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Objective Questions

Latest Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : English, General Studies, Reasoning, Agriculture

Question Bank MPSC Agriculture Officer Exam - English

English

Question 1Single Answer

As the boat ……………….all those on board fortunately managed to reach the bank of the river………………with the help of the life boats.

A
capsized, drowned
B
fell, harmlessly
C
dropped, uninjured
D
deceased, unhurt
E
sank, safely

Question 2Single Answer

Every six months, the swans would leave a golden feather as a for using the lake. The soldiers of the kingdom in which the lake was, would collect the feathers and deposit them in the royal treasury.

A
treasure
B
interest
C
fee
D
charging
E
money

Question 3Single Answer

Direction : Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer (5) i.e., 'No Error’. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any).

A
Mangal Pandey was well known
B
because he was involved
C
1 in the initial stages
D
of the Indian rebellion.
E
No error

Question 4Single Answer

Direction : Question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.

A
The kidnappers
B
asked for ransom
C
and threatened
D
to kill Mr. Gopalan's son if their demands
E
were not met. All Correct

Question 5Single Answer

A
Ramesh spiled
B
juice all over Raj's new
C
clothes and did not even care
D
to apologise.
E
All Correct

Question 6Single Answer

A
Most of the Indian populations still lives
B
in its villages and thus the contribution of
C
1 agriculture to Indian economy
D
becomes very important.
E
No Error

Question 7Single Answer

A
Catherine's grandfather always
B
lost his balance while walking
C
and would be found fallen
D
on the road.
E
No Error

Question 8Single Answer

Direction : question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.

A
Ravi met
B
with an accidant
C
and broke
D
his leg the day he bought
E
his new car. All Correct

Question 9Single Answer

A
Daisy loved
B
children and so she would distrebute
C
sweets in an orphanage
D
on her birthday.
E
All Correct

Question 10Single Answer

A
Her doctor was
B
annoyed because she
C
ignore her health
D
even after being hospitalised twice.
E
No Error

Question 11Single Answer

Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer (5) i.e., 'No Error’. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any).

A
Raghav was worry
B
about telling his parents
C
that he wanted to move out
D
and live independently.
E
No Error

Question 12Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Veteran

A
Youthful
B
Pliable
C
Expert
D
Amateur

Question 13Single Answer

Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No Error. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)

A
Reshma was
B
a daily wage worker
C
who gone to work
D
despite having high fever.
E
No Error

Question 14Single Answer

Direction : In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given in each sentence. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold, might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.

A
Ronald was very proud
B
of his new car and would always
C
be on the look out for an excuse
D
to flaunt it.
E
All correct

Question 15Single Answer

A
Ramesh had an aversion
B
to alcohol and would
C
avoid going to partyies
D
with his friends.
E
All correct

Question 16Single Answer

Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No Error. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)

A
Radhika was very upset
B
because she had to goes
C
to a boarding school
D
so she cried the entire night.
E
No Error

Question 17Single Answer

Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No Error. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)

A
Although Shanku was born
B
in a rich merchant's families
C
he was very humble and
D
was a philanthropist by nature.
E
No Error

Question 18Single Answer

A
Lucy was working
B
over time because
C
she had to prepare
D
for an important meating.
E
All correct

Question 19Single Answer

A
Roshni was found
B
of pets and she was a proud
C
owner of many unique
D
animals.
E
All correct

Question 20Single Answer

Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No Error. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)

A
Professor Shastri were
B
a loved man and
C
had students visiting
D
him everyday.
E
No Error

Question 21Single Answer

Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No Error. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)

A
Reetu was a model
B
and so she would
C
starve herself to maintain
D
his body weight.
E
No Error

Question 22Single Answer

A
M; mad was not only very intelligent
B
but also very sincere
C
and would always strand
D
first in his class.
E
All correct

Question 23Single Answer

Rajeev was upset because he………forgotten his best friend's birthday.

A
have
B
shall
C
will
D
might
E
had

Question 24Single Answer

Raj was…introvert and would prefer to sit in the library rather than go out with friends.

A
the
B
a
C
like
D
for
E
an

Question 25Single Answer

Shanku was born………. a silver spoon in his mouth and was very proud of his wealth.

A
with
B
along
C
on
D
within
E
wishing

Question 26Single Answer

Laxmi lost an important file and rather than confessing her………….she blamed Sandra for losing it.

