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Latest MPPSC Dental Surgeon Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Madhya Pradesh GK, National Level GK & International GK, Dental Surgery
Question Bank MPPSC Dental Surgeon Exam - English
Madhya Pradesh GK
Q 1 :
Which ancient city in Madhya Pradesh was a significant cultural and political center during the Maurya and Gupta periods?
A.Indore
B.Bhopal
C.Ujjain
D.Gwalior
Q 2 :
The Parmar dynasty was primarily associated with which region of Madhya Pradesh?
A.Bundelkhand
B.Malwa
C.Baghelkhand
D.Mahakoshal
Q 3 :
The famous temples of Khajuraho were built by which dynasty?
A.Parmar
B.Gupta
C.Chandela
D.Maurya
Q 4 :
Which dynasty ruled the Gondwana region of Madhya Pradesh?
A.Kalachuri
B.Gond
C.Tomar
D.Solanki
Q 5 :
Which Maratha dynasty held significant influence in Gwalior?
A.Holkar
B.Scindia
C.Peshwa
D.Gaekwad
Q 6 :
Which ancient empire's influence extended to parts of Madhya Pradesh, as evidenced by Ashokan edicts?
A.Gupta
B.Maurya
C.Vakataka
D.Vardhana
Q 7 :
The famous 'Bhojpur Temple' was constructed by which Parmar ruler?
A.Raja Munja
B.Raja Sindhuraja
C.Raja Bhoj
D.Raja Udayaditya
Q 8 :
Which period saw the rise of the Baghel dynasty in Rewa?
A.Ancient Period
B.Medieval Period
C.Modern Period
D.Post-Independence Period
Q 9 :
The 'Sanchi Stupa' is associated with which emperor?
A.Chandragupta Maurya
B.Ashoka
C.Samudragupta
D.Kanishka
Q 10 :
Which city in Madhya Pradesh was known as 'Mahishmati' in ancient times?
A.Ujjain
B.Maheshwar
C.Mandu
D.Vidisha
Q 11 :
The 'Guhil' dynasty had a branch that ruled in which region of Madhya Pradesh?
A.Malwa
B.Baghelkhand
C.Bundelkhand
D.Gondwana
Q 12 :
Who was the famous queen of the Gond dynasty who resisted Mughal invasions?
A.Ahilyabai Holkar
B.Rani Durgavati
C.Rani Laxmibai
D.Rani Karnavati
Q 13 :
Which British treaty led to the establishment of the princely state of Gwalior under the Scindias?
A.Treaty of Salbai
B.Treaty of Bassein
C.Treaty of Subsidiary Alliance
D.Treaty of Lahore
Q 14 :
The 'Mandu' fort is associated with which Sultanate?
A.Delhi Sultanate
B.Malwa Sultanate
C.Gujarat Sultanate
D.Bahmani Sultanate
Q 15 :
The 'Baghelkhand' region was known for its patronage of which art form?
A.Dhrupad music
B.Bundeli folk dance
C.Bagheli folk songs
D.Khayal singing
Q 16 :
Which ancient city near Bhopal is famous for its Heliodorus pillar?
A.Sanchi
B.Vidisha
C.Udayagiri
D.Bhimbetka
Q 17 :
The 'Kalachuri' dynasty had its capital at which city in Madhya Pradesh?
A.Jabalpur
B.Indore
C.Rewa
D.Gwalior
Q 18 :
Which historical site in Madhya Pradesh is known for its rock shelters and prehistoric rock paintings?
A.Khajuraho
B.Sanchi
C.Bhimbetka
D.Mandu
Q 19 :
Which ruler of the Parmar dynasty was a renowned scholar and patron of arts?
A.Udayaditya
B.Munja
C.Bhoj
D.Sindhuraja
Q 20 :
The 'Chausath Yogini Temple' is located in which district of Madhya Pradesh?
A.Gwalior
B.Khajuraho
C.Jabalpur
D.Ujjain
Q 21 :
Who was the founder of the independent Malwa Sultanate?
