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Latest MPPSC Assistant Professor Law Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Law

Question Bank MPPSC Assistant Professor (Law) Exam Paper 2 - English
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Law

Question 1Single Answer
A. Government of India Act 1858 control     1. Absolute imperial
B.Indian Councils Act 1861                          2.Non official members in executive council 
C. Indian Council                                         3.Separate representation of Muslim community                       Act1909
D. Government of                                         4.Dyarchy in the India Act 1919 provinces    
  1. A
    A       B      C        D
    2       3       1        4
  2. B
    4       1       2        3
  3. C
    3       4       1        2
  4. D
    1        2       3        4
Question 2Single Answer
Which of the following is/are the principal features of the government of India Act 1919?
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures.
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4
  3. C
    2, 3 and 4
  4. D
    1, 3 and 4
Question 3Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
The Indian constitution is
1. Unwritten constitution
2. Written constitution
3. Largely based on government of India
Act, 1935
  1. A
    1 and 2 are correct
  2. B
    2 and 3 are correct
  3. C
    1 and 3 are correct
  4. D
    None of the above
Question 4Single Answer
Consider the following statements with reference to the term secularism:
1. Secularism means that the state has no recognized religion of state.
2. Secularism means that the state treats all the religions equally.
3. Secularism means that the state regulates the relation of man with God.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3
  2. B
    1 and 2
  3. C
    2 and 3
  4. D
    1 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which one is not correctly matched?
  1. A
    Freedom of speech  -  include freedom of  and expression press
  2. B
    Freedom of    -   include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs.
  3. C
    conscience
    Right to personal -  include right to carry on any trade or business liberty
  4. D
    (d) Right to equality  -   includes principles of natural justice
Question 6Single Answer
The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the 
  1. A
    Prime Minister
  2. B
    Vice- President
  3. C
    Chief Minister
  4. D
    Chief Justice
Question 7Single Answer
 An accused person has been provided with the following protections by constitution of India:
1. Ex post facto law
2. Safeguard against arrest and detention
3. Double jeopardy.
 Arrange the protections in the order in which  they appear in the Indian constitution.
  1. A
    Codes:
    1, 3, 2
  2. B
    1, 2, 3
  3. C
    3, 1, 2
  4. D
    2, 1,3
Question 8Single Answer
Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
  1. A
    75th Amendment to the Constitution of India
  2. B
    76th Amendment to the Constitution of India
  3. C
    77th Amendment to the Constitution of India
  4. D
    78th Amendment to the Constitution of India
Question 9Single Answer
Match the following:
A. Right to go                  1. Bhim Singh's  case.
abroad
B. Prisoner's right            2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty             3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's             4. Sunil Batra's case.
liability
  1. A
    Codes:
     A      B      C     D
     2       4       1     3
  2. B
    4      2       3     1
  3. C
    2      4       3      1
  4. D
    4      2       1      3
Question 10Single Answer
A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding
  1. A
    Three months
  2. B
    Six months
  3. C
    Nine months
  4. D
    Twelve months
Question 11Single Answer
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
  1. A
    Habeas corpus     - available against private individual as well.
  2. B
    Quo warranto       - available against subordinate courts only
  3. C
    Certiorari              - available against autonomous bodies only
  4. D
    Prohibition           - directs a public authority to perform a task.
Question 12Single Answer
Match the following:
A. Right to go abroad                 1. Bhim Singh's  case.
B. Prisoner's right                       2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty                         3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's liability           4. Sunil Batra's case.
  1. A
    A      B      C     D
    2      4       1     3
  2. B
    4      2       3     1
  3. C
    2      4       3      1
  4. D
    4      2       1      3
Question 13Single Answer
Match the following:
  1. A
    Right to live with human dignity enshrined in Art. 21 derives life breath
    from DPSP Clauses e and f of Art. 39, 41 and 42.
  2. B
    Speedy trial is an essential ingredient of just, fair and reasonable procedure guaranteed by Art. 21.
  3. C
    In PIL, a total stranger to a trial cannot be permitted to question the correctness of the conviction of the accused.
