Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 2Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 3Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 4Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 5Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 6Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 7Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 8Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 9Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 11Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 12Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 13Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 14Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 15Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 16Single Answer
Which ancient city in Madhya Pradesh was a significant cultural and political center during the Maurya and Gupta periods?
A
Indore
B
Bhopal
C
Ujjain
D
Gwalior
Question 17Single Answer
The Parmar dynasty was primarily associated with which region of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Bundelkhand
B
Malwa
C
Baghelkhand
D
Mahakoshal
Question 18Single Answer
The famous temples of Khajuraho were built by which dynasty?
A
Parmar
B
Gupta
C
Chandela
D
Maurya
Question 19Single Answer
Which dynasty ruled the Gondwana region of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Kalachuri
B
Gond
C
Tomar
D
Solanki
Question 20Single Answer
Which Maratha dynasty held significant influence in Gwalior?
A
Holkar
B
Scindia
C
Peshwa
D
Gaekwad
Question 21Single Answer
Which ancient empire's influence extended to parts of Madhya Pradesh, as evidenced by Ashokan edicts?
A
Gupta
B
Maurya
C
Vakataka
D
Vardhana
Question 22Single Answer
The famous 'Bhojpur Temple' was constructed by which Parmar ruler?
A
Raja Munja
B
Raja Sindhuraja
C
Raja Bhoj
D
Raja Udayaditya
Question 23Single Answer
Which period saw the rise of the Baghel dynasty in Rewa?
A
Ancient Period
B
Medieval Period
C
Modern Period
D
Post-Independence Period
Question 24Single Answer
The 'Sanchi Stupa' is associated with which emperor?
A
Chandragupta Maurya
B
Ashoka
C
Samudragupta
D
Kanishka
Question 25Single Answer
Which city in Madhya Pradesh was known as 'Mahishmati' in ancient times?
A
Ujjain
B
Maheshwar
C
Mandu
D
Vidisha
Question 26Single Answer
The 'Guhil' dynasty had a branch that ruled in which region of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Malwa
B
Baghelkhand
C
Bundelkhand
D
Gondwana
Question 27Single Answer
Who was the famous queen of the Gond dynasty who resisted Mughal invasions?
A
Ahilyabai Holkar
B
Rani Durgavati
C
Rani Laxmibai
D
Rani Karnavati
Question 28Single Answer
Which British treaty led to the establishment of the princely state of Gwalior under the Scindias?
A
Treaty of Salbai
B
Treaty of Bassein
C
Treaty of Subsidiary Alliance
D
Treaty of Lahore
Question 29Single Answer
The 'Mandu' fort is associated with which Sultanate?
A
Delhi Sultanate
B
Malwa Sultanate
C
Gujarat Sultanate
D
Bahmani Sultanate
Question 30Single Answer
The 'Baghelkhand' region was known for its patronage of which art form?
A
Dhrupad music
B
Bundeli folk dance
C
Bagheli folk songs
D
Khayal singing
Question 31Single Answer
Which ancient city near Bhopal is famous for its Heliodorus pillar?
A
Sanchi
B
Vidisha
C
Udayagiri
D
Bhimbetka
Question 32Single Answer
The 'Kalachuri' dynasty had its capital at which city in Madhya Pradesh?
A
Jabalpur
B
Indore
C
Rewa
D
Gwalior
Question 33Single Answer
Which historical site in Madhya Pradesh is known for its rock shelters and prehistoric rock paintings?
A
Khajuraho
B
Sanchi
C
Bhimbetka
D
Mandu
Question 34Single Answer
Which ruler of the Parmar dynasty was a renowned scholar and patron of arts?
A
Udayaditya
B
Munja
C
Bhoj
D
Sindhuraja
Question 35Single Answer
The 'Chausath Yogini Temple' is located in which district of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Gwalior
B
Khajuraho
C
Jabalpur
D
Ujjain
Question 36Single Answer
Who was the founder of the independent Malwa Sultanate?
