Question for MPPSC Medical Officer 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest MPPSC Medical Officer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Nursing, Quantitative Aptitude, General Awareness, General Intelligence

Question Bank MPPSC Medical Officer Exam - English

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Nursing

Question 1Single Answer

Creaming is a ________ process.

A
Reversible
B
Irreversible
C
Downward
D
Both (a) and (c)

Question 2Single Answer

o/w emulsions normally cream in _______ direction.

A
Downward
B
Upward
C
First up and then down
D
First down then up

Question 3Single Answer

______ is an example of non-ionic polymer.

A
Cellulose
B
Pectin
C
Glucose
D
Methyl cellulose

Question 4Single Answer

Electrolytes are added in suspensions to _____ the zeta potential.

A
Neutralize
B
Decrease
C
Increase
D
Stabilize

Question 5Single Answer

The sedimentation volume of an ideal suspension should be _____

A
One
B
Greater than one
C
Zero
D
Less than one

Question 6Single Answer

Which combination correctly describes a flocculated pharmaceutical suspension?

A
Particles form loose aggregates and the supernatant becomes clear
B
Particles form a compact hard cake and the supernatant remains turbid
C
Sedimentation is negligible and particles remain completely dispersed
D
Redispersion becomes progressively impossible

Question 7Single Answer

Which law is commonly used to describe the sedimentation velocity of spherical particles in a dilute pharmaceutical suspension?

A
Stokes' law
B
Henry's law
C
Raoult's law
D
Beer-Lambert law

Question 8Single Answer

According to the phase-volume concept, approximately what maximum volume fraction of monodisperse spherical droplets corresponds to close packing before severe instability becomes likely?

A
0.26
B
0.50
C
0.74
D
0.90

Question 9Single Answer

Which among the following is the chief ingredient of anti-diarrhoeal mixture?

A
Charcoal
B
Kaolin
C
Calamine
D
Aluminum Hydroxide

Question 10Single Answer

Which rheological test applies a constant stress and measures time-dependent deformation of a semisolid material?

A
Creep test
B
Pycnometry
C
Nephelometry
D
Refractometry

Question 11Single Answer

Compared with its continuous aqueous phase, the apparent viscosity of an oil-in-water emulsion is generally?

A
Higher
B
Always lower
C
Exactly identical
D
Always zero

Question 12Single Answer

According to Stoke's equation, the creaming of emulsion will take place in _____ direction, if the density of the dispersed phase is more than that of the dispersion medium.

A
Downward
B
Upward
C
Centre
D
Both (a) and (b)

Question 13Single Answer

____ of an emulsion occurs when the distributions is of globules is not uniform.

A
Caking
B
Breaking
C
Creaming
D
Coalescence

Question 14Single Answer

The commercial method for the preparation of emulsions is ______

A
Homogenization
B
Lyophilization
C
Centrifugation
D
Both (a) and (c)

Question 15Single Answer

According to Stokes' law, which change most directly reduces the rate of creaming in an emulsion?

A
Decreasing globule size
B
Increasing globule size
C
Decreasing continuous-phase viscosity
D
Increasing the density difference between phases

Question 16Single Answer

The ratio of oil : water : gum, used for the preparation of a primary emulsion containing a fixed oil is ____

A
4 : 4 : 2
B
4 : 2 : 1
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
2 : 4 : 4

Question 17Single Answer

The percentage of sucrose in simple syrup I.P is ___

A
66.7% w/w
B
85% w/w
C
56% w/w
D
33% w/w

Question 18Single Answer

Commonly used solvent in throat paint is ____

A
Castor Oil
B
Sucrose Syrup
C
Glycerin
D
Alcohol

Question 19Single Answer

Lugol's solution is an aqueous solution containing iodine together with which substance to enhance iodine solubility?

A
Potassium iodide
B
Sodium bicarbonate
C
Calcium chloride
D
Magnesium sulfate

Question 20Single Answer

Which of the following processes is used for the extraction of volatile oils from plants?

A
Simple Distillation
B
Steam Distillation
C
Extraction
D
Soxhlation

Question 21Single Answer

In atherosclerosis, the serum level of____decreases.

A
Triglycerides
B
VLDL
C
HDL
D
LDL

Question 22Single Answer

Which drug can significantly increase plasma digoxin concentrations and thereby increase the risk of digitalis toxicity?

A
Quinidine
B
Potassium chloride
C
Lidocaine
D
Magnesium sulfate

Question 23Single Answer

When quinidine is initiated in a patient receiving digoxin, which measure is particularly important?

