach a load of 120 N. The tension in the cable is nearly
A
136 N
B
131 N
C
131 N
D
121 N
Question 68Single Answer
The design strength of a tension member is governed by
1. Rupture at a critical section
2. Yielding of gross area
3. Block shear of end region
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 69Single Answer
A beam-column is alternately bent either (1) in single curvature, or (2) in double curvature. The secondary moments induced are to be compared. These are indicated SM1 and SM2 as per the conditions (1) and (2) respectively
A
SM1 > SM2
B
SM1 < SM2
C
SM1 = SM2
D
Cannot be ascertained
Question 70Single Answer
Gantry girders can be designed
1. As laterally supported beams.
2. As laterally unsupported beams.
3. By using channel sections.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 71Single Answer
A three-hinged parabolic arch ABC has a span of 20 m and a central rise of 4·0 m. The arch has hinges at the ends and at the crown. A train of two point loads of 20 kN and 10 kN, 5 m apart, crosses this arch from left to right, with the 20 kN load leading. The maximum thrust induced at the supports is
A
25·0 kN
B
28·13 kN
C
31·25 kN
D
32·81 kN
Question 72Single Answer
According to IS : 875 Part 3, the design wind speed acting on industrial roof is estimated based on the basic wind speed by multiplying it by factors K1,K2 andK3, where K1 is called
A
Risk coefficient
B
Structure size factor
C
Topography factor
D
Risk coefficient
Question 73Single Answer
Consider the following two statements regarding Bearing stiffeners provided at the location of a concentrated load:
1. Bearing stiffeners have to resist bearing and buckling loads.
2. Bearing area and the area resisting buckling load are the same.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
2 only
B
1 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 74Single Answer
In a plate girder, the web plate is connected to the flange plates by fillet welding. The size of the fillet welds is designed to safely resist
A
The bending stresses in the flange
B
The vertical shear force at the section
C
The horizontal shear force between the flanges and the web plate
D
The forces causing buckling in the web
Question 75Single Answer
A certain R.C. short column with 300 mm square cross-section is made of M 20 grade concrete and has 4 numbers, 20 mm diameter, longitudinal bars of Fe 415 grade steel. It is under the action of a concentric axial compressive load. Ignoring the reduction in the area of concrete due to the steel bars, the ultimate axial load carrying capacity of the column as by the relevant code is
A
1069 kN
B
1198 kN
C
1548kN
D
1659 kN
Question 76Single Answer
A rectangular beam of size 230 mm × 350 mm beam is (effective depth). The factored shear force acting at a section is 80 kN. If the permissible shear stress in concrete is 0·25 MPa, the design shear force is nearly
A
100 kN
B
80 kN
C
60kN
D
20 kN
Question 77Single Answer
In a combined footing for two columns carrying unequal loads, the maximum hogging moment occurs at
A
The inside face of the heavier column
B
A section equidistant from both the columns
C
A section subjected to maximum shear force
D
A section subjected to zero shear force
Question 78Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum steel requirements of slabs are based on considerations of shrinkage and temperature effects alone, and not on strength.
2. Providing excessive reinforcement in beams can result in congestion, thereby adversely affecting the proper placement and compaction of concrete.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 79Single Answer
A T-beam becomes identical to a rectangular beam with width equal to its flange width when the neutral axis is
A
Through the geometrical centre of the beam
B
At the junction of the rib and the flange
C
Below the slab
D
Within the flange
Question 80Single Answer
Consider the following statements in the light of IS : 456 - 2000 :
1. There is an upper limit on the nominal shear stress in beams (even with shear reinforcement) due to the possibility of crushing of concrete in diagonal compression.
2. A rectangular concrete slab whose length is equal to its width may not be a two-way slab for certain definable support conditions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 81Single Answer
A simply supported prestressed concrete beam is of 25m span. The initial stress is 1000 MPA. The slip in the jack during tensioning has been 2mm. If ES = 200 GPa, the loss of prestress due to anchorage slip is
A
16%
B
12%
C
10%
D
1.6%
Question 82Single Answer
Which of the following measures are relevantly considered for earthquake loading and lateral stability of tall buildings?
