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Latest MPSC AE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : English Language, General Studies, Engineering Aptitude Test
Question Bank MPSC Assistant Engineer Prelims Exam (Civil) - English
English Language
Q 1 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 2 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 3 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 4 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 5 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 6 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 7 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 8 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 9 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 10 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 11 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 12 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 13 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 14 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 15 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 16 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold
Q 17 :
Assets
A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits
Q 18 :
Affidavit
A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony
Q 19 :
Hollow
A.Alveolate
B.Cleft
C. Cavernous
D.Solid
Q 20 :
Cosset
A.Ignoreb
B.Close
C.Caress
D.Fondle
Q 21 :
Ogle
A.Leer
B.Gaze
C.Ignore
D.Gawk
Q 22 :
Intrinsic
A.Elemental
B.Innate
C.Connate
D.Acquired
Q 23 :
Coalesce
A.Separate
B.Adhere
C.Cleave
D.Amalgamate
Q 24 :
Loiter
A.lag
B.Hasten
C.Amble
D.Loii
Q 25 :
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A.held, generating
B.aimed, creating
C.targeted, awakening
D.focused, building
E.concentrated, producing
Q 26 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 27 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 28 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 29 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 30 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 31 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 32 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 33 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 34 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 35 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 36 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 37 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 38 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 39 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 40 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 41 :
To sleep with the fishes
A.Always be in a dream world
B.To make absurd excuses
C.To sleep peacefully
D.To be dead
Q 42 :
To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.
A.To exterminate
B.To expurgate
C.To intricate
D.To extricate
Q 43 :
Liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together
A.Irascible
B.Crucible
C.Miscible
D.Risible
Q 44 :
Shooting fish in a barrel
A.To do random acts of stupidity
B.To behave in a cruel manner
C.Ridiculously easy
D.To escape through a narrow opening
Q 45 :
What does the phrase ‘knew no bounds’ mean ?
A.was bounded by
B.was limitless
C.was limited
D.was bound to
Q 46 :
“There are more cyclists than pedestrians on the streets of Amsterdam”.
Choose the sentence which means the same as the above statement.
A.Pedestrians outnumber cyclists on the streets of Amsterdam
B.Cyclists are not as many is number as pedestrians
C.Walking is not as common as cycling is on the streets of Amsterdam
D.Cycling is not as common as walking is on the streets of Amsterdam
Q 47 :
Use the appropriate idiom to complete the expression. You may go home early if you are
A.Feeling a bit under the weather
B.Hitting the nail on the head
C.Sitting on the fence
D.Adding insult to the injury
Q 48 :
To bend over backwards
A.To accommodate every unreasonable request usually without getting anything back
B.Stepping away from an unpleasant situation
C.To make every effort to achieve something, especially to be fair or helpful
D.Submitting oneself completely to a higher authority
Q 49 :
To declare invalid an official agreement, decision, or result.
A.To annul
B.To negate
C.To efface
D.To undo
Q 50 :
Feeling or showing deep and solemn respect.
A.Pious
B.Reverent
C.Humble
D.Devout
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General Studies
Q 51 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 52 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 53 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 54 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 55 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 56 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 57 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 58 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 59 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 60 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 61 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 62 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 63 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 64 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 65 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 66 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 67 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 68 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 69 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 70 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 71 :
In Which year, Maharashtra came into existence ?
A.1960
B.1965
C.1955
D.None of these
Q 72 :
In which year, Shivaji was crowned as Chhatrapati ?
A.1560
B.1674
C.1660
D.None of these
Q 73 :
Who started Peshwa Dynasty ?
A.Balaji Vishwanath
B.Narayanrao Peshwo
C.Nanasaheb Peshwa
D.None of these
Q 74 :
Shivaji was died in the year
A.1680
B.1685
C.1690
D.None of these
Q 75 :
Name of the capital of the Peshwa rule was -
A.Pune
B.Ahmedabad
C.Indore
D.None of these
Q 76 :
Nanasaheb Peshwa was also known as —
A.Balaji Bajirao
B.Narayanarao
C.Madhavrao
D.None of these
Q 77 :
Which of the following was the last Peshwa ?