A
respect
B
image
C
attitude
D
default
E
mistake

Question 27Single Answer

Jacob was a rich old man who lived……alone in a huge house because his children did not care about him.

A
only
B
all
C
more
D
too
E
little

Question 28Single Answer

These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold ma) be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which u wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed ir bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e. ‘All Correct’ cu your answer.

A
The organization preferred
B
to hire locale
C
population as they understood the language
D
and customer preferences
E
All Correct

Question 29Single Answer

The error, if any, willbe in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

A
The scheme failed because
B
some states could not
C
manage not to raise
D
the necessary funds
E
No error

Question 30Single Answer

A
In our opinion the exicting
B
assessment
C
system requires immediate
D
revision
E
All Correct

Question 31Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : These sentences have two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for the blanks which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

After carefully………the situation, the farmer sympathized………..the mule.

A
scrutinising, on
B
assessing, with
C
observing, through
D
fighting, by
E
ignoring, for

Question 32Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Read these sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake / error in them. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of panctuation if any).

The Oak tree always/thought that/ he was strong/ than the other trees.

A
The Oak tree always
B
thought that
C
he was strong
D
than the other trees
E
No error

Question 33Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : These sentences have two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for the blanks which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Once there lived a cunning fox who always……… to…………others with his awful acts.

A
wished, cheating
B
desired, betrayed
C
thought, fooling
D
tried, deceive
E
longed, beaten

Question 34Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given, then mark ’No correction required’ as your answer.

We asked her that how she got time to write all these books.

A
That how did she got
B
That how she was getting
C
How did she get
D
How she got
E
No correction required

Question 35Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Rearrange the given six sentences/group of sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given question.

Beena grew by the day and was charming and polite but as the goddess predicted she had to have a new outfit everyday and for a while the king and queen were happy to lettheir way but soon realised that this had to stop.
They longed for the child and prayed and prayed till finally one day their prayers were answered but the goddess warned; “you will soon have a little girl and though she will be a loving child, she will love new clothes too much and will be cursed if she covert another's clothes".
They tried to get mend her ways but in vain and one day when Beena saw a beautiful girl simply dressed in a cotton saree and noticed how people were admiring the simply dressed girl she demanded the dress.
The kingdom was at peace, subjects were happy and there was a bumper crop but the King and Queen were very sad.

E. As foretold, Beena turned into an onion. A plant with many layers to symbolise the many dresses she had.
F. The King and Queen were ready to accept this and when the Queen gave birth to a baby girl the entire kingdom replaced,

Which of the following should be FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?

Reasoning

Question 36Single Answer

Among M, T, R and P, M is older than only P. T is older than R. Who among them is the oldest ?

A
T
B
R
C
T or R
D
Data inadequate
E
None of these

Question 37Single Answer

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

A
Hill
B
Valley
C
Dam
D
River
E
Mountain

Question 38Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ESRO using each letter only once in each word ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 39Single Answer

If ‘P’ denotes ‘+’, ‘R’ denotes ÷, T denotes’ and ‘W’ denotes x, then
40 R 8 W 10 T 12 P 16 = ?

A
50
B
46
C
30
D
70
E
None of these

Question 40Single Answer

What should come next in the following number sequence ?
2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 7 2 3 4

A
8
B
5
C
6
D
2
E
None of these

Question 41Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONSTABLE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 42Single Answer

In a certain code BOARD is written as 54#12 and MORE is written as 941$. How is DREAM written in the code ?

A
21$#9
B
2$1#9
C
51$#9
D
25$#9
E
None of these

Question 43Single Answer

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

A
50
B
65
C
170
D
225
E
290

Question 44Single Answer

How many such digits are there in the number 5231698 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 45Single Answer

In a certain code ‘CREAM’ is written as NBDBQ. How is BREAD written in that code ?

A
EBFAQ
B
EBDAQ
C
BEDQA
D
BEFQA
E
None of these

Question 46Single Answer

In a certain code, the word DOUBT is written as '$#35&' and the word BONES is written as '5#@67'. How is the word STONE written in this code?

A
7&#@6
B
7@53#
C
7&53#
D
$673@
E
&753#

Question 47Single Answer

Amount five friend A,B,C,D and E each running at a different speed in a race. E ran faster than only two friends. A ran faster than D but slower than B. B did not run the fastest. Who ran the second slowest?