1. Minimizing gravity loads
2. Adding masses at floor levels
3. Ensuring ductility at the locations of maximum moments
4. Providing shear walls
5. Providing basement
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A
1, 2 and 5 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
3, 4 and 5 only
Question 83Single Answer
Which of the following statements is/are correct for a non-critical activity?
1. It demands very special attention and action.
2. One can do with normal attention to this activity with some leeway for action.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 84Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding tendering for a civil work:
1. Earnest money deposit (EMD) is a prerequisite to tender for a work.
2. It is not essential to call for the contractor’s credentials when a tender is invited.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 85Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding quality control:
1. It refers to absolute conformity to specifications.
2. It may not vouch against overspending.
3. It may unknowingly resort to overdesign in the hope of risk minimization.
4. It is intended to reduce maintenance costs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 3 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
1 and 4 only
Question 86Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Depression of mercury in a capillary tube is dependent on density and surface tension.
2. Modeling of flow-induced drag on a ship is done invoking both of Froude number 30. and Reynolds number.
3. Flow of a fluid in a narrow pipe is relatable to both Reynolds number and Cauchy number.
4. Formation and collapse of a soap bubble is analyzed through employing surface tension and external pressure.
5. Flow over the downstream slope of an ogee spillway can be affected by surface tension.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1, 2 and 4 only
B
1, 3 and 5 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
3, 4 and 5 only
Question 87Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding flow net:
1. It helps determine the quantity of seepage.
2. It helps determine the upward lift below a hydraulic structure.
3. It is applicable to rotational flow only.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 88Single Answer
Hydraulic jump forms in a horizontal rectangular channel carrying a unit discharge of 1.019 m3/sec/m at a depth of 101.9 mm. This jump is classified as
A
Weak jump
B
Oscillating jump
C
Steady jump
D
Strong jump
Question 89Single Answer
A man, 65 kg, descends to the ground with the help of a parachute, 18 kg. The parachute is hemispherical in shape, 2m diameter. Density of air can be taken as 0.00125 g/cm3 and its kinematic viscosity as 0.15 stoke. What is the terminal velocity of the parachute? (Take CD = 1.5 and g = 1000 cm/sec2)
A
16.6 m/sec
B
15.8 m/sec
C
15.0 m/sec
D
14.1 m/sec
Question 90Single Answer
In a wide rectangular channel, the normal depth is increased by 20%. This would mean an increase in the discharge of the channel nearly by
A
20%
B
26%
C
36%
D
56%
Question 91Single Answer
At a sluice gate across a rectangular channel, the upstream flow conditions are: depth of 2.0 m; velocity of flow of 1.25 m/sec. The flow conditions at the vena contract just downstream of the gate can be taken as: depth of 0.44 m; velocity of flow of 5.68 m/sec. What is the total thrust on the gate on its upstream face (to the nearest 10 units)?
A
770 kgf
B
800 kgf
C
825 kgf
D
870 kgf
Question 92Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding a turbine:
1. Specific speed plays an important role in the selection of the type of turbine.
2. An increase in specific speed of the turbine is accompanied by higher maximum efficiency.
3. The runner of too high specific speed with high available head increases the cost of the turbine on account of the high mechanical strength required.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 93Single Answer
In a hydraulic machine, the moment of momentum of water is reduced by 15915 N.m, when the machine is rotating at 600 rpm. The power developed is
A
1000 kW
B
1500 kW
C
2000 kW
D
2500 kW
Question 94Single Answer
Consider the following statements in connection with hydraulic turbines:
1. The Kaplan turbine is a radial flow turbine in which the guide vane angles as well as the runner vane angles are adjustable.2. Francis and Kaplan turbines are provided with draft tubes which carry water from exit of runner to tail water to increase the gross-head across the turbine.
3. The parts of turbines susceptible to cavitation are the guide vanes and runner vanes — drastically reducing the turbine efficiency.
4. The specific speed of a 4-jet Pelton turbine will be 28 if the specific speed of a single-jet Pelton turbine is 14.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
2 and 3 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 95Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. Surge tanks are not substitutes for forebays.
