Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 2Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 3Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 4Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 5Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 6Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 7Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 8Single Answer
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically
Question 9Single Answer
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 10Single Answer
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline
Question 11Single Answer
Which of the following is an important Paleolithic site of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Narmada valley
B
Hathnora
C
Jogdaha
D
All of the above
Question 12Single Answer
Bhimbetka Rock shelters, a UNESCO world Heritage Site is located at which place?
A
Indore
B
Bhopal
C
Raisen
D
Mandla
Question 13Single Answer
kunjun in the Sidhi district is a major site of which age?
A
Neolithic
B
Mesolithic
C
Palaeolithic
D
Stone
Question 14Single Answer
Kaytha village in Ujjain district was an example of
A
Mesolithic age
B
Neolithic age
C
Chalcolithic age
D
All of the above
Question 15Single Answer
Copper made utensils and tools have been found in which of the following places?
A
Balaghat
B
Jabalpur
C
Sagar
D
Both (a) and (b)
Question 16Single Answer
Which among the following is/are the major centres of chalcolithic centre?
A
Khedinama
B
Nagda
C
Azad Nagar
D
All of these
Question 17Single Answer
According to Anushruti literature, Lord Rama spent most of his exile in which of the following region(s)?
A
Mahakantara
B
Dandakaranya
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above
Question 18Single Answer
Ujjayani was the capital of which Mahajanapada?
A
Avanti
B
Matsya
C
Ashmak
D
Vajji
Question 19Single Answer
As per the Buddhist text Anguttara Nikaya, which of the following Mahajanpadas belong to Madhya Pradesh?
A
Avanti
B
Chedi
C
Vatsa
D
All of the above
Question 20Single Answer
Which Mauryan ruler did establish firm control over Madhya Pradesh?
A
Chandragupta Maurya
B
Bindusara
C
Asoka
D
All of the above
Question 21Single Answer
Before becoming King Asoka was the Governor of
A
Shivpuri
B
Satna
C
Ujjain
D
Asoknagar
Question 22Single Answer
Sanchi stupa was built by
A
Chandragupta
B
Gautam Buddha
C
Mahavira
D
Asoka
Question 23Single Answer
Pushyamitra shunga destroyed the Sanchi stupa during which dynasty?
A
Shunga Dynasty
B
Kanva Dynasty
C
Satavahana Dynasty
D
Mughal Dynasty
Question 24Single Answer
Which satavahana King defeated the shaka rulers and conquered part of Malwa?
A
Gautmiputra satakarni
B
Rudradaman – 1
C
Pratapdaman
D
None of the above
Question 25Single Answer
Coins of Kanishka and Huvishka were discovered from which of the following places?
A
Shahdol and Harda
B
Tewar (Jabalpur)
C
Bhedaghat (Jabalpur)
D
None of the above
Question 26Single Answer
Name the Gupta King who made a vast empire according to Prayag – Prasasti?
A
Chandragupta II
B
Samudragupta
C
Ramagupta
D
Chandragupta I
Question 27Single Answer
Ujjain was the capital of Avanti, which was ruled by
A
Rana Pratap
B
Asoka
C
Rani Durgabati
D
Vikramaditya II
Question 28Single Answer
What was the capital of Chandragupta II?
A
Vidisha
B
Ujjain
C
Sanchi
D
Maheswar
Question 29Single Answer
What was the capital of parmar dynasty?
A
Dhar
B
Indore
C
Rajgarh
D
Mandu
Question 30Single Answer
Raja Bhoj was a
A
Paramar king
B
Chalukya king
C
Maurya king
D
All of the above
Question 31Single Answer
Which ancient city in Madhya Pradesh was a significant cultural and political center during the Maurya and Gupta periods?
A
Indore
B
Bhopal
C
Ujjain
D
Gwalior
Question 32Single Answer
The Parmar dynasty was primarily associated with which region of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Bundelkhand
B
Malwa
C
Baghelkhand
D
Mahakoshal
Question 33Single Answer
The famous temples of Khajuraho were built by which dynasty?