A
Monitor digoxin concentration and adjust its dose when necessary
B
Routinely double the digoxin dose
C
Discontinue all potassium intake
D
Administer digoxin only intramuscularly

Question 24Single Answer

Name a substitute of enalapril.

A
Losartan
B
Rosiglitazone
C
Omeprazole
D
Famotidine

Question 25Single Answer

Antihypertensive drugs                 Mode of action
1. Methyldopa                                               (A) Ganglion blocker
2. Hydralazine                                              (B) Depletion of catecholamines
3. Reserpine                                                 (C) Direct action on arterioles
4. Mecamylamine                                         (D) False neurotransmitter

A
1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
B
1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
C
1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
D
1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

Question 26Single Answer

Match the cardiovascular drug with its principal pharmacological action:
1. Papaverine – Vasodilator
2. Verapamil – Calcium-channel blocker
3. Hydralazine – Direct arteriolar vasodilator
4. Dobutamine – β₁-adrenergic agonist
Which matching sequence is correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctly matched
B
Only 1 and 2 are correctly matched
C
Only 2 and 3 are correctly matched
D
Only 3 and 4 are correctly matched

Question 27Single Answer

Which of the following are the potential targets for designing antihypertensive drugs?
(A) H₂-receptors
(B) Proton pump
(C)

- adrenergic receptors
(D) Calcium channel proteins

A
A and B
B
C and D
C
B and D
D
A and D

Question 28Single Answer

Hypotensive agents                        Mode of action
1. Clonidine                                      (A) Direct action on blood vessels
2. Captopril                                        (B) - adrenoceptor antagonist
3. Prazosin                                        (C) Decreases sympathetic activity through brain
4. Minoxidil                                        (D) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor

A
1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
B
1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
C
1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
D
1-C 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

Question 29Single Answer

Which statement about digoxin is correct?

A
Its elimination half-life in adults with normal renal function is approximately 36–48 hours
B
It is metabolized almost completely by the liver
C
It primarily accelerates AV nodal conduction
D
Its principal elimination pathway is pulmonary excretion

Question 30Single Answer

Digitalis glycosides are used in congestive heart failure as they increase the____.

A
Force of myocardial contraction
B
Cardiac filling pressure
C
Heart rate
D
Venous pressure

Question 31Single Answer

Digitalis is used in congestive heart failure. It acts by ____.

A
Decreasing the intracellular sodium levels
B
Activating adenylyl cyclase to produce cAMP
C
Decreasing the release of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum
D
Inhibiting the action of Na⁺ -K⁺ -ATPase enzyme

Question 32Single Answer

Concomitant administration of ____ increases the risk of digitalis toxicity.

A
Lidocaine
B
Triamterene
C
Hydrochlorothiazide
D
Captopril

Question 33Single Answer

___is a cardioselective

-blocker with vasodilatory action.

A
Atenolol
B
Bisoprolol
C
Nebivolol
D
Pindolol

Question 34Single Answer

___is specifically indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias.

A
Mexiletine
B
Diltiazem
C
Propranolol
D
Nifedipine

Question 35Single Answer

Which angiotensin-II receptor blocker is used in hypertension?

A
Valsartan
B
Amlodipine
C
Atenolol
D
Enalapril

Question 36Single Answer

Why may metoprolol be preferred over propranolol when β₁-selectivity is clinically desirable?

A
Metoprolol is relatively selective for β₁-adrenoceptors
B
Metoprolol is an irreversible α-blocker
C
Metoprolol is a calcium-channel blocker
D
Metoprolol stimulates β₂-adrenoceptors

Question 37Single Answer

Which cardiac drug exerts its positive inotropic action primarily by stimulating β₁-adrenoceptors and increasing intracellular cAMP?

A
Dobutamine
B
Digitoxin
C
Nicardipine
D
Sotalol

Question 38Single Answer

Which antianginal drug may produce reflex tachycardia because of marked vasodilation?

A
Nitroglycerin
B
Timolol
C
Atenolol
D
Ivabradine

Question 39Single Answer

Which drug is particularly useful in vasospastic or Prinzmetal angina because it blocks L-type calcium channels and relaxes coronary vascular smooth muscle?

A
Nifedipine
B
Timolol
C
Digoxin
D
Hydrochlorothiazide

Question 40Single Answer

Sublingual nitroglycerine tablet has a duration of action of___.