A.Dilawar Khan Ghori
B.Baz Bahadur
C.Mahmud Khalji
D.Hoshang Shah
Q 22 :
Which ruler of the Scindia dynasty built the Jai Vilas Palace in Gwalior?
A.Mahadji Scindia
B.Daulat Rao Scindia
C.Jayajirao Scindia
D.Jankoji Rao Scindia
Q 23 :
The 'Teli ka Mandir' is located in which fort?
A.Mandu Fort
B.Gwalior Fort
C.Raisen Fort
D.Asirgarh Fort
Q 24 :
Which region of Madhya Pradesh was known as 'Chedi' in ancient times?
A.Malwa
B.Bundelkhand
C.Baghelkhand
D.Mahakoshal
Q 25 :
Which ancient university was located in Ujjain?
A.Nalanda
B.Taxila
C.Vikramshila
D.Avantika
Q 26 :
Which river is associated with the ancient city of Maheshwar?
A.Narmada
B.Chambal
C.Betwa
D.Tapti
Q 27 :
The 'Rani Roopmati Pavilion' is located in which historical site?
A.Sanchi
B.Khajuraho
C.Mandu
D.Gwalior
Q 28 :
Who was the last independent ruler of Mandu?
A.Dilawar Khan Ghori
B.Mahmud Khalji
C.Baz Bahadur
D.Hoshang Shah
Q 29 :
Which dynasty ruled the region around present-day Datia?
A.Bundela
B.Parmar
C.Chandela
D.Kalachuri
Q 30 :
The 'Asirgarh Fort' is known as the gateway to which region?
A.Malwa
B.Deccan
C.Bundelkhand
D.Baghelkhand
Q 31 :
What major infrastructure decision was approved by the MP Cabinet on June 10, 2025?
A.Construction of new airports
B.Connecting 20,600 remote settlements to main roads
C.Expansion of metro lines
D.Development of new dams
Q 32 :
What is the estimated cost for connecting 20,600 remote settlements in MP?
A.Rs.21,630 crore
B.Rs.15,000 crore
C.Rs.25,000 crore
D.Rs.30,000 crore
Q 33 :
Which mission was highlighted by CM Mohan Yadav for youth empowerment in June 2025?
A.Garib Kalyan Mission
B.Women Empowerment Mission
C.Farmer Welfare Mission
D.Yuva Shakti Mission
Q 34 :
What initiative was launched to support farmers with solar pumps in MP?
A.Farmers pay Rs.50,000, rest by government
B.Subsidized electricity for pumps
C.Free solar pumps for all farmers
D.Farmers pay Rs.30,000, rest in installments
Q 35 :
Which policy was part of the Industrial Promotion Policy 2025 approved in MP?
A.Education Policy
B.Renewable Energy Equipment Manufacturing Policy
C.Healthcare Policy
D.Tourism Safety Policy
National Level GK & International GK
Q 36 :
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A.Window
B.Pop-up menu
C.Message box
D.Taskbar
Q 37 :
What is active desktop ?
A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C.both a and b above mentioned
D.A software
E.None of these
Q 38 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 39 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 40 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 41 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 42 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 43 :
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A.Assam
B.Himachal Pradesh
C.Punjab
D.Tamil Nadu
Q 44 :
Which of the following statements is true ?
Statement I: Indian techniques such as Rasa and Bhawa in classical dances have their origins in Bharatmuni's Natyashastra.
Statement II: Bharatanatyam has its origin in Odisha.
A.Only Statement II is true
B.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C.Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true
D.Only Statement I is true
Q 45 :
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A.badminton
B.basketball
C.football
D.archery
Q 46 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 47 :
Which is the longest river in India?
A.Yamuna
B.Ganges
C.Brahmaputra
D.Godavari
Q 48 :
Who among the following was associated with Enlightenment philosophy?
A.Voltaire
B.Shakespeare
C.Erasmus
D.All of the above
Q 49 :
Which state is hosting the National SARAS Mela 2025?