A
A
B
B
C
C
D
Cannot be determined
E
D

Question 48Single Answer

Which of the following will come next in the following series
a z a b y a b c x a b c d w a b c d

Question 49Single Answer

in a certain code language,”TONIC’ is coded as ‘CINOT’ and ‘SCALE’ is coded as ‘ACELS’ In the same code language, ‘PLANK’ will be coded as’…………?

A
KNALP
B
AKNLP
C
AKLNP
D
AKPNL
E
Cannot be determined

Question 50Single Answer

Which of the following will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?
YS RM LH ? CA

A
DG
B
FD
C
GD
D
DF
E
GC

Reasoning

Question 51Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Study the following information and answer the question.
Six people P, Q, R, S, T and U obtained different marks in an exam. P obtained more marks than only two people. Q obtained more marks than S but not the highest. U obtained more marks than only R. The one with second highest marks obtained 480 marks. The one with second lowest marks obtained 350 marks.

Which of the following is true with respect to T as per the given information?

A
T obtained less marks than only two people
B
T possibly obtained 500 marks
C
T obtained more marks than S but less than Q
D
All the given statements are true
E
T definitely obtained 480 marks

Question 52Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Study the following information and answer the question.

Seven Friends, namely M, N, O, P, Q, R and S have an eassy competition on seven different days of the same week namely, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday and Sunday. Each friend also studies in a different standard namely first, second, third, fourth, fifth, sixth and seventh but not necessarily in the same order.

The one who studies in first standard has a competition on Saturday. S studies in second standard and has a competition on Wednesday. N has a competition immediately before Q. N does not have a competition on any of the days after S. The one who studies in seventh standard does not have a competition on any of the days on or before Friday. The one who studies in third standard has a competition immediately after O. Q does not study in fifth standard. The one who studies in sixth standard does not have a competition immediately before or after S. R does not have a competition on Sunday and does not study in third standard. P does not have competition on any of the days before M.

Which of the following standards does R study in?

A
Seventh
B
Fifth
C
First
D
Second
E
Fourth

Question 53Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Study the information and answer the given question.
In a certain code language ‘prepare for your exams’ is written as, ‘xn nt oz wl’ “hard work for prepare’ is written as, ‘nt ml oz tk’ “prepare your studies well’ is written as, ‘sd jk nt xn’ “work well best results’ is written as, ‘ds lu jk ml’.

What is the code for ‘best’ in the given code language?

A
lu
B
ml
C
sd
D
ds
E
Either ds or lu

Question 54Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Study the given information and answer the given question. In a certain code language
‘dress code for meeting' is written as ‘dk pd jn te' ‘wear black forma; dress' is written as 'pd ro Id le’ ‘formal meeting this weekend’ is written as ‘yi te le vr’ ‘black code this weekend' is written as ‘jn vr Id yi’ (All the codes are two-letter codes)

In the give! code language, what does 'le' stands for?

A
this
B
formal
C
dress
D
black
E
meeting

Question 55Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the following question, two statements followed by two Conclusions I and II have been given. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seems to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements : All drums are flutes. All guitars are drums.
Conclusions
I. All guitars are flutes.
II. All drums are guitars.

A
Both Conclusions I and II are true
B
Only Conclusion I is true
C
Neither Conclusion I nor II is true
D
Only Conclusion II is true
E
Either Conclusion I or II is true

General Studies

Question 56Single Answer

In Which year, Maharashtra came into existence ?

A
1960
B
1965
C
1955
D
None of these

Question 57Single Answer

In which year, Shivaji was crowned as Chhatrapati ?

A
1560
B
1674
C
1660
D
None of these

Question 58Single Answer

Who started Peshwa Dynasty ?

A
Balaji Vishwanath
B
Narayanrao Peshwo
C
Nanasaheb Peshwa
D
None of these

Question 59Single Answer

Shivaji was died in the year

A
1680
B
1685
C
1690
D
None of these

Question 60Single Answer

Name of the capital of the Peshwa rule was -

A
Pune
B
Ahmedabad
C
Indore
D
None of these

Question 61Single Answer

Nanasaheb Peshwa was also known as —

A
Balaji Bajirao
B
Narayanarao
C
Madhavrao
D
None of these

Question 62Single Answer

Which of the following was the last Peshwa ?