A
Parmar
B
Gupta
C
Chandela
D
Maurya
Question 34Single Answer
Which dynasty ruled the Gondwana region of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Kalachuri
B
Gond
C
Tomar
D
Solanki
Question 35Single Answer
Which Maratha dynasty held significant influence in Gwalior?
A
Holkar
B
Scindia
C
Peshwa
D
Gaekwad
Question 36Single Answer
Which ancient empire's influence extended to parts of Madhya Pradesh, as evidenced by Ashokan edicts?
A
Gupta
B
Maurya
C
Vakataka
D
Vardhana
Question 37Single Answer
The famous 'Bhojpur Temple' was constructed by which Parmar ruler?
A
Raja Munja
B
Raja Sindhuraja
C
Raja Bhoj
D
Raja Udayaditya
Question 38Single Answer
Which period saw the rise of the Baghel dynasty in Rewa?
A
Ancient Period
B
Medieval Period
C
Modern Period
D
Post-Independence Period
Question 39Single Answer
The 'Sanchi Stupa' is associated with which emperor?
A
Chandragupta Maurya
B
Ashoka
C
Samudragupta
D
Kanishka
Question 40Single Answer
Which city in Madhya Pradesh was known as 'Mahishmati' in ancient times?
A
Ujjain
B
Maheshwar
C
Mandu
D
Vidisha
Question 41Single Answer
Which state is set to host the Nimar Investor Summit?
A
Gujarat
B
Rajasthan
C
Maharashtra
D
Madhya Pradesh
Question 42Single Answer
Which city serves as the capital of Madhya Pradesh?
A
Bhopal
B
Jabalpur
C
Indore
D
Gwalior
Question 43Single Answer
Which city hosted the Cabinet meeting approving major welfare proposals in May 2026?
A
Bhopal
B
Indore
C
Ujjain
D
Sagar
Question 44Single Answer
Which tourism initiative offers aerial tourism services in Madhya Pradesh?
A
MP Sky Tourism
B
Heritage Air Circuit
C
Bharat Air Tourism Mission
D
PM Shri Heli Paryatan Sewa
Question 45Single Answer
PM Shri Heli Paryatan Sewa is associated with which sector?
A
Education
B
Mining
C
Agriculture
D
Tourism
Question 46Single Answer
Which tourism initiative launched air taxi services in Madhya Pradesh?
A
PM Shri Paryatan Vayu Seva
B
MP Air Connect
C
Tourism Express Aviation
D
Bharat Sky Route
Question 47Single Answer
PM Shri Paryatan Vayu Seva aims to improve connectivity for which purpose?
A
Defence transport
B
Tourism promotion
C
Agricultural exports
D
Medical evacuation
Question 48Single Answer
Which city is famous for the Mahakaleshwar Temple?
A
Ujjain
B
Indore
C
Gwalior
D
Rewa
Question 49Single Answer
Vikramotsav 2026 was associated with which city?
A
Bhopal
B
Ujjain
C
Jabalpur
D
Satna
Question 50Single Answer
Vikramotsav 2026 received which recognition?
A
Heritage Festival Award
B
Tourism Excellence Award
C
Cultural Live Event of the Year
D
National Cultural Award
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Mechanical Engineering
Question 51Single Answer
Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity _________________?
A
Pascal
B
Poise
C
Stoke
D
Faraday
E
None of the above
Question 52Single Answer
Consider the following processes:
1. Extension of a spring
2. Plastic deformation of a material
3. Magnetization of a material exhibiting hysteresis
Which of the above process are irreversible?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 53Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct for a throttling process?
