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Latest MPSC Clerk Typist Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Current Affairs, Civics, History, Geography, Economics, Political Science, General Science, Aptitude Test & Arithmetics
Question Bank MPSC Clerk Typist (Prelims) Exam - English
Current Affairs, Civics, History, Geography, Economics, Political Science, General Science, Aptitude Test & Arithmetics
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 8 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 9 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 10 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 11 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 12 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 13 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 14 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 15 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 16 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 17 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 18 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 19 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 20 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 21 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 22 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 23 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 24 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 25 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 26 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 27 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 28 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 29 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 30 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 31 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 32 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 33 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 34 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 35 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 36 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 37 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 38 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 39 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 40 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 41 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 42 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 43 :
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A.318
B.198
C.213
D.206
Q 44 :
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A.558
B.718
C.628
D.None of these
Q 45 :
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A.20%
B.25%
C.30%
D.40%
Q 46 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A.19%
B.31%
C.44%
D.None of these
Q 47 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A.38%
B.48%
C.51%
D.None of these
Q 48 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
A.4%
B.3%
C.1%
D.None of these
Q 49 :
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A Ñ´β (A Ñ´β B) equal to ?
A.Complement of A
B.Complement of B
C.B
D.A
Q 50 :
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
A.10%
B.15%
C.20%
D.25%
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Current Affairs, Civics, History, Geography, Economics, Political Science, General Science, Aptitude Test & Arithmetics
Q 51 :
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
A.25%
B.100%
C.75%
D.0%
Q 52 :
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
A.15
B.25
C.40
D.75
Q 53 :
On which date is Maharashtra Day celebrated ?
A.May 1
B.May 2
C.May 3
D.May 4
Q 54 :
On which date is Shivaji Maharaj's birth anniversary celebrated ?
A.February 19
B.February 20
C.February 2
D.February 22
Q 55 :
On which date is Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Jayanti celebrated ?
A.February 19
B.February 20
C.February 21
D.February 22
Q 56 :
On which date is Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar Jayanti celebrated ?
A.April 14
B.April 15
C.April 16
D.April 17
Q 57 :
On which date is Maharashtra Rajya Sthapana Divas celebrated ?
A.May 1
B.May 2
C.May 3
D.May 4
Q 58 :
On which date is Warkari Yatra celebrated ?
A.June 21
B.June 22
C.June 23
D.June 24
Q 59 :
On which date is Guru Nanak Jayanti celebrated ?
A.October 31
B.November 1
C.November 2
D.November 3
Q 60 :
On which date is Ambedkar Jayanti celebrated ?
A.November 14
B.November 15
C.November 16
D.November 17
Q 61 :
On which date is Christmas celebrated ?
A.December 24
B.December 25
C.December 26
D.December 27
Q 62 :
When was Maharashtra Day celebrated ?
A.1st May
B.15th August
C.26th January
D.2nd October
Q 63 :
What is the foundation day of Mumbai ?
A.15th August
B.1st May
C.26th January
D.24th June
Q 64 :
On which date did the Samyukta Maharashtra movement culminate with the formation of the state of Maharashtra ?
A.1st May
B.15th August
C.26th January
D.1st November
Q 65 :
What date marks the birth anniversary of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, a celebrated Maratha warrior ?
A.1st May
B.19th February
C.26th January
D.2nd October
Q 66 :
On which date is Gudi Padwa, the Marathi New Year, celebrated ?
A.1st May
B.6th April
C.26th January
D.14th January
Q 67 :
When is Maharashtra Police raising day celebrated ?
A.1st May
B.15th August
C.26th January
D.1st October
Q 68 :
Which date is celebrated as the birthday of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, a prominent leader in Maharashtra ?
A.1st May
B.15th August
C.26th January
D.14th April
Q 69 :
On which date is Shivaji Jayanti celebrated in Maharashtra ?
A.1st May
B.19th February
C.26th January
D.2nd October
Q 70 :
What date is observed as Maharashtra's Statehood Day ?