A
Dilawar Khan Ghori
B
Baz Bahadur
C
Mahmud Khalji
D
Hoshang Shah
Question 37Single Answer
Which ruler of the Scindia dynasty built the Jai Vilas Palace in Gwalior?
A
Mahadji Scindia
B
Daulat Rao Scindia
C
Jayajirao Scindia
D
Jankoji Rao Scindia
Question 38Single Answer
The 'Teli ka Mandir' is located in which fort?
A
Mandu Fort
B
Gwalior Fort
C
Raisen Fort
D
Asirgarh Fort
Question 39Single Answer
Which region of Madhya Pradesh was known as 'Chedi' in ancient times?
A
Malwa
B
Bundelkhand
C
Baghelkhand
D
Mahakoshal
Question 40Single Answer
Which ancient university was located in Ujjain?
A
Nalanda
B
Taxila
C
Vikramshila
D
Avantika
Question 41Single Answer
Which river is associated with the ancient city of Maheshwar?
A
Narmada
B
Chambal
C
Betwa
D
Tapti
Question 42Single Answer
The 'Rani Roopmati Pavilion' is located in which historical site?
A
Sanchi
B
Khajuraho
C
Mandu
D
Gwalior
Question 43Single Answer
Who was the last independent ruler of Mandu?
A
Dilawar Khan Ghori
B
Mahmud Khalji
C
Baz Bahadur
D
Hoshang Shah
Question 44Single Answer
Which dynasty ruled the region around present-day Datia?
A
Bundela
B
Parmar
C
Chandela
D
Kalachuri
Question 45Single Answer
The 'Asirgarh Fort' is known as the gateway to which region?
A
Malwa
B
Deccan
C
Bundelkhand
D
Baghelkhand
Question 46Single Answer
Who became the longest-serving continuous Finance Minister of India and presented her ninth straight Union Budget on February 1, 2026?
A
Nirmala Sitharaman
B
Arun Jaitley
C
Pranab Mukherjee
D
P. Chidambaram
Question 47Single Answer
How many Ramsar sites does India now have after adding two new ones (in Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat) in early February 2026?
A
98
B
97
C
96
D
100
Question 48Single Answer
In which rank did India stand in the Global Soft Power Index 2026, as reported around February 2026?
A
25th
B
32nd
C
28th
D
35th
Question 49Single Answer
What did the Supreme Court of India declare as a fundamental right in schools around February 2026?
A
Free education up to class 12
B
Sports infrastructure
C
Digital literacy programs
D
Menstrual health facilities
Question 50Single Answer
Which organization plans to launch India's first-ever National Household Income Survey (NHIS) and Annual Survey of Incorporated Service Sector Enterprises (ASISSE) starting April 2026?
A
RBI
B
SEBI
C
NITI Aayog
D
NSO (National Statistical Office)
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Engineering Subject, Skill Development & Vocational Training
Question 51Single Answer
Which one of the following helps experimental confirmation of the Crystalline state of matter?
A
Shock compression
B
Photo emission
C
Conductivity measurements
D
X-ray diffraction
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following regions of operation are mainly responsible for heating of the transistor under switching operation?
1. Saturation region
2. Cut-off region
3. Transition from saturation to cut-off
4. Transition from cut-off to saturation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
A
1, 2 and 4 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 53Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
The output of a linear circuit, driven with a sine wave at a frequency f, is itself a sine wave
1. at the same frequency
2. with chance of changed amplitude
3. with chances of changed amplitude and phase
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
1 only
C
1 and 3
D
2 only
Question 54Single Answer
At temperature of 298 Kelvin, Silicon is not suitable for most-electronic applications, due to small amount of conductivity. This can be altered by
A
Gettering
B
Doping
C
Squeezing
D
Sintering
Question 55Single Answer
By doping Germanium with Gallium, the types of semi-conductors formed are
1. N type
2. P type
3. Intrinsic
4. Extrinsic
A
1 and 4
B
2 and 4
C
1 and 3
D
2 and 3
Question 56Single Answer
An n-type of silicon can be formed by adding impurity of:
1. Phosphorous
2. Arsenic
3. Boron
4. Aluminum
Which of the above are correct ?