2. Pumped storage power plants are a boon to power generation.
3. Water hammer in penstocks is not dangerous.
4. Kaplan turbines are used in low head power plants.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
2 and 4 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 96Single Answer
In the standard SCS-CN method of modelling runoff due to daily rainfall, if CN = 75, the runoff magnitude for a one-day rainfall of 100 mm is nearly
A
17 mm
B
31 mm
C
41 mm
D
57 mm
Question 97Single Answer
Consider the following statements concerning precipitation:
1. The Isohyetal map method of determining the average precipitation is considered to be better than the Thiessen method.
2. There is no possibility of damaging the storms because of cloud seeding activity.
3. Water that percolates through the soil emerges as the dry weather flow in streams.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 98Single Answer
The probability of a 10-year flood to occur at least once in the next 4 years is
A
45%
B
35%
C
30%
D
20%
Question 99Single Answer
Tortuosity of a meandering river is the ratio of
A
Meander length to width of the meander
B
Meander length to width of the river
C
Curved length along the river to the direct axial length of the river
D
Direct axial length of the river to the curved length along the river
Question 100Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of ground water aquifers:
1. Specific storage is specific capacity per unit depth of the aquifer.
2. Specific capacity is storage coefficient per unit aquifer depth.
3. Specific capacity is a constant for a given well.
4. For one-dimensional flow in a confined aquifer between two water bodies, the piezometric head line in the aquifer is a straight line.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
2 and 3 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1 and 4 only
Question 101Single Answer
An extended layer of soil with homogeneous rounded grains has 10% of the material finer than 0.07 mm. The constant to be adopted to determine its permeability has been recommended as 750. What is its permeability?
A
2.583 m/day
B
2.857 m/day
C
3.244 m/day
D
3.675 m/day
Question 102Single Answer
Consider the following statements in connection with soil-water-crop relationship:
1. Water utilization by plants is mainly from capillary water.
2. The amount of irrigation water required to meet the evapotranspiration needs of the crop during its full growth duration is its consumptive irrigation requirement.
3. The depth of water required to bring the soil-moisture level of a given soil up to its field capacity is called hygroscopic water.
4. With continuous increase in quantity of water applied, the yield of most crops increases up to a certain limit and then is expected to be constant.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1 and 4 only
Question 103Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding design of channel by Lacey and Kennedy:
1. The theoretical concept of silt transportation is the same in both the theories.
2. Lacey improved upon Kennedy’s formula.
3. There are no defects in either the theories of Lacey or of Kennedy.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 104Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of dams:
1. In a gravity dam, a grout curtain is provided near the toe to reduce the exit gradient.
2. A drainage gallery with its drainage pipe system provided in a gravity dam reduces the uplift pressure at all levels below the upstream water level.
3. An earthquake acceleration of 0.1g acting vertically downward causes a decrease of 10% in the unit weight of concrete and of water in a gravity dam.
4. The Tehri dam is a gravity dam.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 105Single Answer
Objectives for river training are
1. High flood discharge may pass safely through the reach.
2. Sediment load (including bed and suspended load) may be transported efficiently.
3. By making the river course unstable whereby to increase bank erosion. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 106Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding coagulant aids:
1. They are employed when temperature is low as they then accelerate the process of coagulation.
2. They are employed when flocs are small and water is coloured.
3. With their use, water purification capacity of the plant is increased.
4. Most widely used materials are oxidants, absorbents, weighing agents, activated carbon and polyelectrolytes.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only
Question 107Single Answer
A good disinfectant
1. Should be persistent enough to prevent regrowth of organisms in the distribution system.
2. Must be toxic to micro-organisms at concentrations well above the toxic thresholds of humans and higher animals.
3. Should have a fast rate of kill of microorganisms.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 108Single Answer
The approximate value of BHP of a pump to supply 1m3/s water to a town at RL 400 m from a source, whose water level is at RL 320 m, would be
A
940
B
1000
C
1070
D
1120
Question 109Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding removal of impurities from water:
1. Settleable solids are removed by filtration.
2. Volatile solids are removed through sedimentation.
3. Dissolved solids are removed through reverse osmosis.
4. Colloidal solids are removed by coagulation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 4 only
Question 110Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding contact stabilization process:
1. Primary settling tank is not required in some cases.
2. BOD removal occurs in two stages.
3. Aeration volume requirements are approximately 50% of those of a conventional — or tapered — aeration plant. 4. Returned sludge is aerated for 30 min to 90 min in sludge aeration tank.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only
Question 111Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding pyrolysis:
1. It is an irreversible chemical change brought about by the action of heat in oxygen-free atmosphere.
2. Range of temperature is 500°C to 1000°C. 3. Internal heating causes organic matter to decompose physically and chemically rather than burn.