A
3-5 mins
B
10-30 mins
C
1-2 hours
D
8-10 hours

Question 41Single Answer

Pathogenic organisms are

A
Used in the pasteurization process
B
More plentiful than any other type of organism
C
Important to industry
D
Harmful to humans

Question 42Single Answer

For giving CPCR, after ascertaining unresponsiveness one should :

A
Call for help
B
Establish an airway
C
Check the carotid pulse
D
Give chest compression

Question 43Single Answer

Local cold application transfer heat from the body by :

A
Radiation
B
Evaporation
C
Convection
D
Conduction

Question 44Single Answer

Autoclaving a means of sterilization will destroy

A
All microorganisms
B
Pathogenic microorganisms
C
Non pathogenic microorganisms
D
Just yeasts and molds

Question 45Single Answer

Position in which the patient is to be cared after lower extremity amputation is :

A
Left lateral
B
Supme with head turned to one side
C
Side lying with amputated side up
D
Prone

Question 46Single Answer

When giving a patient intramuscular preoperative medications, the practical nurse must remember to inject into site no more than ?

A
1 ml
B
2ml
C
3ml
D
4ml

Question 47Single Answer

The safest position for a lady with cord prolapse in labor is :

A
Fowler's position
B
Prone
C
Supine
D
Trendelenburg

Question 48Single Answer

The percentage of water in human body is :

A
60%
B
80%
C
35
D
None of these

Question 49Single Answer

Daily care of patient's room would consist of

A
Disinfecting and sterilizing items in his immediate area
B
Providing fresh water for his flowers
C
Scrubbing and waxing the floor
D
Damp dusting and straightening

Question 50Single Answer

The most important electrolyte of intracellular fluid is :

A
Potassium
B
Calcium
C
Sodium
D
Chloride

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Nursing

Question 51Single Answer

During the bath observation of skin include ?

A
Temperature integrity and condition
B
Colour, warmth and bruising
C
Markings made by wrinkles in the sheet or crumbs
D
Distribution and colour of hair

Question 52Single Answer

Patient recovering from general anaesthesia should be positioned in :

A
Supine position
B
Fowler's position
C
Trendelenburg position
D
Side lying position

Question 53Single Answer

Included as a part of charting is the recording of observations and assessment of the patient. Basic skills used by the nurse in assessment are ?

A
Subjective and objective observation
B
Communications of the patient
C
Laboratory data and patient's response to tests
D
Recording of all data in a legal manner

Question 54Single Answer

Lugol's solution contains :

A
Potassium iodide
B
Sodium bromide
C
Ammonium chloride
D
Calcium chloride

Question 55Single Answer

Which of the following feature is not related to Gushing's triad ?

A
Systolic BP
B
Hypothermia
C
Bradycardia
D
Widening pulse pressure

Question 56Single Answer

Signs of a local infection include

A
Redness,, pain, swelling and decreased temperature
B
Increase and decreased blood pressure
C
Redness, pain and swelling of the area
D
Increased temperature, pain, redness and decreased urine output

Question 57Single Answer

The mount of bleaching powder for disinfection of 1000 gallons of water is :

A
oz
B
loz
C
50 gm
D
10 gm

Question 58Single Answer

The physician writes the following order, "Obtain a sterile urine specimen for C & S". Which of the following is true concerning a sterile urine specimen ?

A
May be obtained from the catheter bag if the patient has a Foley catheter
B
May be obtained using the "clean catch" or "mid stream" method as long as you use a sterile container
C
Must be obtained either by catheterizing the patient or from the catheter itself if the patient has a Foley catheter
D
May be obtained only by clamping off a Foley catheter for 15 minutes and then taking the specimen from the catheter tubing

Question 59Single Answer

Best method of oxygen administration to a 2 month old baby is :

A
Oxyhood
B
Face mask
C
Nasal cannula
D
Oxygen tent

Question 60Single Answer

Best method of oxygen administration to a Burn patient is :

A
Oxyhood
B
Nasal cannula
C
Face mask
D
Oxygen tent

Question 61Single Answer

Nursing observation that should be reported to physician immediately include ?

A
Pulse, hypotention and decreased urinary output
B
Obstruction of the intravenous tubing and inflammation at the puncture site
C
Removal of the signs of local infection
D
Three hundred fifty millimetre of yellow green drainage from nasogastric tube during the 8 hour shift

Question 62Single Answer

Best mask of oxygen administration to a facial Burn patient used as :

A
Aerosol mask
B
Venturi mask
C
Face mask
D
Non Rebreather mask

Question 63Single Answer

To check the placement of nasogastric tube the nurse can ?