1. It is an adiabatic steady flow process
2. The enthalpy before and after throttling is same
3. In the processes, due to fall in pressure, the fluid velocity at outlet is always more than inlet velocity
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 54Single Answer
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW
Question 55Single Answer
A heat engine receives heat at the rate of 2500 kJ/min and gives an output of 12.4 kW. Its thermal efficiency is, nearly
A
18%
B
23%
C
26%
D
30%
Question 56Single Answer
One reversible heat engine operates between 1000 K and T2 K and another reversible heat engine operates between T2K and 400 K. If both the engines have the same heat input and output, then the temperature T2 must be equal to
A
582.7 K
B
632.5 K
C
682.8 K
D
732.5 K
Question 57Single Answer
Consider the following statements for isothermal process:
1. Change in internal energy is zero
2. Heat transfer is zero
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 58Single Answer
A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/K to 75 kJ/K. The process is:
A
Reversible and isothermal
B
Irreversible
C
Reversible only
D
Isothermal only
Question 59Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is correct during adiabatic charging of an ideal gas into an empty cylinder from a supply main?
A
The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
B
The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
C
The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
D
The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
Question 60Single Answer
Consider the following systems :
1. An electric heater
2. A gas turbine
3. A reciprocating compressor
The steady flow energy equation can be applied to which of the above systems?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 and 3 only
Question 61Single Answer
Consider the following conditions for the reversibility of a cycle:
1. The P and T of the working substance must not differ appreciably, from those of the surroundings at any state in the process.
2. All the processes, taking place in the cycle, must be extremely slow.
3. The working parts of the engine must be friction-free.
Which of the following conditions are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 62Single Answer
A Carnot engine operates between 300 K and 600 K. If the entropy change during heat addition is 1 kJ/K, the work produced by the engine is:
A
100 kJ
B
200 kJ
C
300 kJ
D
400 kJ
Question 63Single Answer
1000 kJ/s of heat is transferred from a constant temperature heat reservoir maintained at 1000 K to a system at a constant temperature of 500 K. The temperature of the surroundings is 300 K. The net loss of available energy as a result of this heat transfer is:
A
450 kJ/s
B
400 kJ/s
C
350 kJ/s
D
300 kJ/s
Question 64Single Answer
The effects of heat transfer from a high temperature body to a low temperature body are:
1. The energy is conserved
2. The entropy is not conserved
3. The availability is not conserved
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 65Single Answer
Which of the following statements pertaining to entropy are correct?
1. The entropy of a system reaches its minimum value when it is in a state of equilibrium with its surroundings
2. Entropy is conserved in all reversible processes
3. Entropy of a substance is least in solid phase
4. Entropy of a solid solution is not zero at absolute zero temperature
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 66Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. Gases have a very low critical temperature
2. Gases can be liquefied by isothermal compression
3. In engineering problems, water vapour in atmosphere is treated as an ideal or perfect gas
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 67Single Answer
The property of a thermodynamic system is:
A
A path function
B
A point function
C
A quantity which does not change in reversible process
D
A quantity which changes when system undergoes a cycle
Question 68Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. There is no change in temperature when a liquid is being evaporated into vapour.
2. Vapour is a mixed phase of liquid and gas in the zone between saturated liquid line and saturated vapour line.
3. The saturated dry vapour curve is steeper as compared to saturated liquid curve on a T-s diagram.
4. The enthalpy of vaporization decreases with increase in pressure.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 69Single Answer
The performance of a single stage reciprocating air compressor is evaluated by its:
A
Isentropic efficiency
B
Isothermal efficiency
C
Adiabatic efficiency
D
Volumetric efficiency
Question 70Single Answer
In a two stage reciprocating air-compressor with a suction pressure of 2 bar and delivery pressure of 8 bar, the ideal intercooler pressure will be:
A
10 bar
B
6 bar
C
4 bar
D
3 bar
Question 71Single Answer
Consider the following motions :
1. Piston reciprocating inside an engine cylinder
2. Motion of a shaft between foot-step bearings
Which of the above can rightly be considered as successfully constrained motion?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 72Single Answer
A rotor weighing 2 kN is supported on bearings A and B which are 1 m apart. The centre of mass of the rotor is at a distance 0.4 m from bearing A. It is observed that there is an unbalanced couple of magnitude 300 N-m which leaves the shaft balanced statically.The dynamic reactions at the supports will be
A
800 N and 800 N
B
300 N and 800 N
C
800 N and – 300 N
D
300 N and – 300 N
Question 73Single Answer
A cam is a mechanical member used to impart a desired motion to a follower by direct contact. Which one of the under-listed follower motion types will produce the least jerk to the system?