A
Balaji Bajirao
B
Narayanrao
C
Second Bajirao
D
None of these

Question 63Single Answer

In which year, Bombay Presidency State was split ?

A
1960
B
1962
C
1963
D
None of these

Question 64Single Answer

Bombay Stock Exchange was established in ?

A
1875
B
1880
C
1975
D
None of these

Question 65Single Answer

Area of the Maharashtra State is—

A
3,07,713 sq. km
B
3,80,890, sq. km
C
4,05,432 sq. km
D
None of these

Question 66Single Answer

What is the longitude of Maharashtra ?

A
72⁰ 36’ E to 80⁰ 54’ E
B
70⁰ 55’ E to 75⁰ 44’ E
C
65⁰ 55’ E to 70⁰ 53’ E
D
None of these

Question 67Single Answer

atitude of Maharashtra is

A
15⁰35’ N to 22⁰ 02’ N
B
10⁰ 50’ N to 20⁰ 12’ N
C
14⁰ 41’ N to 25⁰ 12’ N
D
None of these

Question 68Single Answer

Krishna river flows from—

A
West to East
B
East to West
C
North to East
D
None of these

Question 69Single Answer

Godavari river rises from a place near—

A
Nashik
B
Nagpur
C
Mumbai
D
None of these

Question 70Single Answer

Krishna river rises from—

A
Mahabaleshwer
B
Nashik
C
Multai
D
None of these

Question 71Single Answer

The puma river is a tributary of—

A
Godavaririver
B
Krishna river
C
Tapti river
D
None of these

Question 72Single Answer

The Bhima river is a tributary of—

A
Tapti river
B
Krishna river
C
Narmada river
D
None of these

Question 73Single Answer

The Girna river is a tributary of—

A
Narmada river
B
Tapti river
C
Krishna river
D
None of these

Question 74Single Answer

Manjira river is a tributary of—

A
Godavari
B
Krishna
C
Puma
D
None of these

Question 75Single Answer

Which of the following city is also known as ‘City of Lakes ?

A
Thana
B
Nagpur
C
Kolhapur
D
None of these

Question 76Single Answer

How many Tiger Projects are there in Maharashtra ?

A
Four
B
Three
C
Two
D
None of these

Question 77Single Answer

PenchNatioal Park is located in ?

A
Nagpur
B
Gondia
C
Amravati
D
None of these

Question 78Single Answer

At present, how many national parks are there in Maharashtra ?

A
6
B
7
C
4
D
None of these

Question 79Single Answer

Gugamal National Park is located in—

A
Thana district
B
Amravati district
C
Nagpur district
D
None of these

Question 80Single Answer

Maharashtra State Mining Corporation Ltd. Was established in—

A
14^th Nov.1973
B
14^th Nov. 1963
C
15^th Dec. 1973
D
None of these

Question 81Single Answer

Bombay High Supplies …… of India’s Oil requirement of the country.

A
14%
B
20%
C
40%
D
None of these

Question 82Single Answer

Maharashtra, is the ….. largest sugarcane producing state in India.

A
Third
B
second
C
Fifth
D
None of these

Question 83Single Answer

In Maharashtra, the major source of irrigation is—

A
Wells
B
Tube Wells
C
Canals
D
None of these

Question 84Single Answer

Contribution of Maharashtra in total population of India (2011) is—

A
12%
B
9.3%
C
20%
D
None of these

Question 85Single Answer

According to 2011 Census, the population of Maharashtra is—

A
9,02,87,436
B
11,23,74,333
C
5,4,00,596
D
none of these

Question 86Single Answer

According to 2011 Census, percentage of urban population in Maharashtra is—

A
49.59%
B
45.2%
C
27.8%
D
None of these

Question 87Single Answer

In Maharashtra, the sex-ratio (according to 2011 Census) is—

A
929
B
933
C
910
D
None of these

Question 88Single Answer

Population density in Maharashtra is—

A
325
B
415
C
365
D
None of these

Question 89Single Answer

According to 2011 Census, literacy rate in Maharashtra is—

A
68.9%
B
82.9%
C
80.5%
D
None of these

Question 90Single Answer

Male literacy rate in Maharashtra is—

A
88.4%
B
96.0%
C
69.0%
D
None of these

Question 91Single Answer

Female literacy rte in Maharashtra is—

A
58.4%
B
75.9%
C
79.1%
D
None of these

Question 92Single Answer

The proportion of Scheduled Castes population to total population in the Maharashtra (2001) is—

A
20%
B
11.8%
C
15%
D
None of these

Question 93Single Answer

The proportion of Scheduled Tribes population to total population of the state (2001) is—

A
10.9%
B
9.4%
C
15.4%
D
None of these

Question 94Single Answer

In state income (GSDP), which sector has largest share ?