A
Order a chest xray examination after injecting Sce of air into the stomach
B
Ask the patient if the tube feels as if it is in the stomach
C
Ask the patient to take tree deep breaths while pinching the nasogastric tube
D
Inject 5cc of air into the nasogastric tube while listening with a stethoscope for air entering the stomach

Question 64Single Answer

Best mask of oxygen administration are used in clinical practice when patient need higher humidify oxygen :

A
Aerosol mask
B
Venturi mask
C
Face mask
D
Non rebreather mask

Question 65Single Answer

Amount of blood used for exchange transfuse in a neonate is :

A
50 ml/kg body weight
B
65 ml/kg body weight
C
80 ml/kg body weight
D
100 ml/kg body weight

Question 66Single Answer

In case of accident what would you first exam :

A
Patent airway
B
Hemorrhage
C
Fractures
D
Possible head injury

Question 67Single Answer

For eye examination the instrument used is :

A
Percussion hammer
B
Otoscope
C
Stethoscope
D
Opthalmoscope

Question 68Single Answer

The important nursing intervention prior to administration of preanesthetic medication is :

A
Ask patient to empty the bladder
B
Do deep breathing and coughing exercises
C
Shave the skin
D
Regulate IV accurately

Question 69Single Answer

All these are sterilized by chemicals except :

A
Endoscopes
B
Gauze
C
Scissors
D
Cables

Question 70Single Answer

You would use the following methods artificial respiration

A
Mouthto mouth
B
Pronepressure
C
Back pressur
D
Mouthtonose

Question 71Single Answer

The important nursing intervention prior surgery is :

A
Ask patient to empty the bladder
B
Do deep breathing and coughing exercises
C
Shave the skin
D
Regulate IV accurately

Question 72Single Answer

In order to stop oozing bleeding you would first try ?

A
Pressure points
B
Direct pressure to the wound
C
Tourniquet
D
Ice packs

Question 73Single Answer

Who invented thermometer :

A
Celsius
B
Galileo Galilee
C
Lord Kelvin
D
Thomas J. Manning

Question 74Single Answer

Characteristic sign of heat exhaustion are ?

A
Profuse perspiration, normal body temperature, fainting
B
Unconsciousness, incontinence and bradycardia
C
Elevated body temperature, hot dry skin and tachycardia
D
Flushed face, rigidity of body muscles and excessive salivation

Question 75Single Answer

A clinical thermometer indicates temperatures in degree Fahrenheit from :

A
95 to 110
B
94 to 110
C
98 to 110
D
96 to 112

Question 76Single Answer

The normal breath rate of human beings is :

A
12-15 per minute
B
22-25 per minute
C
15-18 per minute
D
20-24 per minute

Question 77Single Answer

If a patient asks you to pray with him you should ?

A
Summon the hospital chaplain or minister of the patient faith
B
Ask him about his faith because you may not agree with his religious belief
C
Comply with his request, asking him if he has any special prayer he would like to say
D
Ignore his request, realizing that illness after causes a patient concern about spiritual welfare

Question 78Single Answer

If would eviscerations occurs, the immediate nursing action is :

A
Cover the would with sterile dry gauze
B
Leave the wound uncovered and pull the skin edges together
C
Cover the wound with sterile gauze moistened with sterile NS
D
Cover the wound with water-soaked gauze

Question 79Single Answer

How frequent should the nurse monitor the Vital Sign of the patient in the recovery room ?

A
Every 15 minutes
B
Every 60 min
C
Every 30 min
D
Every 45 min

Question 80Single Answer

A common blood test is that is used in a urologic workup is the blood urea nitrogen BUN) test. The normal level for this test is

A
10 to 20 mg/100ml of whole blood
B
25 to 40 mg/100ml of whole blood
C
50 to 80 mg/100ml of whole blood
D
70 to 120 mg/100ml of whole blood

Question 81Single Answer

The most important factor in the prevention of postoperative infection is :

A
Frequent change of wound dressings
B
Proper administration of antibiotics
C
Fluid intake of 2-3 L/day
D
Practice of strict aseptic techniques

Question 82Single Answer

Mr. X is to have a suprapubic prostatectomy. In this procedure the gland is approached through

A
Bladder
B
Perineum
C
Urethra
D
Ureter

Question 83Single Answer

Which of the following nursing actions should be given highest priority when admitting the patient into the operating room ?