4. It is a highly exothermic process.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 3 only
Question 112Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding air pollution:
1. The pollutant caused by incomplete combustion of organic matter is carbon monoxide.
2. Depletion of ozone in outer atmosphere may trigger skin .
3. Acid rains are caused by SO2 and NOx.
4. The permissible standard for SO2 in air for residential areas in India is 80 g/ m3
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 3 only
Question 113Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. Ilite is the mineral largely responsible for the swelling and shrinkage behaviour of clayey soils.
2. A differential free swell value of 55% indicates a soil with low degree of expansiveness.
3. Higher the plasticity index of a soil, greater its swelling potential.
4. A low shrinkage limit of a soil indicates possibility of swelling at low water content.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
3 and 4 only
Question 114Single Answer
Consider the following effects as indicative of complete saturation of a soil sample:
1. Pore water pressure is positive.
2. Volume of water to volume of voids is equal to 1.
3. Relative density is equal to 1.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 115Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. Secondary consolidation of soil follows Terzaghi’s one-dimensional theory of consolidation.
2. Consolidation is a function of total stress.
3. Even after complete dissipation of excess pore pressure, the soil undergoes a little more consolidation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
3 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 only
Question 116Single Answer
An untrained triaxial compression test is carried out on a saturated clay sample under a cell pressure of 50kN/m2. The sample failed at a deviator stress of 100kN/m2. The cohesion of this clay sample would be
A
25 kN/m2
B
50 kN/m2
C
75 kN/m2
D
100 kN/m
Question 117Single Answer
Consider the following statement regarding permeability of soils:
1. Permeability of coarse grained soil is inversely proportional to the specific surface at a given porosity.
2. Direct measurement of permeability of a soil specimen at any stage of loading in oedometer test can be made only fixed-ring type oedometer.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 118Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct
1. Stress Isobar can be prepared using Boussinesq’s stress distribution theory.
2. Equivalent point load method yields accurate results.
3. Newmarks’s method relates the vertical stress with the help of influence chart.
4. Westergaard’s method helps in determination of stress distribution for layered soils.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only
Question 119Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. Functions of reinforcements in reinforced soil and in reinforced concrete are comparable.
2. The design of a geotextile reinforced wall is similar in principle to that of a reinforced earth wall.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 120Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. Immediate settlement takes place as soon as the load is placed.
2. Secondary settlement is significant in the case of organic soil.
3. Secondary settlement is estimated based on the ‘void’ ratio versus time curve’ for a particular load under consolidation test.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1, 2 and 3
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 121Single Answer
In a plate load test on a soil, at a particular magnitude of the settlement, it was observed that the bearing pressure beneath the footing is 100 kN/m2 and the perimeter shear is 25 kN/m2. Correspondingly, the load capacity of a 2m square footing at the same settlement will be
A
200 kN
B
300 kN
C
400 kN
D
600 kN
Question 122Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. According to Terzaghi, a foundation is shallow if its depth is equal to or less than its width.
2. Spread footing, strap footing and raft footing are types of shallow foundations.
3. Combined footing may be trapezoidal if the two columns carry unequal loads; and rectangular if both columns carry equal loads.
4. For water tanks, providing raft foundations will avoid unequal settlements.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
3 and 4 only
Question 123Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. A braced cofferdam is used in shallow trench excavation as well as in deep excavation exceeding 6 m in depth.
2. Cofferdams, braced or un-braced, are temporary structures either on land or in water bodies.
3. When sheet piling is used for retaining soil, or soil and water, without any bracing, it is called a bulkhead.Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 124Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. The maximum shear stress is one half of the normal stress in the case of uniaxial stress field.
2. In a biaxial stress field, acted upon by normal stresses unaccompanied by shear stresses, the maximum shear stress is anyone of the normal stresses.