A
Simple harmonic
B
Constant acceleration and deceleration
C
Constant velocity
D
Cycloidal
Question 74Single Answer
In a circular are cam with a roller follower, acceleration of the follower depends on
1. cam speed and location of centre of circular arc
2. roller diameter and radius of circular arc
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 75Single Answer
A manufacturing company is selling a product for 15 per unit with variable cost of 10 per unit. The fixed cost of the asset is 50,000. How many units should be produced to breakeven?
A
2000
B
5000
C
8000
D
10000
Question 76Single Answer
Hot wire anemometer is used to measure_______________?
A
discharge
B
velocity of gas
C
pressure intensity of gas
D
pressure intensity of liquid
Question 77Single Answer
A gear of 28 cm pitch circle diameter has 40 teeth. The circular pitch will nearly be
A
11 mm/tooth
B
22 mm/tooth
C
33 mm/tooth
D
44 mm/tooth
Question 78Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding gear tooth designing for gear drive :
1. Tooth profiles not designed as per ‘law of gearing’ will cause vibration and impact problems even at low speed.
2. As the gears go through their mesh, the pitch point must remain stationary on the line of centres.
3. In a correctly designed tooth profile, the line of action of successive instantaneous points of contact will pass through the stationary pitch point.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 79Single Answer
The flywheel of a steam engine has a radius of gyration of 1 m and mass 2000 kg. The starting torque of the engine is 2000 N-m. The kinetic energy of the flywheel after 10 seconds from start is
A
75 kN-m
B
100 kN-m
C
125 kN-m
D
150 kN-m
Question 80Single Answer
Consider two shafts connected with two gears as per the following options :
1. One on each shaft.
2. Through an intermediate gear mounted on an intermediate shaft, and every shaft having one gear only.
3. Through an intermediate gear mounted on an intermediate shaft having two gears, whereas the other shafts have one gear each
Which of the above represent(s) a simple gear train?
A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 81Single Answer
A riveting machine is driven by a constant-torque 3 kW motor. The moving parts including the flywheel are equivalent to 150 kg at 0.6 m radius. One riveting operation takes 1 second and absorbs 10000 N-m of energy. The speed of the flywheel is 300 r.p.m. before riveting. What is the speed (to nearest 10 r.p.m.) after riveting and what is the number of rivets that can be closed per minute?
A
260 r.p.m. and 18
B
290 r.p.m. and 15
C
360 r.p.m. and 18
D
390 r.p.m. and 15
Question 82Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A
The product of diametral pitch and circular pitch is equal to unity.
B
The pressure angle for involute gears depends upon the size of teeth.
C
In a gear having involute teeth, the normal to the involute is a tangent to the base circle.
D
For commercially cut gears, the limiting pitch line velocity is 60 m/min.
Question 83Single Answer
The thickness of the continuous weld used for connecting a horizontal square bar of 150 mm size and of cantilevered length 500 mm to a vertical plate, with the bar carrying a 25 kN vertical load at its outer tip, given that the permissible direct shear stress of the weld is 20 N/mm2, is
A
3 mm
B
4 mm
C
5 mm
D
6 mm
Question 84Single Answer
A shaft of 50 mm diameter transmits a torque of 800 N-m. The width of the rectangular key used is 10 mm. The allowable shear stress of the material of the key being 40 MPa, the required length of the key would be
A
60 mm
B
70 mm
C
80 mm
D
90 mm
Question 85Single Answer
A governor is said to be hunting if the speed of the engine
A
remains constant at the mean speed
B
is above the mean speed
C
is below the mean speed
D
fluctuates continuously above and below the mean speed
Question 86Single Answer
The diameter of the pin in a bushed pin type flexible coupling is to be increased for the purpose of
A
higher stress due to shear
B
keeping the magnitude of bending moment small by reducing the unsupported length of the pin
C
fitting the pin in the bush
D
reducing the thickness of the flange
Question 87Single Answer
The problem of interference in involute profile gears can be overcome by which one of the following means?