A
Primary Sector
B
Secondary Sector
C
Tertiary Sector
D
None of these

Question 95Single Answer

Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation (MIDC) was estab-lished in—

A
1962
B
1965
C
1975
D
None of these

Question 96Single Answer

MSSIDC is related to—

A
Small scale industries
B
Service Sector
C
Agriculture Sector
D
None of these

Question 97Single Answer

Longest National Highways in the Maharashtra is—

A
NH-6
B
NH-13
C
NH-8
D
None of these

Question 98Single Answer

ChhatrapatiShivajiMaharaj International Airport is situated in—

A
Nagpur
B
Mumbai
C
Pune
D
None of these

Question 99Single Answer

At. present, how many districts are there in Maharashtra ?

A
36
B
40
C
30
D
None of these

Question 100Single Answer

Maharashtra Legislative Assembly consists of

A
289 members
B
275 members
C
250 members
D
None of these

Question 101Single Answer

The recorded forest are in Maharashtra is—

A
61,358 km²
B
65,432 km²
C
70,543 km²
D
None of these

Question 102Single Answer

According to area, the largest district of Maharashtra is—

A
Bid
B
Hingoli
C
Ahmednagar
D
None of these

Question 103Single Answer

According to area, the smallest district district of Maharashtra is—

A
Mumbai City
B
Latur
C
Mumbai Suburban
D
None of these

Question 104Single Answer

What is the name of the Capital of Maharashtra ?

A
Nagpur
B
Pune
C
Mumbai
D
None of these

Question 105Single Answer

How many LokSabha Constituencies are these in Maharashtra ?

A
58
B
38
C
48
D
None of these

Question 106Single Answer

Nashik city is located on the banks of which among the following rivers ?

A
Godavari
B
Krishna
C
Tapti
D
Bhima

Question 107Single Answer

In which year was Bombay renamed as Mumbai ?

A
1998
B
2000
C
1995
D
1997

Question 108Single Answer

Which among the following is the highest point in Maharashtra ?

A
Yavatmal
B
Bhusaval
C
C. Mahabaleshawara
D
kalsubai

Question 109Single Answer

Which of the following state is to the Southeast of Maharashtra ?

A
Andra Pradesh
B
Karnataka
C
Chhattisgarh
D
Odisha

Question 110Single Answer

In which of the following place of Maharashtra, Suzlon energy energy is planning to develop 1000 MW world’s largest wind farm ?

A
Nanded
B
Nandurbar
C
Nashik
D
Nagpur

Question 111Single Answer

Who among the following became the first citizen of India to get twelve digits unique identification ?

A
Ajay Patil
B
RanjanaSonavane
C
BhushanBibwe
D
None of the above

Question 112Single Answer

In which year Battle of Assaye was fought between British and Maratha Confederacy ?

A
1803
B
1793
C
1798
D
1800

Question 113Single Answer

Which among the following is the birth place of LokamanyaTilak ?

A
Raigarh
B
Ratnagiri
C
Nanded
D
Pune

Question 114Single Answer

In which years third Battle of Panipat took place ?

A
1741
B
1743
C
1761
D
1765

Question 115Single Answer

Which of the following district ranks no. 1 in Banana production ?