A.1st May
B.15th August
C.1st November
D.26th January
Q 71 :
When is Ganesh Chaturthi, a popular festival in Maharashtra, usually celebrated ?
A.1st May
B.15th August
C.Varies each year
D.26th January
Q 72 :
On which date is the Maharashtra Police Commemoration Day observed ?
A.1st May
B.15th August
C.21st October
D.26th January
Q 73 :
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1915
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.The Government of India Act, 1935
Q 74 :
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.Government of India Act, 1919
C.Government of India Act, 1935
D.Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q 75 :
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A.The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B.The Government of India Act, 1935
C.The Government of India Act, 1919
D.None of the above
Q 76 :
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A.Assam
B.Himachal Pradesh
C.Punjab
D.Tamil Nadu
Q 77 :
Which of the following statements is true ?
Statement I: Indian techniques such as Rasa and Bhawa in classical dances have their origins in Bharatmuni's Natyashastra.
Statement II: Bharatanatyam has its origin in Odisha.
A.Only Statement II is true
B.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C.Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true
D.Only Statement I is true
Q 78 :
Padma Bhushan, Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam is renowned for having trained hundreds of students in which of the following dance forms ?
A.Kuchipudi
B.Odissi
C.Bharatnatyam
D.Kathak
Q 79 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 80 :
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 81 :
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A.Mahatma Gandhi
B.M.N. Roy
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 82 :
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
A.1942
B.1945
C.1946
D.1947
Q 83 :
The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A.15th August 1947
B.26th January 1950
C.26th November 1949
D.30th January 1948
Q 84 :
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A.Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B.Swami Vivekananda
C.Rabindranath Tagore
D.Mahatma Gandhi
Q 85 :
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A.Kathak
B.Kuchipudi
C.Bharatanatyam
D.Odissi
Q 86 :
Which of the following is a famous festival of Kerala ?
A.Pongal
B.Onam
C.Baisakhi
D.Makar Sankranti
Q 87 :
Who wrote the Indian national anthem 'Jana Gana Mana' ?
A.Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
B.Sarojini Naidu
C.Rabindranath Tagore
D.Subramania Bharati
Q 88 :
The Ajanta Caves are located in which state ?
A.Maharashtra
B.Madhya Pradesh
C.Bihar
D.Karnataka
Q 89 :
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?
A.Part IV-A
B.Part IV
C.Part III
D.Part II
Q 90 :
Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Constitutional Remedies?
A.Article 19
B.Article 21
C.Article 32
D.Article 51A
Q 91 :
Which form of government is based on the principle that political power ultimately belongs to the people?
A.Democracy
B.Monarchy
C.Dictatorship
D.Oligarchy
Q 92 :
In a direct democracy, citizens primarily participate in governance by doing what?
A.Electing only judges
B.Selecting hereditary rulers
C.Appointing military officers
D.Taking decisions themselves
Q 93 :
Which country is commonly associated with extensive use of direct democratic devices such as referendums?
A.Switzerland
B.India
C.Japan
D.Canada
Q 94 :
The Indian Navy recently received its second indigenous Diving Support Vessel (DSV). What is its name?
A.Nistar
B.Nipun
C.INS Vikrant
D.INS Arihant
Q 95 :
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, was passed by the Rajya Sabha on which date?
A.27 July 2026
B.29 July 2026
C.31 July 2026
D.30 July 2026
Q 96 :
Who won the silver medal in the menβs javelin throw at the Commonwealth Games 2026 held in Glasgow?
A.Yash Vir Singh
B.Neeraj Chopra
C.Kishore Jena
D.Rohit Yadav
Q 97 :
India became which numbered WTO member to accept the Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies (as per recent updates)?
A.120th
B.121st
C.123rd
D.125th
Q 98 :
Which organisation released the Global Tiger Recovery Report 2026?
A.UNEP
B.WWF
C.Global Tiger Forum
D.IUCN
Q 99 :
The RBI continues to promote which system specifically for small-value digital transactions?