A
Decreasing the centre distance
B
Using composite profile with cycloidal curve at the root of the tooth
C
Using stub teeth of height more than the full depth teeth
D
Proper lubrication
Question 88Single Answer
The bearing modulus for a bearing is 1628. What is the bearing characteristic number considered for bearing design?
A
1628
B
3256
C
4884
D
6512
Question 89Single Answer
Two shafts of diameter 30 mm each are connected by a flange coupling. Six bolts, each of diameter 8 mm, are used on a pitch circle of diameter 90 mm. If the allowable shear stress of the bolt material is 80 MPa, what is the torque transmitting capacity of the bolts to the nearest 10 units?
A
780 N-m
B
950 N-m
C
1090 N-m
D
1250 N-m
Question 90Single Answer
While selecting the elements of power transmission with speed reduction, the order of preference based on a minimum cost is
A
spur gear, belt pulley, worm and worm wheel
B
belt pulley, spur gear, worm and worm wheel
C
worm and worm wheel, spur gear, belt pulley
D
worm and worm wheel, belt pulley, spur gear
Question 91Single Answer
A spherical waterdrop of 1 mm in diameter splits up in air into 64 smaller drops of equal size. The surface tension coefficient of water in air is 0.073 N/m. The work required in splitting up the drop is
A
0.96 × 10–6 J
B
0.69 × 10–6 J
C
0.32 × 10–6 J
D
0.23 × 10–6 J
Question 92Single Answer
Consider the following statements pertaining to stability of floating bodies:
1. A floating body will be stable when the centre of gravity is above the centre of buoyancy.
2. The position of metacentres corresponding to different axes of rotation are generally different for the same floating object.
3. For cargo ships, the metacentric height varies with loading.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 93Single Answer
Water is coming out from a tap and falls vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Assuming steady inviscid flow, constant pressure atmosphere everywhere, and neglecting curvature and surface tension effects, the diameter of the stream 0.5 m below the tap opening is nearly
A
11.7 mm
B
14.6 mm
C
17.5 mm
D
20.4 mm
Question 94Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. At low Reynolds numbers of any flow, viscous forces dominate over inertial forces.
2. Transition from laminar to turbulent flow occurs over a range of Reynolds numbers depending on the surface presented to the flow.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 95Single Answer
In a steady laminar flow of a given discharge through a circular pipe of diameter D, the head loss is proportional to
A
D–1
B
D–2
C
D–3
D
D–4
Question 96Single Answer
The centre-line velocity in a pipe flow is 2m/s. What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if the Reynolds number of the flow is 800?
A
2 m/s
B
1.5 m/s
C
1 m/s
D
0.5 m/s
Question 97Single Answer
During a constant pressure expansion of a gas, 33.3% heat is converted into work while the temperature rises by 20 K. The specific heat of the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of work, W is
A
8%
B
10%
C
12%
D
15%
Question 98Single Answer
A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/kg K to 75 kJ/kg K. The process is
A
reversible and isothermal
B
irreversible
C
reversible only
D
isothermal only
Question 99Single Answer
A reversible heat engine rejects 80% of the heat supplied during a cycle of operation. If the engine is reversed and operates as a refrigerator, then its coefficient of performance shall be
A
6
B
5
C
4
D
3
Question 100Single Answer
For the same efficiency of the Brayton cycle and the Carnot cycle working between temperature limits of Tmax and Tmin, the power contribution of the Brayton cycle will be
A
zero
B
maximum
C
minimum
D
50% of the Carnot cycle
Question 101Single Answer
A heat engine working on the Carnot cycle receives heat at the rate of 50 kW from a source at 1300 K and rejects it to a sink at 400 K. The heat rejected is
A
20.3 kW
B
15.4 kW
C
12.4 kW
D
10.8 kW
Question 102Single Answer
An ideal gas is flowing through an insulated pipe at the rate of 3.3 kg. There is a pressure drop of 15% from the inlet to the outlet of the pipe. What is the rate of energy loss because of this pressure drop due to friction, given that Rgas= 0.287 kJ/kg K and the reference temperature T0 is 300 K?