A.Balaji Bajirao
B.Narayanrao
C.Second Bajirao
D.None of these
Q 78 :
In which year, Bombay Presidency State was split ?
A.1960
B.1962
C.1963
D.None of these
Q 79 :
Bombay Stock Exchange was established in ?
A.1875
B.1880
C.1975
D.None of these
Q 80 :
Area of the Maharashtra State is—
A.3,07,713 sq. km
B.3,80,890, sq. km
C.4,05,432 sq. km
D.None of these
Q 81 :
What is the longitude of Maharashtra ?
A.720 36’ E to 800 54’ E
B.700 55’ E to 750 44’ E
C.650 55’ E to 700 53’ E
D. None of these
Q 82 :
atitude of Maharashtra is
A.15035’ N to 220 02’ N
B.100 50’ N to 200 12’ N
C.140 41’ N to 250 12’ N
D.None of these
Q 83 :
Krishna river flows from—
A.West to East
B.East to West
C.North to East
D.None of these
Q 84 :
Godavari river rises from a place near—
A.Nashik
B.Nagpur
C.Mumbai
D.None of these
Q 85 :
Krishna river rises from—
A.Mahabaleshwer
B.Nashik
C.Multai
D.None of these
Q 86 :
The puma river is a tributary of—
A.Godavaririver
B.Krishna river
C.Tapti river
D.None of these
Q 87 :
The Bhima river is a tributary of—
A.Tapti river
B.Krishna river
C.Narmada river
D.None of these
Q 88 :
The Girna river is a tributary of—
A.Narmada river
B.Tapti river
C.Krishna river
D.None of these
Q 89 :
Manjira river is a tributary of—
A.Godavari
B.Krishna
C.Puma
D.None of these
Q 90 :
Which of the following city is also known as ‘City of Lakes ?
A.Thana
B.Nagpur
C.Kolhapur
D.None of these
Q 91 :
What astronomical discovery was announced by astronomers in March 2026?
A.New planet in solar system
B.Discovery related to 1,900 light-years away (specific object)
C.Black hole merger
D.Exoplanet with life signs
Q 92 :
On what date in March 2026 did Prime Minister Narendra Modi become Indiaโs longest-serving head of government?
A.15 March
B.20 March
C.22 March
D.25 March
Q 93 :
What major infrastructure project was inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi on 28 March 2026?
A.Mumbai Trans Harbour Link
B.Atal Tunnel
C.Noida International Airport
D.Chenab Bridge
Q 94 :
What was the status of India-US trade relations highlighted in early 2026 leading into March developments?
A.Increased tariffs
B.Breakthrough deal reducing US tariffs on Indian goods to 18%
C.Complete trade halt
D.New sanctions
Q 95 :
What was the fiscal deficit target set for FY 2026-27 in the Union Budget 2026-27 presented by FM Nirmala Sitharaman?
A.4.0% of GDP
B.5.0% of GDP
C.4.5% of GDP
D.4.3% of GDP
Q 96 :
What was the total expenditure estimated in the Union Budget 2026-27?
A.โน49.6 lakh crore
B.โน53.5 lakh crore
C.โน55 lakh crore
D.โน60 lakh crore
Q 97 :
What defence-related development was noted in the context of Indiaโs preparedness amid global tensions in March 2026?
A.Reduction in capex
B.Withdrawal from international exercises
C.Complete self-reliance achieved
D.Surge in defence budget and modernisation push
Q 98 :
What significant diplomatic agreement was announced between India and Canada in early March 2026?
A.Defence pact
B.Free Trade Agreement
C.Strengthened economic partnership
D.Climate alliance
Q 99 :
Which airport or port received a critical LPG shipment (Pyxis Pioneer) in March 2026 amid West Asia tensions?
A.Mundra Port
B.Paradip Port
C.New Mangalore Port
D.Kandla Port
Q 100 :
What major international sporting hosting rights did India receive in March 2026?