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
1 and 4
Question 57Single Answer
According to Einstein’s relationship for a semiconductor, the ratio of diffusion constant to the mobility of the charge carriers is
A
Variable and is twice the volt equivalent of the temperature
B
Constant and is equal to the volt equivalent of the temperature
C
Equal to two and is twice the volt equivalent of the temperature
D
Equal to one and is equal to the volt equivalent of the temperature
Question 58Single Answer
Swept-out voltage in PIN diode happens when PIN diode is
A
Forward biased and the thickness of the depletion layer decreases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
B
Reverse biased and the thickness of the depletion layer increases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
C
Forward biased and the thickness of the depletion layer increases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
D
Reverse biased and the thickness of the depletion layer decreases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
Question 59Single Answer
The number of holes in an N-type silicon with intrinsic value 1.5 × 1010/cm3 and doping concentration of 1017/cm3, by using mass-action law is
A
6.67 × 106/cc
B
4.44 × 10-25/cc
C
1.5× 10-24/cc
D
2.25 × 103/cc
Question 60Single Answer
A tunnel-diode is best suited for
A
Very low frequencies
B
50 Hz
C
100 Hz
D
Microwave frequencies
Question 61Single Answer
What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?
A
11 to 15 mm
B
8 to 10 mm
C
15 to 17 mm
D
5 to 7 mm
Question 62Single Answer
Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (QA to QB) .
A
B
C
1
D
Question 63Single Answer
Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .
A
The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
B
Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
C
The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
D
The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
Question 64Single Answer
A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is
A
0.5 L
B
0.85 L
C
2 L
D
0.75 L
Question 65Single Answer
What is the principle of plane surveying ?
A
Working from part to whole
B
Working from point to area
C
Working from angle to volume
D
Working from whole to part
Question 66Single Answer
According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :
A
100 m
B
1000 m
C
600 m
D
150 m
Question 67Single Answer
A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :
A
20
B
25
C
15
D
10
Question 68Single Answer
What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?
A
Reduces the secondary hydration process
B
Increases the heat of hydration
C
Increases the amount of air entrainment
D
Reduces the heat of hydration
Question 69Single Answer
As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :
A
M 20 and M 30
B
M 20 and M 25
C
M 22 and M 40
D
M 15 and M 25
Question 70Single Answer
Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :
A
Mass density
B
Moment of inertia
C
Poission’s ratio
D
Modulus of elasticity
Question 71Single Answer
Resistance switching is normally resorted in case of
A
Air blast CB
B
Bulk oil CB
C
Minimum oil CB
D
All types of CB
Question 72Single Answer
By transmitting power at high voltage
A
it will give poor voltage regulation
B
it will give better voltage regulation
C
it will not effect voltage regulation
D
None of these
Question 73Single Answer
Which statement about the daily load curve is valid ?
A
The area under the curve gives the average demand
B
The ratio of the area under the curves to the total area of rectangle in which it is contained gives the load factor for the day
C
The peak of the curve gives the installed capacity of the plant
D
The area of the curves divided by the number of hours gives load factor
Question 74Single Answer
High voltage Schring bridge is used to measure
A
large capacitance without additional element
B
small capacitance without additional element
C
medium value capacitance
D
None of these
Question 75Single Answer
Draw - in - system of laying underground cables has the drawback (s) of
A
higher cost
B
reduced current carrying capacity of the cables
C
requirements of much deeper and wider trenches
D
repairs, alterations or additions difficult
E
all of the above except
Question 76Single Answer
Surge impedance of a transmission line is
A
independent of its length
B
dependent on its length
C
independent on its temperature
D
none of the above
Question 77Single Answer
If two synchronous generators connected in parallel loose synchronism, it will lead to
A
stalling of generators
B
wild fluctuations in current
C
wild fluctuations in current and voltage
D
None of these
Question 78Single Answer
A differential relay responds to
A
algebraic difference of two or more similar electrical quantities
B
vector difference of two or more similar electrical quantities
C
algebraic difference between two currents
D
algebraic difference between two voltages
Question 79Single Answer
The conductor carries more current on the surface in comparison to its core. This phenomenon is called the
A
Skin effect
B
Corona
C
Ferranti effect
D
Lenz's effect
Question 80Single Answer
A booster is connected in
A
series with the feeder
B
parallel with the feeder
C
both (a) and (b) are correct
D
none of these
Question 81Single Answer
If a submerged body displaced from its equilibrium position, returns to its original position, it is called __________.