A.Karnataka
B.Maharashtra
C.Kerala
D.Gujarat
Q 50 :
Which ministry released the โUDISE Plusโ Report in 2025?
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Education
C.Ministry of Culture
D.Ministry of Urban Development
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MPPSC Dental Surgeon Exam Question Bank Book - English
Which of the following is a regulatory protein of the muscle
A.Troponin
B.Myosin
C.Actin
D.Protein C
Q 64 :
Intrinsic factor in the stomach is secreted by
A.Oxyntic cells
B.Chief cells
C.Mast like cells
D.D –cells of antrum
Q 65 :
Kussmaul’s respiration occurs in response to
A.Decrease in PH of blood
B.Increase in PH of blood
C.Obstructive pulmonary disease
D.Carbon monoxide poisoning
Q 66 :
The main component of hyperlipidemia constituting a major risk factor for atherosclerosis is
A.High density lipoprotein (HDL)cholesterol
B.Intermediate density lipoprotein (IDL) cholesterol
C.Low density lipoprotein (LDL ) cholesterol
D.Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) cholesterol
Q 67 :
Metal oxides are added in porcelain provide all EXCEPT :
A.Strength
B.Improve bonding
C.Cosmetic
D.Impart color
Q 68 :
The enzyme phosphofructokinase 1 is strongly activated by
A.Cyclic AMP
B.Adenosine triphosphate
C.Citrate
D.Fructose 2 ,6 bis phosphate
Q 69 :
Transcription is the synthesis of
A.Single stranded complimentary copy of DNA
B.Double stranded complimentaty copy of DNA
C.Complimentary copy of RNA
D.complimentary copy of r RNA
Q 70 :
Non polar lipid act as
A.Electrical insulators
B.Ions
C.Non electrical insulators
D.Electrolytes
Q 71 :
Cofactor required for lipoprotein lipase activity is
A.Apo A-II
B.Apo C-II
C.Apo CIII
D.Apo B –II
Q 72 :
The first plasma protein to be generated after severe protein deficiency
A.Albumin
B.Globulin
C.Fibrinogen
D.Thrombin
Q 73 :
Hemochromatosis presents with all except
A.Micro modular
B.Diabetes mellitus
C.Skin pigmentation
D.Hepatitis
Q 74 :
coating of bacteria particles with host protein to facilitate phagocytosis is known as
A.Chemotaxis
B.Chemokine
C.Opsonization
D.Membrane attack complex
Q 75 :
Caseation necrosis is see in
A.Tuberculosis
B.Sarcoidosis
C.In both tuberculosis and sarcoidosis
D.Leprosy
Q 76 :
Saddle embolus causes sudden death by blocking
A.Coronary arteries
B.Cerebral arteries
C.Pulmonary arteries
D.Renal arteries
Q 77 :
Phagocytes kill bacteria through which mechanism
A.Membrane attack complex killing
B.Oxidative and non oxidative killing
C.Zipper killing
D.Chemotoxis
Q 78 :
Shock lung is seen in
A.Hypovolemic Shock
B.Septic shock
C.Anaphylactic shock
D.Neurogenic shock
Q 79 :
which one given below is a DNA virus ?
A.Polio virus
B.Adenovirus
C.Astroviridae
D.Hepatitis –A virus
Q 80 :
The antibody produced during primary immune response is
A.IgM
B.IgG
C.IgA
D.IgE
Q 81 :
The most frequently encountered clostridia species in gas gangrenes is
A.Clostridium botulinum
B.Clostridium perfringens
C.Clostridium tetani
D.Clostridium difficult
Q 82 :
Salivary protein which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva is
A.Sialoperoxidase
B.Secretory IgA
C.Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
D.Histidine rich proteins
Q 83 :
Abductor o vocal cord is
A.Transverse arytenoids
B.Oblique arytenoids
C.Lateral thyroatytenoid
D.Polaterior cricoarytenoid
Q 84 :
Umbilical cord contains
A.Three arteries and one vein
B.One artery and three veins
C.One artery and one vein
D.Anterior mandible
Q 85 :
Unilateral paralysis of hypoglossal
A.Deviation of tongue to the normal side
B.Deviation of tongue to the paralyzed
C.No change in the position to tongue
D.Retraction of tongue
Q 86 :
Human immunodeficiency virus binds to macrophages having
A.CD-4 molecule
B.CE 4 and CXCR molecules
C.CD 4 and CCR 5 molecule
D.CXCR and CCR 5 molecules
Q 87 :
Which of the following fibers are responsible for conduction of pain impulses?