A
42.62 kW
B
40.26 kW
C
38.14 kW
D
35.13 kW
Question 103Single Answer
A furnace is provided with an insulating refractory lining. The overall thermal conductivity of the material is 0.03 W/mK. The thickness of the lining is 100 mm. The inner and outer temperatures are 250°C and 50°C, respectively. The heat loss to the surroundings will be
A
30 J/m2/s
B
60 J/m2/s
C
60 J/s
D
30 J/s
Question 104Single Answer
A wall of 0.6m thickness has normal area of 1.5 m2 and is made up of material of thermal conductivity 0.4 W/mK. If the temperature on the two sides of the wall are 800°C and 1000°C, the thermal resistance of the wall is
A
1.8 K/W
B
1.8 W/K
C
1 K/W
D
1 W/K
Question 105Single Answer
Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
A
7.5 W/m2K
B
15 W/m2K
C
25 W/m2K
D
35 W/m2K
Question 106Single Answer
Knocking in a spark ignition engine can be reduced by
1. retarding the spark
2. supercharging
3. increasing the engine speed
4. using a fuel of long straight chain structure Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A
1 and 4
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
2 and 4
Question 107Single Answer
A 4-cylinder diesel running at 1200 r.p.m. developed 18.6 kW. The average torque when one cylinder was cut out was 105 N m. If the calorific value of the fuel was 42000 kJ/kg and the engine used 0.34 kg of diesel/kW hr, the indicated thermal efficiency was nearly
A
29%
B
26%
C
31%
D
23%
Question 108Single Answer
In a Morse test on a 2-cylinder, 2-stroke SI engine, the brake power is 9 kW and the BHP of individual cylinders with spark cutoff are 4.25 kW and 3.75 kW, respectively. The mechanical efficiency of the engine is
A
90%
B
80%
C
52.5%
D
45.5%
Question 109Single Answer
Consider the following statements for refrigeration and air-conditioning:
1. In a refrigerating machine, the heat exchanger that absorbs heat is connected to a conditioned space.
2. A refrigerating cycle operating reversibly between two heat reservoirs has the highest coefficient of performance.
3. The lower the refrigeration required and the higher the temperature of heat rejection to the surroundings, the larger the power consumption.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 110Single Answer
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
A
8 kW
B
4 kW
C
2 kW
D
1 kW
Question 111Single Answer
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
A
Greater than 1
B
Equal to 1
C
Between 1 and 3
4 4
D
Less than 1
Question 112Single Answer
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 113Single Answer
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
A
Newtonian fluid
B
Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C
Pseudo-plastic fluids
D
Dilatent fluids
Question 114Single Answer
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
A
8
B
6
C
4
D
2
Question 115Single Answer
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
A
0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B
4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C
0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D
4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Question 116Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
Both 1 and 2
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 117Single Answer
State whether following flow field is physically possible?