A
Dhule
B
Jalgaon
C
Buldhana
D
Aurangabad

Agriculture

Question 116Single Answer

In food, starch is detected by its :

A
Granular form
B
Energy reserve
C
White appearance
D
Blue reaction with iodine

Question 117Single Answer

Cut surfaces of fruits often becomes dark due to :

A
Dirty knife
B
Oxidetion of iron containing chemicals
C
Dissolution of iron of the knife
D
Oxidation of tannic acid assisted by traces of iron form knife

Question 118Single Answer

Kranz anatomy is typical of :

A
C₄ plants
B
C₃ plants
C
C₂ plants
D
CAM plants

Question 119Single Answer

Bakanae disease in rice plants (Oryza sativa ) is caused by :

A
Naphthalene acetic acid (NAA)
B
2 , 4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4-D)
C
Gibberellic acid (GA)
D
Indole Acetic acid (IAA)

Question 120Single Answer

A monosomic organism can best be represented as :

A
2n^-1
B
2n⁺²
C
n^+l
D
2n^-2

Question 121Single Answer

Chemicals used for transmitting messages to members of same species are :

A
Allochemics
B
Kairomones
C
Auxins
D
Pheromones

Question 122Single Answer

Tomato and potato belong to :

A
North America
B
South America
C
Asia minor
D
Ethiopia

Question 123Single Answer

At which part of plant potatoes are borne ?

A
Primary root
B
Stolons
C
Lateral roots
D
Adventitious roots

Question 124Single Answer

Wild saccharum sponkaneum was used for introducing resistance to :

A
Smut disease
B
Red rot disease
C
Loose smut disease
D
All of these

Question 125Single Answer

Which of the following cultivar of rice was discovered by Dr. G.S. khush and is most widely grown in the world?

A
IR-26.
B
IR-36.
C
Pusa-24.
D
Ratna.

Question 126Single Answer

Addition of which of the following is useful in rhizobial nitrogen fixation ?

A
Phosphate
B
Magnesium
C
Iron
D
Potassium

Question 127Single Answer

Agriculture is considered to be the most important sector in india because :

A
Agriculture provides the requisite foodstuff for the masses
B
Agricultural development has nothing to do with education
C
Agricultural sector contributes about half of the national income
D
Most of the industries are directly dependent on agriculture

Question 128Single Answer

Which of the following measures have been taken to modernise Indian agriculture ?

A
Area under irrigation increased.
B
High yielding variety seeds.
C
Credit and facilities to villagers.
D
All of these.

Question 129Single Answer

Assertion(A) : The growth rate in agriculture is small even after proper investment and planning
Reason (R): Land reforms have not been satisfactorily carried out .

A
A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
B
A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
C
A is true but R is false.
D
Both A and R are false.

Question 130Single Answer

What is the "tenurial system"?

A
It points our the method of land use
B
It identifies the ownership of land
C
It identifies the ownership of land and the relationship of the land owner with the actual cultivator.
D
It identifies the size of land and how it is put to use

Question 131Single Answer

Sub-divison and fragmentation of land resulted in :

A
enormous wastage of land owing to boundaries
B
uneconomic holdings
C
destruction of enterprise
D
All of the above

Question 132Single Answer

Which of the following kinds of budgetings should be followed while planning a farm?

A
Enterprise budgeting
B
Partial budgeting
C
Full budgeting
D
Any of these

Question 133Single Answer

Stock - farming refers to :

A
accent on agricultural production to build a buffer stock
B
co-operative farming
C
farming concentrating On the rearing of cattle and sheep
D
Large scale capital intensive commercial farming

Question 134Single Answer

Terrace is practised mostly :

A
In urban areas.
B
On slopes of mountains.
C
On tops of hills.
D
In undulating tracts.

Question 135Single Answer

Large - scale intensive agriculture involves agricultural operations carried on :

A
Near equator
B
In densely populated areas.
C
On hilly tract.
D
None of the above.

Question 136Single Answer

Irrigation canal system can be easily provided in an area which has :

A
Heavy rainfall.
B
Mountains and waterfalls.
C
Dry plain
D
Perennial rivers.

Question 137Single Answer

What system of irrigation is not practised usually ?

A
Canal irrigation.
B
Underground irrigation.
C
Sprinkler irrigation.
D
Lift irrigation.

Question 138Single Answer

Canal irrigation is largely carried on in :

A
AP.
B
MP.
C
Maharashtra.
D
Tamil nadu.

Question 139Single Answer

The maximum density of canal lies in which of the following states ?

A
AP
B
Punjab
C
Tamil nadu
D
Uttar pradesh

Question 140Single Answer

The national flood control programme was taken up in the year :

A
1950.
B
1952.
C
1954.
D
1974.