  4. D
    In case of helplessness or disability, any member of the public can maintain an
Question 14Single Answer
List-I                                                   List-II
Balaji vs. Stateof Mysore          1. Doctrine of waiver
of fundamental rights               
Maneka Gandhi                        2. Religious freedom
vs. UOI
Rev. Stanilaus                          3. Right to life and  personal liberty
vs. State of MP           
Bashesher Nath                         4. Reservation for backward classes
vs. IT, Commr.                             5. Doctrine of severeability
  1. A
    A      B      C      D
    4       2      3       1
  2. B
    5       4      3       2
  3. C
    4        3      2       1
  4. D
    5        3     2        1
Question 15Single Answer
List-I                                  List-II
Independence of judiciary            1. Administrative adjudication
Executive legislation                     2. Parliamentary form of government
Quasi-judicial  functions               3. Appointment and transfer of judges
Collective responsibility                4. Ordinance
  1. A
    A     B     C    D
    2      1     4     3
  2. B
    3      4     1     2
  3. C
    2      4     1     3
  4. D
    3      I     4      2
Question 16Single Answer
The 73rd Amendment provides a ____ tier system of panchayats:
  1. A
    3
  2. B
    4
  3. C
    2
  4. D
    1
Question 17Single Answer
 List-I                       List-II
A Habeas corpus     1. Violation of natural  justice
B. Mandamus           2. Unlawful arrest and detention
C. Quo-warranto       3. Exercise of power  without jurisdiction
D. Certiorari              4. Non performance of  public duty.
  1. A
    A       B     C    D
    2      4       3    1
  2. B
    1      3       4    2
  3. C
    2       3      4   1
  4. D
    1       4    3    2
Question 18Single Answer
The fundamental duties provided in the  constitution are:
1. To value and preserve rich heritage of our  composite culture.
2. To safeguard private property.
3. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry and reform of these  fundamental duties include:
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3
  2. B
    1 and 2
  3. C
    2 and 3
  4. D
    1 and 3
Question 19Single Answer
If a new state of Indian union is to be created____ schedule of the constitution must be amended?
  1. A
    First
  2. B
    Second
  3. C
    Third
  4. D
    Fourth
Question 20Single Answer
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the fourth schedule of the constitution of India?
  1. A
    It lists the distribution of powers between  the union and the states.
  2. B
    It contains the languages listed in the constitution.
  3. C
    It contains the provision regarding the  administration of tribal areas.
  4. D
    It allocates seats in the council of states.
Question 21Single Answer
The 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the:
  1. A
    Fundamental rights
  2. B
    DPSP
  3. C
    List of languages recognised by the constitution
  4. D
    Number of states and UTS
Question 22Single Answer
Provisions regarding anti defection are provided in ____of the constitution of India.
  1. A
    2nd schedule 
  2. B
    5th schedule
  3. C
    8th schedule    
  4. D
    10th schedule
Question 23Single Answer
At the time of framing there were ____Schedules in the constitution of India.
  1. A
    8
  2. B
    10
  3. C
    12
  4. D
    11
Question 24Single Answer
The house may declare the seat vacant after_____ , of any member, if he is absent from all meetings without permission of the house.
  1. A
    30 days
  2. B
    45 days
  3. C
    60 days
  4. D
    90 days
Question 25Single Answer
When the offices of both the speaker and the deputy speaker are vacant, _____ appoints a person to perform the functions of the speaker.
  1. A
    The President
  2. B
    The prime minister
  3. C
    The chief justice of India
  4. D
    Council of ministers
Question 26Single Answer
The framers of the constitution borrowed the  idea of judicial review from the constitution  of:
  1. A
    France
  2. B
    USA
  3. C
    United Kingdom
  4. D
    None of these
Question 27Single Answer
Decision of _______is final regarding the disqualification of a member of either house of Parliament under Art. 103.
  1. A
    The election commission
  2. B
    President
  3. C
    Speaker of Lok Sabha
  4. D
    Prime minister
Question 28Single Answer
Part______ of the constitution of the India talks about municipalities?