A
Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B
Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C
Possible for steady, compressible flow
D
Not Possible
Question 118Single Answer
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
A
0.25
B
0.26
C
2
D
4
Question 119Single Answer
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW
Question 120Single Answer
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
A
man power
B
profit
C
inventory
D
manufacturing
Question 121Single Answer
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
A
3 m/s2
B
6 m/s2
C
9 m/s2
D
15 m/s2
Question 122Single Answer
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
A
9
B
-6
C
117
D
10.8
Question 123Single Answer
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
A
More for lighter fluid
B
More for denser fluid
C
Less for denser fluid
D
Less for lighter fluid
Question 124Single Answer
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
A
Linearly with fluid density
B
Inversely with pressure drop
C
Directly as square of pipe radius
D
Inversely with fluid velocity
Question 125Single Answer
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
A
1.5mm
B
2.5mm
C
4.0mm
D
5.0mm
Question 126Single Answer
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
A
0.05m
B
0.07m
C
0.08m
D
0.09m
Question 127Single Answer
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
A
8 kW
B
4 kW
C
2 kW
D
1 kW
Question 128Single Answer
In a hydraulic coupling
A
The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
B
The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
C
The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
D
The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque
Question 129Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
A
1,2 and 3 only
B
1,2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1,2, 3 and 4
Question 130Single Answer
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
A
150 N
B
1470 N
C
340 N
D
900 N
Question 131Single Answer
If a submerged body displaced from its equilibrium position, returns to its original position, it is called __________.
A
thermal equilibrium
B
neutral equilibrium
C
unstable equilibrium
D
stable equilibrium
Question 132Single Answer
In a flow measurement, a venturi meter is preferred over an orifice plate because _____.
A
energy of head loss is less
B
It is cheaper
C
pressure drop is more
D
space is limited
Question 133Single Answer
Pitot tube measures ______.
A
dynamic pressure of a moving stream
B
guage pressure
C
temperature of moving water
D
pressure difference between two fluids
Question 134Single Answer
Which of the following is not a property of an ideal fluid ?
A
flow is irrotational
B
it has no viscosity
C
it has viscosity
D
it is incompressible
Question 135Single Answer
Nozzle used in steam turbines convert ________.
A
enthalpy of steam into work
B
enthalpy of steam into kinetic energy
C
enthalpy of steam into pressure energy
D
pressure energy into work
Question 136Single Answer
Which of the following assumptions is the most relevant in air-standard cycle analysis ?
A
All the processes within the cycle are irreversible
B
Working fluid is a fixed mass
C
Specific heat of air changes during the cycle
D
Cycle is assumed to be an open cycle
Question 137Single Answer
The modern Francis turbine is a ___________flow turbine .
A
tangential
B
axial
C
radial
D
mixed
Question 138Single Answer
Variation of stress with strain rate for a Newtonian fluid is ______ .
A
hyperbolic
B
linear
C
elliptical
D
parabolic
Question 139Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a part of refrigeration systems ?
A
Turbine
B
Evaporator
C
Compressor
D
Condenser
Question 140Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT an intensive property ?
A
Temperature
B
Total volume
C
Pressure
D
Density
Question 141Single Answer
Which of the following does NOT represent a unit of viscosity ?
A
Stoke
B
Poise
C
m²/sec
D
N-m/sec
Question 142Single Answer
__________ in the fuel is oxidised during knocking .
A
Hydrocarbon
B
Phosphorous
C
Water
D
Coal
Question 143Single Answer
_________ is defined as the ability of a material to resist deformation under action of an external load .
A
Stiffness
B
Resilience
C
Brittleness
D
Toughness
Question 144Single Answer
Draught is produced in locomotive boilers by which of the following components ?
A
Locomotive
B
Steam jet
C
Centrifugal fan
D
Chimney
Question 145Single Answer
For a steady flow, the value of all fluid properties at any fixed point _________ .
A
do not change with location
B
change with time
C
change with location
D
do not change with time
Question 146Single Answer
For a floating body, if the metacentre is below the centre of gravity, then the body is said to be __________ equilibrium .
A
thermal
B
stable
C
unstable
D
neutral
Question 147Single Answer
________ is useful for measuring flow of a conducting fluid .
A
Orifice meter
B
Rotameter
C
Vane meter
D
Electro-magnetic flow meter
Question 148Single Answer
A two- stroke engine consists of ________ port (s)
A
Three
B
Four
C
One
D
Two
Question 149Single Answer
Air Cooling is mostly preferred for _________ .
A
heavy truck
B
buses
C
moto cycles
D
multi-utility vehicles
Question 150Single Answer
_______ valves are provided in reciprocating compressors .