3. The Mohr’s stress circle will be tangential to the vertical axis in the case of uniaxial stress field.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 125Single Answer
A line PQ in an old map had magnetic bearing of N 57° E when the local magnetic declination was 2° E. If the magnetic declination is now 4° W, what will be the magnetic bearing of the line PQ now?
A
N 52°W
B
N 63° E
C
N 54°E
D
N 52° E
Question 126Single Answer
Consider the following characteristics of contours:
1. A uniform slope is indicated when contour lines are uniformly spaced.
2. Contour lines cannot end anywhere but can close on themselves.
3. A set of closed contours indicates a depression or a summit, according to the lower or higher values being respectively inward.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 127Single Answer
The type of levelling operations carried out for laying a railway track are
1. Longitudinal levelling (LO.S.)
2. Fly levelling
3. Barometric levelling
4. Cross-sectioning
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A
1, 2, 3 and only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
Question 128Single Answer
Cleavage is a mode of folding :
1. It is a process wherein all internal movements are along shear planes which do not change their position during the entire process.
2. it is a process wherein all internal movements are along shear planes which change their position during the process.
3. The process involves dilation in the vertical direction.
4. The process involves compression in a lateral direction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only
Question 129Single Answer
Consider the following statements concerning engineering geology:
1. Dams on sedimentary impervious strata dipping upstream will be unsafe
2. In general, igneous rocks are hard and are suitable for construction of large hydraulic structures.
3. Construction of a major dam must be preceded by thorough geotechnical investigations.
4. Construction of dams is never indicated in any active zone of seismicity.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
3 and 4 only
Question 130Single Answer
For an unconfined aquifer, the specific yield is 20%, specific retention is 15%, and permeability is 35m/day. Consider the following statements:
1. The porosity of the aquifer is 35%.2. The transmissibility is 35 m2 /day.
3. The volume of water lost from storage per metre drop in the water table per 100 km2 area of the aquifer is 20 million m3.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 131Single Answer
The concentration of chloride ions in a water sample iestimated by titration with
A
Sodium thiosulphate reagent using ferrion as an indicator
B
Ferrous ammonium sulphate reagent using soluble starch as an indicator
C
Silver nitrate reagent using potassium chromate as an indicator
D
Silver nitrate reagent using potassium dichromate as an indicator
Question 132Single Answer
In revised CBR design method recommended by the IRC for the design of flexible pavement, the total thickness depends upon
A
Only the CBR value of the soil
B
The CBR value of the soil and the magnitude of wheel load
C
The CBR value of the soil cumulative standard axle loads
D
The CBR value of the soil and number of commercial vehicles passing per day
Question 133Single Answer
The following purposes served by a transition curve in a highway alignment include:
1. Gradual introduction of the centrifugal force on moving vehicles from zero on the straight alignment to a constant final value on the circular curve.
2. Enabling the gradual introduction of superelevation on the roadway.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 134Single Answer
The type of signaling system in which it is possible to vary the length of cycle, cycle division and the time schedule at each signal point is called
A
Simultaneous system
B
Alternate system
C
Simple progressive system
D
Flexible progressive system
Question 135Single Answer
Consider the following statements
regarding pavements :
1. Rigid pavements are more suitable than flexible pavements for stage construction.
2. Rigid pavements are more affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements.
3. In a flexible pavement, any deformation in the top layers is transferred to underlaid layers; but, in rigid pavements, there is slab or beam action due to which any deformation is only in the top layer of the concrete slab. Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 136Single Answer
Consider the following statements concerning railways ;
1. A level stretch equal to the maximum train length is to be provided between the gradient reaches where a rising gradient is followed by a falling gradient.
2. Vertical curves in railway tracks are not set out as parabolas.
3. Diamond crossings can be laid on curves also.
4. Curves should be avoided at the top level segment of bridges.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 3 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 137Single Answer
Which of the following options increase the sensitivity of a bubble tube?