  1. A
    Part IX
  2. B
    Part IX-A
  3. C
    Part X
  4. D
    Part X-A
Question 29Single Answer
It is often said that the key to the minds of the makers of our constitution lies in the:
  1. A
    Preamble
  2. B
    Fundamental rights
  3. C
    Fundamental duties
  4. D
    Directive principles of state policy
Question 30Single Answer
Disqualification of a member of parliament on the ground of defection is to be decided by
  1. A
    The President
  2. B
    Speaker of Lok Sabha
  3. C
    Speaker of Rajya Sabha
  4. D
    Either (b) or (c), as the case may be
Question 31Single Answer
'Test of control' deals with:
  1. A
    master and servant relationship
  2. B
    measures of damages
  3. C
    course of employment
  4. D
    implied authority
Question 32Single Answer
In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that the audi alteram partem rule, in essence enforces the equality clause in Article 14 and it is applicable not only to quasi-judicial bodies but also to administrative order adversely affecting the party in question?"
  1. A
    U.P. Warehousing Corporation Vs. Vijay Narain
  2. B
    Delhi Transport Corporation Vs. DTC Majdoor Union
  3. C
    A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras
  4. D
    Gullapalli Nageshwar Rao Vs. APSRTC
Question 33Single Answer
The inadequacy of consideration will be taken into account by a court of law:
  1. A
    when the promisor expresses his desire to get maximum return for his promise
  2. B
    when the promisor performs his promise
  3. C
    when fraud, coercion or undue influence in the formation of the contract is pleaded
  4. D
    always at the discretion of the court
Question 34Single Answer
The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)  committed to provide:
(a) Universal access to affordable, reliable  and modern energy services
(b) Improving the share of renewable energy
(c) Doubling of energy efficiency by 2030
(d) Protection of ocean and wetland
  1. A
    (a), (b) and (c) are true
  2. B
    (a), (c) and (d) are true
  3. C
    (b), (c) and (d) are true
  4. D
    (a), (b) and (d) are true
Question 35Single Answer
Which of the following statement/statements  is/are NOT correct?
(a) The declaration of National Emergency on the ground of 'Armed Rebellion' was inserted by the Constitutional (42 Amendment) Act, 1976.
(b) President shall not issue a proclamation under Clause (1) Article 352 unless the decision of the Union Cabinet (the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers) is communicated to him in writing.
(c) A resolution approving the proclamation of National Emergency must be passed  by special majority.
(d) A proclamation of Emergency once approved by the Parliament shall remain in force until the emergency ceases.
  1. A
    Only (a)
  2. B
    (a) and (d) both
  3. C
    (b), (c) and (d)
  4. D
    (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Question 36Single Answer
Which of the following statement/statements  is/are correct?
(a) If the other House does not pass an Ordinary Bill and more than six months have passed, the President may summon a Joint Session of both the Houses.
(b) At the Joint Session of two Houses, new amendment can be proposed in the Bill with the permission of the Presiding Officer (Speaker of the Lok Sabha).
(c) The Lower House has exclusive power over Money Bills.
(d) Money and Financial Bills can be only introduced in the Lok Sabha and with prior recommendations of the President.
  1. A
    Only (a)
  2. B
    (a), (b) and (c)
  3. C
    (a), (c) and (d)
  4. D
    (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Question 37Single Answer
'Right to Environment discourse includes:
(a) Right to Health
(b) Right to Sanitation
(c) Right to Clean Technology
(d) Right to Free Speech
  1. A
    (a), (b) and (c) are true
  2. B
    (b), (c) and (d) are true
  3. C
    (a), (c) and (d) are true
  4. D
    (a) and (b) are true whereas (c) and (d) are false
Question 38Single Answer
Every offence punishable under Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is:
  1. A
    compoundable
  2. B
    non-compoundable
  3. C
    cognizable
  4. D
    Both (B) and (C) above
Question 39Single Answer
UN Commissioner for Human Rights is appointed by:
  1. A
    General Assembly
  2. B
    Security Council
  3. C
    Secretary General
  4. D
    Human Rights Council
Question 40Single Answer
Which of the following is correct?