A.A Alpha
B.A Beta
C.A Delta
D.A Gamma
Q 88 :
Axon hillock is a part of neuron which
A.Has a dense Nissel granule
B.Has no Nissel granules
C.Is at commencement of dendrites
D.Is round in shape
Q 89 :
Magnesium level in blood increases in
A.Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
B.Liver cirrhosis
C.Kidney failure
D.Chronic alcoholism
Q 90 :
Which of the following is the most specific test to diagnose syphilis ?
A.VDRL test
B.Wassermann test
C.RPR test
D.FTA – ABS
Q 91 :
Which of the following events does not occur in response to light?
A.structural change in rhodopsin
B.Activation of transducing
C.Decreased intracellular cGMP
D.Opening of Na+ channels
Q 92 :
Which of the following commonly used topical antiseptics has antifungal activity ?
A.Povidone – iodine
B.Cetrimide
C.Chlorhexidine
D.Alcohol
Q 93 :
The absolute refractory period of an action potential is due to
A.Insufficient neurotransmitter
B.Depletion of intracellular Na+
C.Inactivation of Na+-K+ ATPase
D.Voltage inactivation of the Na+ channel
Q 94 :
Starling’s law of heart
A.Does not operate in failing heart
B.Do not operate during exercise
C.Explains the increase in cardiac output that occurs when venous return is increased
D.Explains the increase in cardiac output when the sympathetic nerves supplying the heart are stimulated
Q 95 :
The normal value of intrapleural pressure at the base of lung at the start of inspiration is
A.-6mmHg
B.-2.5mmHg
C.+2.5 mmHg
D.+6mmHg
Q 96 :
Which one of the following does not act by increasing insulin secretion
A.Glyburide
B.Rapaglinide
C.Tolbutamode
D.Bibuanide
Q 97 :
CEF if directly returned to venous system by
A.Choroid plexus
B.Cerebral veins
C.Arachnoid villi
D.Emissary veins
Q 98 :
Which one of the following is not an ergot alkaloids
A.Bromocriptine
B.Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD )
C.Ketanserin
D.Methylsergide
Q 99 :
Burning foot syndrome occurs due to deficiency of
A.Niacin
B.Pantothenic acid
C.Riboflavin
D.Folic acid
Q 100 :
The uptake of glucose by liver is increased following a carbohydrate meal because
A.There is increased phosphorylation of glucose by glucokinase
B.GLUT -2 is stimulated by insulin
C.Glucokinase has a low Km for glucose
D.Hexokinase in liver has a high affinity for glucose
Q 101 :
Which among of the following is a pure antagonist in poioid receptors
A.Naltrexone
B.Nalbuphine
C.Butorphanol
D.Pentazocine
Q 102 :
Serum creational kinase – 3 is elevated in
A.Muscular dystrophy
B.Myocardial infarction
C.Alcoholic cirrhosis
D.Brain tumor
Q 103 :
Vitamin B12 is absorbed in
A.Stomach
B.Duodenum
C.Jejunum
D.Ileum
Q 104 :
Hyperuricaemia is a side effect of
A.Pyrazinamide
B.Isoniazid
C.Capreomycin
D.Ethambutol
Q 105 :
The enzyme glucosyl transferees secreted by Streptococcus mutans synthesize from
A.Glucose
B.Fructose
C.Sucrose
D.Lactose
Q 106 :
Which of the following can be given as a single dise antimalarial for P . vivax malaria
A.Atovaquone + Proguanil
B.Artemissenin
C.Quinine + Tetracyline
D.Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine
Q 107 :
Which among the following anti –HIV drugs is an inhibitor of viral fusion ?