1. Using a liquid of greater surface tension
2. Increasing the diameter of the tube
3. Increasing the length of the tube
4. Decreasing the diameter of the tube
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1 and 4 only
Question 138Single Answer
Consider the following statements in the context of capillary pressure in soils :
1. Pore water pressure is negative in capillary zone.
2. Water is in tension in capillary zone.
3. Capillary pressure is more in coarse grained soils.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 139Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
For a rigid footing placed at the ground surface on sand, the contact pressure
1. is maximum at the edges.
2. is zero at the edges
3. distribution is parabolic
4. is uniform throughout the base of the footing.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 140Single Answer
Consider the following statements as suggestive of the bearing capacity of soil :
1. The maximum net loading intensity at which neither the soil fails in shear nor is there excessive settlement detrimental to the structure.
2. The maximum net pressure which the soil can carry without shear failure.
3. The net ultimate bearing capacity of the soil divided by a factor of safety.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
13 only
C
2 only
D
3 only
Question 141Single Answer
Consider the following particulars in respect of a concrete mix design:
Weight Specific
Gravity
Cement
400 kg/ m3
3.2
Fine aggregates
-
2.5
Coarse aggregates
1040 kg/ m3
2.6
Water
200 kg/ m3
1.0
What shall be the weight of the Fine aggregates?
A
520 kg/m³
B
570 kg/m³
C
690 kg/m³
D
1000 kg/m°
Question 142Single Answer
The rocks formed by gradual deposition, are called
A
sedimentary rocks
B
igneous rocks
C
metamorphic rocks
D
none of these
Question 143Single Answer
How much bleaching powder (having 20% available chlorine) is needed to disinfect 10,000 litres of water whose chlorine demand is 1.0 mg/l ? It should be ensured that, after about 1 hour contact time, 0.2 mg/l chlorine is available.
A
30 g
B
40 g
C
48 g
D
68 g
Question 144Single Answer
Consider the following statements with regards to the shear force diagram for the beam ABCD:
1. The beam ABCD is an overhanging beam having supports at A and D only.
2. The beam carries a point load of 20 kN at C.
3. The beam carries a concentrated load of 10 kN at the end B.
4. The beam is an overhanging beam having supports at C and D only.
5. The beam carries a uniformly distributed load of 70 kN over the left hand portion AC only.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 5 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
2, 4 and 5 only
Question 145Single Answer
An 8-hour storm with incremental rainfall during each successive hour is tabulated herewith. What will be the correction to total runoff when, whereas the actua φ index was 0.5 cm/hour, a wrong magnitude of 0.6 cm/ hour was adopted in computing the total runoff?
Time from start (hour)
Incremental rainfall in each hour (cm)
1
0.4
2
0.8
3
1.2
4
0.9
5
1.8
6
1.0
7
0.3
8
0.8
A
+ 1.0 cm
B
+ 0.9 cm
C
+ 0.8 cm
D
+ 0.6 cm
Question 146Single Answer
A centrifugal pump has a impeller of 30 cm diameter and runs at 1000 rpm giving best efficiency. It delivered 1.2 m3/minute against a head of 25m. What is the non-dimensional specific speed (based on flow expressed in
A
55
B
63
C
72
D
80
Question 147Single Answer
A fluid flow field is given by
1. The flow is viscous.
2. The flow is steady.
3. The flow is incompressible.
4. The magnitude of the total velocity vector at a point (1, 4, 3) is nearest to 27 units.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 148Single Answer
An ocean linear, 240 m long and 24 m wide, displaces 654 MN of sea-water (p = 1025 kgf/m3). The second moment of inertia of the water plane about its fore-aft axis is of that of the circumscribing rectangle. The position of the centre of buoyancy is 2.30 m below the centre of gravity. How high is the metacentre above the centre of buoyancy (to the nearest cm)
A
49 cm
B
53 cm
C
58 cm
D
65 cm
Question 149Single Answer
A structural steel beam has an unsymmetrical I-cross-section. The overall depth of the beam is 200 mm. The flange stresses at the top and bottom are 120 N/mm2 and 80 N/mm2, respectively. The depth of the natural axis from the top of the beam will be
A
120 mm
B
100 mm
C
80 mm
D
60 mm
Question 150Single Answer
A hollow steel shaft has outside diameter and inside diameter . The value of d for the shaft, if it has to transmit 200 hp at 105 rpm with a working shear stress of 420 kg/cm2, is