Question 141Single Answer

Soil morphology means :

A
the physical structure of soil.
B
activities of elementary plants.
C
biological activities of soil.
D
Sedimentation.

Question 142Single Answer

Black cotton soils are deficient in :

A
potash.
B
iron.
C
nitrogen.
D
lime.

Question 143Single Answer

Soluble salt content of soil is determined by measuring its:

A
electrical conductivity.
B
pH value.
C
orgian matter content.
D
sulphur content.

Question 144Single Answer

A fertile soil consists of:

A
sand and pebbles.
B
dry dead leaves.
C
sand and clay.
D
loam and humus.

Question 145Single Answer

The principal cause of soil damage in punjab and haryana is:

A
salinity and water-logging.
B
deforestation.
C
ravine erosion.
D
over-grazing.

Question 146Single Answer

Boilogical control agents of soil borne pla pathogens act by:

A
secreting toxic metabolites.
B
direct parasitism or predation on the pathogens.
C
rapidly depleting nutrients and thereb causing starvation and death of pathogens.
D
Any or all the above ways.

Question 147Single Answer

Rotation of crops is essential for:

A
increasing fertility of the soil.
B
getting different kinds of crops.
C
increasing the quantity of minerals.
D
increasing the quantity of proteins.

Question 148Single Answer

Through Inter - cropping :

A
two crops are grown alternately
B
two crops are grown at a time
C
a gap is given between two cropping period
D
None of these

Question 149Single Answer

For seeds to remain viable , they should be stored in a :

A
cool and dry place
B
dry and warm place
C
moist and warm place
D
cool and moist place

Question 150Single Answer

Mulching means the :

A
spreading of a mixture of wet straw and leaves for protecting seedlings
B
applying of chemical fertilizer.
C
applying of green manure
D
None of the above

Question 151Single Answer

green Revolution is a concept connected with:

A
afforestation.
B
growing new types of grass
C
discovery of high yielding varieties especially in food - grains.
D
None of the above

Question 152Single Answer

The crops which is sown with the commen cement of Monsoon is :

A
rabi crop
B
kharif crop
C
cash crops.
D
None of these

Question 153Single Answer

Which is a long day plant ?

A
Chrysanthemum.
B
Wheat.
C
Rice.
D
Tomato.

Question 154Single Answer

Wheat varieties, which triggered off the green revolution, were;

A
hybrid wheat.
B
drarf wheat.
C
composite wheat.
D
None of the above.

Question 155Single Answer

Green Revolution has led to :

A
an increase in regional inequalities.
B
an increase in inter-personal inequali-ties.
C
maximum addition to wheat production.
D
All of these.

Question 156Single Answer

A farmer is having 5 hectares of land. The average rainfall on the land is 20 cms between july and August. This land is suitable for the cultivation of:

A
rise.
B
jowar.
C
sugarcane.
D
jute.

Question 157Single Answer

Retting of jute is a:

A
chemical process.
B
pysical process.
C
mechanicala process.
D
microbiological process.

Question 158Single Answer

In which of the following products has Bangladesh emerged as the main competitor to India in the world market ?

A
Cotton garments.
B
jute.
C
Cement.
D
Pharmaceuticals

Question 159Single Answer

The chief industry of the Tripura state is:

A
Coffee
B
Rubber
C
Tea
D
Gold-ornaments

Question 160Single Answer

In which of the following areas of india the plantation of both tea and coffee is found ?

A
North-West region
B
Nort-East region
C
South-West region
D
Southern region

Question 161Single Answer

Which of the following is true ?

A
Compared to coffee ,tea is cultivated at a lower level
B
Compared to tea, coffee is cultivated at a lower level
C
Both are grown at the same level
D
It varies from region to region

Question 162Single Answer

Among tobacco producing countries of the world, the position of india is next to:

A
US and China
B
italy and France
C
Turkey and Egypt
D
Japan and Malaysia.

Question 163Single Answer

The main opium producing state of india is:

A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Bihar
C
West Bengal
D
Gujarat

Question 164Single Answer

Sugarcane matures within a period of :

A
4 to 6 months
B
3 months
C
12 months
D
6 months

Question 165Single Answer

Which of the following states is the largest producer of rubber in India?

A
Assam ( Ason )
B
Maharashtra
C
Karnataka
D
Kerala.

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