A
Level of consciousness
B
Patient identification and correct operative consent
C
Positioning and skin preperation
D
Vital signs

Question 84Single Answer

After a cast has been applied, the nurse should suspect circulatory impairment if the patient of ?

A
Stiffness of the digits
B
Itching of the part
C
Numbness or tingling or both of the digits
D
Excessive sweating under the cast

Question 85Single Answer

ALT exceeds AST in :

A
Viral hepatitis
B
Cholestatic hepatitis
C
Toxic hepatitis
D
All the above

Question 86Single Answer

Information necessary for complete pain assessment would include ?

A
Precipitating event description and location
B
Medication preference and location
C
Emotional state of the patient and nutritional need
D
Time since last injection and physician order

Question 87Single Answer

Test for hypersensitivity is called :

A
Patch test
B
None of the above
C
Patrick's test
D
Post-coital test

Question 88Single Answer

Humidified oxygen is administered via tracheostomy after a laryngectomy because

A
Humidified oxygen contains more water
B
The upper airway is no longer connected to the lower airway
C
The lower airway heals more quickly if humidity is utilized
D
Humidified oxygen administration facilitates Suctioning

Question 89Single Answer

Choosing the appropriate catheter depends on :

A
Knowledge of any allergies to latex or plastic
B
The expected duration of catheterization
C
The size of the patient's urethral canal
D
All the above

Question 90Single Answer

The purpose of steam inhalation is to

A
Produce thicker secretions, which may be expectrated more easily
B
Increase the oxygen content coming 10 contact with the mucous membranes
C
Prevent drying of the trachea or tracheitis
D
All of the Above

Question 91Single Answer

When was the Pharmacy Act 1948 enacted ?

A
1945
B
1948
C
1950
D
1955

Question 92Single Answer

The Pharmacy Act 1948 regulates the profession of :

A
Medicine
B
Law
C
Pharmacy
D
Engineering

Question 93Single Answer

The primary objective of the Pharmacy Act 1948 is to :

A
Control the prices of medicines
B
Regulate the education and practice of pharmacy
C
Promote alternative medicine systems
D
Regulate the practice of medicine

Question 94Single Answer

The Pharmacy Council of India is constituted by the Central Government under which section of the Pharmacy Act, 1948?

A
Section 3
B
Section 10
C
Section 19
D
Section 29

Question 95Single Answer

Who elects the President and Vice-President of the Pharmacy Council of India?

A
Members of the Central Council from among themselves
B
Central Government
C
State Governments jointly
D
President of India

Question 96Single Answer

The Pharmacy Act 1948 is applicable to which of the following professions ?

A
Medical practitioners
B
Pharmacists
C
Lawyers
D
Engineers

Question 97Single Answer

Who is responsible for maintaining the Indian Register of Pharmacists under the Pharmacy Act ?

A
Central Government
B
State Government
C
Pharmacy Council of India
D
Indian Medical Association

Question 98Single Answer

Which document prescribed under the Pharmacy Act specifies the minimum standard of education required for qualification as a pharmacist?

A
Education Regulations
B
Drugs Price Control Order
C
Indian Penal Code
D
National Formulary alone

Question 99Single Answer

Under the Pharmacy Act, inspectors appointed by the Pharmacy Council of India may inspect?

A
Institutions providing an approved course of study and examinations
B
Every retail pharmacy solely for drug-price control
C
Banks maintaining pharmaceutical accounts
D
Pharmaceutical patent offices

Question 100Single Answer

Under the Pharmacy Act, the education and training of pharmacists are regulated by :

A
Medical Council of India
B
All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
C
Pharmacy Council of India (PCI)
D
Indian Nursing Council (INC)

Quantitative Aptitude

Question 101Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 102Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 103Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 104Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 105Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 106Single Answer

Passage :

information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Chemistry but not in Physics.

A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206

Question 107Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.

A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these

Question 108Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25

What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?

A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%

Question 109Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?

A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these

Question 110Single Answer

Passage :

What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?

A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these

General Awareness

Question 111Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 112Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 113Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 114Single Answer

Which city hosted the launch of Capital Radio in 1973?

A
Manchester
B
London
C
Birmingham
D
Glasgow

Question 115Single Answer

The brand "Flora," introduced in 1964, is associated with which product?

A
Cheese
B
Margarine
C
Yogurt
D
Bread

General Intelligence

Question 116Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 117Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 118Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 119Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 120Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 121Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 122Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 123Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 124Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 125Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

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