A.Enfuvirtide
B.Nelfinavir
C.Efavirenz
D.Etanercept
Q 108 :
Which among the following may be used as a sedative –hypnotic
A.Zolmitriptan
B.Zileuton
C.Zolpidem
D.Zalcitalbine
Q 109 :
Cryptococcus neoformans has significant predilection for
A.Central nervous system
B.Respiratory system
C.Gastro intestinal system
D.Cardiovascular system
Q 110 :
The ‘ Philadelphia chromosome ‘ is a feature of
A.Leukaemoid reaction
B.Chornic myeloid leukaemia
C.Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
D.Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Q 111 :
syndrome associated with increased risk of leukemia is
A.Plummer -Vinson syndrome
B.Klinefelter ‘s syndrome
C.Struge – Weber syndrome
D.Multiple hamartoma syndrome
Q 112 :
In hemolytic anemias the urobilinogen level in the blood would
A.Incrase
B.Be absent
C.Decrase
D.Mildly decrase
Q 113 :
Glycemic control over the previous 6- 8 weeks in patients with diabetes mellitus is best assessed by estimation of
A.Fasting blood glucose
B.Glycated hemoglobin
C.Fasting C peptide
D.Fasting plasma insulin
Q 114 :
Lambert Eaton myasthenia syndrome is
A.A post synaptic disorder
B.Characterized by preserved deep tendon reflexes
C.characterized by decremental response in ENMG
D.Associated with autonomic dysfunction
Q 115 :
Coloboma is defect in
A.Cornea
B.Lens
C.Choroid
D.Iris
Q 116 :
A 20 – year female came to the medical POD with severe pain and redness over dorsum o f the foot . Past history o f severe abdominal pain episodes were present .with presence of poikilocytes . likely diagnosis is
A.Hemoglobin C disease
B.Thalassemia minor
C.sickle cell anemia
D.G6PD deficiency
Q 117 :
Which of the following is a cyanotic heart disease ?
A.Cor triatum
B.Tetra logy of fallot
C.pulmonary stenosis
D.Atrial septal defect
Q 118 :
Which of the following is indicative of cardiac tamponade ?
A.Pulsus paradoxus
B.Wide pules pressure
C.Kussmaul’s sing
D.Forceful apical impulse
Q 119 :
a patient with Bell ‘s palsy has ----------- palsy
A.Upper motor neuron V nerve
B.Upper motor neuron VII nerve
C.Lower motor neuron V nerve
D.Lower motor neuron VII nerve
Q 120 :
Hyperkinetic syndromes such as chorea and athetosis are usually associated with pathological changes in
A.Motor areas of cerebral cortex
B.Anterior hypothalamus
C.Pathways for recurrent collateral inhibition in the spinal cord
D.Basal ganglia complex
Q 121 :
Treatment of choice for mixed parotid tumor is
A.Enucleation
B.Superficial paroticectomy
C.Radical parotidectomy
D.Radiation
Q 122 :
High tension electrical burns from overhead electrical lines can cause
A.Myoglobinurea and acute renal failure
B.Severe alkalosis
C.No ECG change will be seen in the first 24 hours
D.Blood vessels are spared
Q 123 :
Which of the following conditions is the most common complication of radioiodine treatment of Graves’ disease ?