A
thermal equilibrium
B
neutral equilibrium
C
unstable equilibrium
D
stable equilibrium
Question 82Single Answer
In a flow measurement, a venturi meter is preferred over an orifice plate because _____.
A
energy of head loss is less
B
It is cheaper
C
pressure drop is more
D
space is limited
Question 83Single Answer
Pitot tube measures ______.
A
dynamic pressure of a moving stream
B
guage pressure
C
temperature of moving water
D
pressure difference between two fluids
Question 84Single Answer
Which of the following is not a property of an ideal fluid ?
A
flow is irrotational
B
it has no viscosity
C
it has viscosity
D
it is incompressible
Question 85Single Answer
Nozzle used in steam turbines convert ________.
A
enthalpy of steam into work
B
enthalpy of steam into kinetic energy
C
enthalpy of steam into pressure energy
D
pressure energy into work
Question 86Single Answer
Which of the following assumptions is the most relevant in air-standard cycle analysis ?
A
All the processes within the cycle are irreversible
B
Working fluid is a fixed mass
C
Specific heat of air changes during the cycle
D
Cycle is assumed to be an open cycle
Question 87Single Answer
The modern Francis turbine is a ___________flow turbine .
A
tangential
B
axial
C
radial
D
mixed
Question 88Single Answer
Variation of stress with strain rate for a Newtonian fluid is ______ .
A
hyperbolic
B
linear
C
elliptical
D
parabolic
Question 89Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a part of refrigeration systems ?
A
Turbine
B
Evaporator
C
Compressor
D
Condenser
Question 90Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT an intensive property ?
A
Temperature
B
Total volume
C
Pressure
D
Density
Question 91Single Answer
The apex body for coordinating skill development efforts in India is?
A
AICTE
B
NCERT
C
UGC
D
NSDC
Question 92Single Answer
The Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) in India function under which ministry?
A
Ministry of Education
B
Ministry of Labour and Employment
C
Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
D
Ministry of MSME
Question 93Single Answer
The Craftsmen Training Scheme (CTS) is implemented through?
A
Polytechnics
B
ITIs
C
Engineering Colleges
D
Universities
Question 94Single Answer
The National Council for Vocational Training (NCVT) is responsible for?
A
Conducting board exams
B
Prescribing standards and curricula for vocational training
C
Framing policies for universities
D
Funding private colleges
Question 95Single Answer
The Dual System of Training (DST) aims to?
A
Promote online education
B
Replace ITIs
C
Combine institutional training with industry exposure
D
Provide only theoretical knowledge
Question 96Single Answer
The National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF) is based on?
A
Learning outcomes
B
Credit hours
C
Age criteria
D
Years of schooling
Question 97Single Answer
Polytechnics in India mainly offer?
A
Ph.D. programs
B
Law courses
C
Medical degrees
D
Diploma level technical education
Question 98Single Answer
The Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is implemented by?
A
AICTE
B
RBI
C
CBSE
D
NSDC
Question 99Single Answer
Sector Skill Councils (SSCs) are responsible for?
A
Conducting university admissions
B
Developing National Occupational Standards
C
Publishing textbooks
D
Granting engineering licenses
Question 100Single Answer
Apprenticeship training in India is governed by which Act?