  1. A
    A Administrative Law is a branch of Public Law and is only a part of Constitutional Law. It cannot control the Constitutional Law
  2. B
    Administrative Law is a branch of Private Law
  3. C
    Administrative Law is independent to the Constitutional Law
  4. D
    Administrative Law is neither the branch of Public Law nor of Private Law but part of Constitutional Law
Question 41Single Answer
Which of the following is not included in the definition of law under Article 13 of the Constitution of India?
  1. A
    Legislation
  2. B
    Customs
  3. C
    Usage having no force of law
  4. D
    Ordinance
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the following Article of the Constitution uses the term 'martial law'?
  1. A
    Article 33
  2. B
    Article 34
  3. C
    Article 352
  4. D
    Article 353
Question 43Single Answer
Which of the following case is not related to "Theory of basic structure' under Article 368  of the Constitution?
  1. A
    Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
  2. B
    Waman Rao Vs. Union of India
  3. C
    L. Chandra Kumar Vs. Union of India
  4. D
    T.K. Rangarajan Vs. Government of Tamil  Nadu
Question 44Single Answer
Which of the following is incorrect in relation to the declaration of financial emergency by  the President under Article 360 of the constitution?
  1. A
    A. It shall cease to operate at the expiration  of one month unless approved by both  Houses of Parliament
  2. B
    Salary and allowances of persons serving  in connection with affairs of state may be reduced
  3. C
    It may be revoked or varied by a  subsequent proclamation by President
  4. D
    Salary and allowances of the Judges of  Supreme Court and High Courts may be  reduced
Question 45Single Answer
In which of the following case the Parliament has no power to legislate on the state list ?
  1. A
    Consent of two states
  2. B
    Implementing international agreements
  3. C
    Emergency is in operation
  4. D
    In the Public interest if so declared by council of states
Question 46Single Answer
Which of the following case is not related to  the Parliamentary previleges?
  1. A
    M.S.M. Sharma Vs. Sri Krishna Sinha
  2. B
    State of Karnataka Vs. Union of India
  3. C
    Jatish Chandra Ghose Vs. Harisadhan  Mukherjee
  4. D
    State of Tamil Nadu Vs. K. Shyam Sunder
Question 47Single Answer
Which one of the following Jurists distinguished between 'expositorial' jurisprudence (What the law is) and 'Censorial' jurisprudence (What the law ought to be)?
  1. A
    John Austin
  2. B
    Hans Kelsen
  3. C
    Jeremy Benthem
  4. D
    H.L.A. Hart
Question 48Single Answer
'Now, natural law is not considered as absolute  but as relative. It is natural law with variable contents.' This observation specifically relates to:
  1. A
    Dabin
  2. B
    Stammler
  3. C
    Finnis
  4. D
    Acquinas
Question 49Single Answer
According to Professor Hart the meaning of  the term 'Positivism' includes:
(a) Laws are commands.
(b) The analysis of legal concepts is distinct  from sociological and historical inquiries.
(c) Moral judgments cannot be established  or defended by rational argument, evidence or proof.
(d) The law as it is actually laid down, has to be kept separate from the law that ought  to be.
  1. A
    Codes:
    Only (a) and (c) are correct
  2. B
    Only (a), (b) and (d) are correct
  3. C
    Only (a), (c) and (d) are correct
  4. D
    (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct
Question 50Single Answer
Match List-I with List-II and give the correct  answer by using the code given below:
        List-I                                      List-II
  (Theory)                                     (Jurist)
(a) Theory of social                     (i) Ehrlich
solidarity
(b) Theory of categorical             (ii) Duguit
Imperative
(c) Imperative Theory                  (iii) John Austin
of Law
(d) Theory of Living Law              (iv) Emanual   Kant
  1. A
    Codes:
    (a)   (b)    (c)    (d)
    (iv)    (i)    (ii)    (ii)
  2. B
    (ii)    (iv)   (i)     (iii)
  3. C
    (ii)    (iv)  (iii)     (i)
  4. D
    (i)     (ii)   (iv)    (iii)
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