A.Thyroid storm
B.Subacute cancer
C.Thyroid cancer
D.Hopothyroidism
Q 124 :
The length of the sprue former should be adjusted for gyp-sum bonded investment so that the top of the wax pattern is within
A.6 mm of the open end of the ring
B.10 mm of the open end of the ring
C.1 mm of the open end of the ring
D.2 mm of the open end of the ring
Q 125 :
A test for ,mutagenesis of material dome of mammalian cells is
A.Styles test
B.Ame’s test
C.MTT test
D.Cytotoxsicity test
Q 126 :
Brazilian test us used to a determine the ultimate tensile strength of
A.Ductile materials
B.Flexible materials
C.Brittle materials
D.Malleable materials
Q 127 :
In the munsell color system the parameters of color are represented in
A.3 dimensions
B.(b) 2 dimensions
C.A single dimensions
D.A color space
Q 128 :
high fusing porcelains are used
A.For crowns
B.In denture teeth
C.With titanium alloys
D.over aluminous core porcelain
Q 129 :
The relative hardness of elastomers is determined using
A.Rockwell tester
B.Barcol indenter
C.Knoop pyramid
D.Shore durometer
Q 130 :
Resistance for a material to permanent deformation is known as
A.Elongation
B.Resiliency
C.Ductility
D.Fracture strength
Q 131 :
What is the hardest substance in the human body?
A.Dentin
B.Enamel
C.Cementum
D.Pulp
Q 132 :
Which tooth is also known as the "wisdom tooth"?
A.Canine
B.Premolar
C. Molar
D. Third molar
Q 133 :
Which part of the tooth is responsible for anchoring it to the jawbone?
A.Pulp
B.Crown
C.Root
D.Enamel
Q 134 :
What is the primary function of the periodontal ligament?
A.Nutrient supply to the tooth
B.Anchoring the tooth to the jawbone
C.Sensation of pain in the tooth
D. Production of saliva
Q 135 :
Which tooth is known as the "eye tooth"?
A.Incisor
B.Canine
C.Molar
D.Premolar
Q 136 :
Which type of teeth are designed for cutting and chopping food?
A.Incisors
B.Canines
C.Premolars
D.Molars
Q 137 :
What is the function of salivary amylase in the oral cavity?
A.Digestion of proteins
B.Digestion of fats
C.Digestion of carbohydrates
D.Antibacterial action
Q 138 :
Which tooth is often referred to as the "cornerstone" of the mouth?
A.Central incisor
B. Lateral incisor
C.Canine
D.First molar
Q 139 :
Which part of the tooth contains blood vessels and nerves?
A.Dentin
B. Enamel
C.Cementum
D.Pulp
Q 140 :
What is the function of the uvula in the oral cavity?
A.Taste perception
B.Speech articulation
C.Regulation of airflow during swallowing
D.Production of saliva
Q 141 :
What is the primary mechanism of action of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?
A.inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX)
B. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
C.Blockade of beta-adrenergic receptors
D.Activation of histamine receptors
Q 142 :
Which class of drugs is commonly used to treat angina by dilating coronary arteries and improving blood flow to the heart?
A.Beta-blockers
B.Calcium channel blockers
C.ACE inhibitors
D.Diuretics
Q 143 :
What is the primary action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?
A. Vasodilation
B.Vasoconstriction
C.Aldosterone secretion
D.Sympathetic stimulation
Q 144 :
Which drug class is commonly prescribed to reduce blood cholesterol levels by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase?
A.Beta-blockers
B. Statins
C.Diuretics
D.Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)
Q 145 :
What is the primary use of beta-blockers in dentistry?
A.Pain relief
B.Anxiety reduction
C.Control of blood pressure
D.Antimicrobial activity
Q 146 :
Which dental material is commonly used for direct restorations and is composed of a mixture of powdered glass and an organic resin matrix?
A.Amalgam
B.Glass ionomer
C.Composite resin
D.Zinc oxide eugenol
Q 147 :
What is the primary component of dental amalgam?
A.Silver
B.Mercury
C.Copper
D.Tin
Q 148 :
Which dental material is known for its ability to release fluoride and is often used for restorations in primary teeth and as a luting agent for crowns and bridges?
A.Amalgam
B.Glass ionomer
C.Composite resin
D.Zinc phosphate cement
Q 149 :
What is the purpose of the liner in a dental restoration?
A.Provide strength
B.Insulate against temperature changes
C.Bond to tooth structure
D.Protect the pulp
Q 150 :
Which dental material is commonly used for provisional (temporary) restorations and is available in both self-cure and light-cure formulations?