A
Factories Act
B
Apprentices Act
C
Industrial Disputes Act
D
Companies Act
Question 101Single Answer
The objective of Jan Shikshan Sansthan (JSS) is to?
A
Promote higher education
B
Conduct civil services coaching
C
Provide vocational training to non-literate and neo-literate persons
D
Offer MBA programs
Question 102Single Answer
Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) under PMKVY is meant to?
A
Provide scholarships
B
Offer foreign placements
C
Certify existing skills of individuals
D
Replace formal education
Question 103Single Answer
The National Policy for Skill Development was first formulated in?
A
2005
B
2009
C
2014
D
2020
Question 104Single Answer
The revised National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship was launched in?
A
2010
B
2015
C
2012
D
2018
Question 105Single Answer
The primary aim of the National Skill Development Policy is to?
A
Promote agricultural exports
B
Increase university enrollment
C
Reduce imports
D
Create a skilled workforce aligned with industry needs
Question 106Single Answer
Skill India Mission was launched in the year?
A
2015
B
2013
C
2012
D
2017
Question 107Single Answer
The National Skill Development Mission focuses on?
A
Convergence of various skill initiatives
B
Only urban youth
C
Only rural youth
D
Sports training
Question 108Single Answer
The National Policy emphasizes which approach for training delivery?
A
Supply-driven
B
Examination-driven
C
Demand-driven
D
Teacher-driven
Question 109Single Answer
Entrepreneurship development is integrated in policy to?
A
Encourage self-employment
B
Reduce taxes
C
Promote imports
D
Close ITIs
Question 110Single Answer
The policy promotes Public-Private Partnership (PPP) to?
A
Reduce curriculum
B
Eliminate private sector
C
Increase industry participation
D
Replace government institutions
Question 111Single Answer
Credit Framework under skill policy ensures?
A
Free education
B
Mobility between vocational and general education
C
Compulsory training
D
Elimination of exams
Question 112Single Answer
National Skill Development Fund (NSDF) supports?
A
Funding of skill initiatives
B
University grants
C
Medical research
D
Sports events
Question 113Single Answer
The policy targets demographic dividend by?
A
Increasing retirement age
B
Reducing school education
C
Skilling youth population
D
Limiting employment
Question 114Single Answer
Monitoring of skill programs is done to ensure?
A
Political control
B
Reduced participation
C
Quality and accountability
D
Increased taxation
Question 115Single Answer
The main objective of skill development is to?
A
Increase theoretical knowledge only
B
Enhance employability
C
Reduce literacy rate
D
Promote migration
Question 116Single Answer
Skill development helps in reducing?
A
Inflation
B
Imports
C
Rainfall
D
Structural unemployment
Question 117Single Answer
Bridging skill gap means?
A
Closing schools
B
Increasing syllabus
C
Matching workforce skills with industry needs
D
Decreasing wages
Question 118Single Answer
Demographic dividend refers to?
A
Aging population
B
Increase in taxes
C
Large working-age population
D
Decline in literacy
Question 119Single Answer
Skill training improves productivity by?
A
Reducing manpower
B
Increasing imports
C
Lowering standards
D
Enhancing efficiency of workers
Question 120Single Answer
Skill development supports Make in India by?
A
Increasing exports of raw material
B
Closing industries
C
Providing trained manpower
D
Limiting manufacturing
Question 121Single Answer
Inclusive growth through skill development ensures?
A
Benefits only urban areas
B
Reduced GDP
C
Higher dropout rates
D
Equal opportunities for marginalized sections
Question 122Single Answer
Lifelong learning concept implies?
A
Learning stops after school
B
No certification
C
Only online education
D
Continuous skill upgradation
Question 123Single Answer
Global competitiveness requires?
A
Skilled workforce
B
Unskilled labor
C
Reduced exports
D
Lower technology
Question 124Single Answer
Skill certification provides?
A
Informal recognition only
B
Formal recognition of competencies
C
No value in employment
D
Tax benefits
Question 125Single Answer
Entrepreneurship training leads to?