A.2028 World Athletics Indoor Championships
B.2028 Olympics
C.2030 Asian Games
D.2027 Cricket World Cup
Engineering Aptitude Test
Q 101 :
A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
A.Maximum daily demand
B.Maximum hourly demand and fire demand
C.Average demand
D.Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher
Q 102 :
A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
A.Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
B.Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year
C.Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year
D.Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days
Q 103 :
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
A.40.5m3
B.50m3
C.75m3
D.94.7m3
Q 104 :
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
A.Flow rate through the tank
B.Diameter of the particle intended to be removed
C.Volume of the sedimentation tank
D.Detention time in the tank
Q 105 :
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant :
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.3 and 4 only
Q 106 :
A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?
A.3.6 mg/l
B.13.6 mg/l
C.33.6 mg/l
D.53.6 mg/l
Q 107 :
Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.3 and 4 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 108 :
Quick sand condition occurs when
A.the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
B.the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
C.the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil
D.the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil
Q 109 :
The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is theรย corresponding error in the computed area of the land.
A.5 m2
B.25 m2
C.10 m2
D.20 m2รย
Q 110 :
Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only
Q 111 :
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A.1 and 3 only
B.1 and 4 only
C.2 and 4 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 112 :
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.2, 3 and 4 only
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 113 :
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
A.Methane and Hydrogen
B.Hydrogen Sulphide
C.Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
D.Ammonia
Q 114 :
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
A.Excessive burning of bricks
B.High silt content in brick clay
C.High porosity of bricks
D.Soluble salts present in parent clay
Q 115 :
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 116 :
Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 117 :
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 118 :
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
A.Tricalcium silicate
B.Dicalcium silicate
C.Tricalcium aluminate
D.Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
Q 119 :
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only
Q 120 :
In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be
A.3.00
B.3.45
C.4.50
D.6.00
Q 121 :
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
A.30 l
B.35 l
C.40 l
D.45 l
Q 122 :
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
A.1 : 1 : 1
B.1 : 2 : 3
C.1 : 2 : 4
D.1 : 3 : 4
Q 123 :
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 3 and 5
C.2, 3 and 4
D.2, 4 and 5
Q 124 :
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
A.10
B.20
C.25
D.30
Q 125 :
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
A.11.8
B.12.4
C.14.2
D.14.8
Q 126 :
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1, 2 and 4
C.2, 3 and 4
D.1, 3 and 4
Q 127 :
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.2 and 3
D.3 and 4
Q 128 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 129 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 5 only
C.1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q 130 :
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
A.165 l
B.205 l
C.245 l
D.285 l
Q 131 :
Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?
A.IS : 4970-1973
B.IS : 1708-1969
C.IS : 1141-1958
D.IS : 399-1963
Q 132 :
Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.2 and 4 only
C.1 and 4 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 133 :
The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
A.Parallel to each other
B.At right angle to one another
C.45° oblique to adjacent grain
D.Not constrained by any consideration
Q 134 :
Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?
A.It must be free from lumps of lime
B.It should not be mixed with salty water
C.It must be non-homogeneous
D.It should not contain vegetable and organic matter
Q 135 :
The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than
A.440 kg/cm2
B.175 kg/cm2
C.100kg/cm2
D.75kg/cm2
Q 136 :
Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.3 and 4
C.2 and 3
D.1 and 4
Q 137 :
Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3
C.1, 2 and 4
D.2, 3 and 4
Q 138 :
Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?
A.Magnesium oxide
B.Silica
C.Alumina
D.Calcium sulphate
Q 139 :
Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?
A.Ordinary Portland
B.High Alumina
C.Low-heat Portland
D.Portland Cement
Q 140 :
Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.2, 3 and 4
C.3, 4 and 5
D.2, 3 and 5
Q 141 :
Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 142 :
Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.2 and 3 only
B.2 and 4 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.1 and 4 only
Q 143 :
Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 4 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.3 and 4 only
Q 144 :
Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 145 :
Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 3 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 4 only
D.2 and 4 only
Q 146 :
Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Q 147 :
Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 3 only
B.1 and 4 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.2 and 4 only
Q 148 :
A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm2 and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is
A.100.6 N/mm2
B.120.4 N/mm2
C.140.2 N/mm2
D.160.0 N/mm2
Q 149 :
In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called
A.Annealing effect
B.Bauschinger effect
C.Strain rate effect
D.Fatigue effect
Q 150 :
Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?