A
Wage employment only
B
Job creation
C
Closure of MSMEs
D
Decreased GDP
Question 126Single Answer
Skill development in rural areas reduces?
A
Agricultural output
B
Employment
C
Literacy rate
D
Migration to cities
Question 127Single Answer
The Kothari Commission recommended?
A
Abolition of vocational education
B
Diversification of secondary education
C
Only higher education
D
Privatization of schools
Question 128Single Answer
The National Policy on Education 1986 emphasized?
A
Ignoring vocational streams
B
Vocationalization at +2 stage
C
Removal of ITIs
D
No skill programs
Question 129Single Answer
The Mudaliar Commission focused on?
A
Primary education reform
B
Legal reforms
C
Medical education
D
Secondary education including vocational courses
Question 130Single Answer
The Working Group on Skill Development suggested?
A
Centralized control only
B
Industry linkage in training
C
Closure of private institutes
D
Reduction in funding
Question 131Single Answer
The National Knowledge Commission highlighted?
A
Limiting access
B
Ban on private sector
C
Expansion of vocational education
D
Reduced curriculum
Question 132Single Answer
Radhakrishnan Commission dealt mainly with?
A
Primary schooling
B
University education
C
ITIs
D
Polytechnics
Question 133Single Answer
The NEP 2020 recommends?
A
Separation of vocational and academic streams
B
Integration of vocational education from school level
C
Removal of skill courses
D
Ban on internships
Question 134Single Answer
The Apprenticeship reforms committee stressed on?
A
Increasing apprenticeship opportunities
B
Reducing stipends
C
Closing industries
D
Limiting trades
Question 135Single Answer
The committees recommended credit transfer to?
A
Restrict mobility
B
Stop certifications
C
Enable academic progression
D
Eliminate diplomas
Question 136Single Answer
The focus on PPP model was suggested to?
A
Reduce quality
B
Enhance industry participation
C
Remove funding
D
End skill programs
Question 137Single Answer
The emphasis on competency-based training was to?
A
Focus on practical skills
B
Increase theory load
C
Remove assessment
D
Reduce employability
Question 138Single Answer
The introduction of modular courses was recommended to?
A
Increase duration
B
Provide flexibility in learning
C
Eliminate certification
D
Limit entry
Question 139Single Answer
The scope of skill development includes which sector?
A
Manufacturing
B
All of the above
C
Agriculture
D
Services
Question 140Single Answer
Skill development supports MSMEs by?
A
Providing skilled manpower
B
Increasing imports
C
Reducing productivity
D
Closing enterprises
Question 141Single Answer
Digital skills are important due to?
A
Reduction in services
B
Decline in IT sector
C
Ban on automation
D
Technological advancement
Question 142Single Answer
Green skills are related to?
A
Agriculture only
B
Mining only
C
Environment-friendly technologies
D
Banking
Question 143Single Answer
International mobility of skilled workers requires?
A
No certification
B
Globally recognized standards
C
Informal training only
D
Reduced quality
Question 144Single Answer
Skill development enhances GDP by?
A
Decreasing productivity
B
Increasing workforce efficiency
C
Reducing employment
D
Closing industries
Question 145Single Answer
Emerging areas for skills include?
A
Artificial Intelligence
B
All of the above
C
Robotics
D
Data Analytics
Question 146Single Answer
Soft skills training focuses on?
A
Technical drawing
B
Machining
C
Welding
D
Communication and teamwork
Question 147Single Answer
Recognition of global standards improves?
A
Local isolation
B
Skill gap
C
Unemployment
D
Export of skilled manpower
Question 148Single Answer
Skill ecosystem includes stakeholders like?
A
All of the above
B
Industry
C
Training providers
D
Government
Question 149Single Answer
Reskilling is important due to?
A
Static technology
B
Rapid technological changes
C
Reduced competition
D
Fixed job roles
Question 150Single Answer
Future scope of skill development in India is driven by?
