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Latest MPSC Sub Register Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Awareness
Question Bank MPSC Sub Register Prelims Exam - English
General Awareness
Q 1 :
Which if the following is TRUE about the meaning of a bank?
A.It is a financial establishment
B.It acts like a financial intermediary
C.It accepts deposits from the public
D.It provides safe locker facility
E.All the above
Q 2 :
Which of the following is NOT true about the functioning of a bank ?
A.A bank should always add the word “bank” to its name.
B.They include general utility services and agency services.
C.A bank is a non-profit organization having service oriented approach.
D.A bank acts as a connecting link between borrowers and lenders of money.
E.A bank lends out money in the form of loans to those who require it for different purposes.
Q 3 :
Which of the following is NOT a banking service?
A.Issuance of debit and credit cards
B.Providing safe custody of valuable items
C.ATM services
D.Provision for higher interest rates to the accounts held by women
E.Online transfer of funds across the globe
Q 4 :
The definition of Banking is given in which of the following ACTs?
A.Negotiable Instrument Act 1881
B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act 1934
C.Banking Regulation Act 1949
D.Company Act 1956
E.None of the above
Q 5 :
Banks in India are regulated by :
A.The Reserve Bank of India Act,1934
B.The Banking regulation Act,1949
C.The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment and Misc. Provisions) Act, 1953
D.The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1980
E.None of the above
Q 6 :
Which of the following terms is used in Banking field ?
A.Zero Hour
B.Input devices
C.Privilege motion
D.Sedimentary
E.Invest rate swap
Q 7 :
A centralized database with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is known as?
A.Investment Banking
B.Core Banking
C.Mobile Banking
D.National Banking
E.Specialized Banking
Q 8 :
Which of the following is necessary while opening deposit account in banks ?
A.Will
B.Registration
C.Nomination
D.Indemnity
E.Guarantee
Q 9 :
Which of the following is not banking term?
A.Letter of credit
B.MIBOR
C.Factoring services
D.Entry load
E.None of the above
Q 10 :
Systematic investment plans relates to:
A.Mutual Funds
B.Life Insurance Companies
C.Commercial Banks
D.Post office saving schemes
E.None of the above
Q 11 :
Which is the following is / are third party products sold out by banks?
A.Mutual funds
B.Term deposits
C.Credit cards
D.All of these
E.None of the above
Q 12 :
The first bank the Bank of Hindustan was established in:
A.1780
B.1790
C.1770
D.1802
E.1814
Q 13 :
Which of the following NOT a Retail banking product ?
A.Checking account
B.Saving account
C.Money market account
D.Certificate of deposit (CD)
E.Mutual Fund
Q 14 :
Which of the following is Not a Business (or commercial / investment) banking product ?
A.Business loan
B.Capital raisig
C.Checking account
D.Project finance
E.Term loan
Q 15 :
The banker’s bank in any country called as:
A.Commercial bank
B.Central bank
C.EXIM bank
D.Scheduled Bank
E.Development bank
Q 16 :
Which of the following is the Central bank of India?
A.State Bank of India
B.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
C.Export-Import Bank of India
D.Reserve Bank of India
E.None of the above
Q 17 :
What is the Minimum balance required to be maintained for a saving account with cheque book facility?
A.Rs. 100
B.Rs. 400
C.Rs. 500
D.Rs.1000
E.Rs. 1500
Q 18 :
Which of the following represents Profit and Loss Account ?
A.Position of profit on a particular date
B.Position of profit for a given period
C.Position of loss for a given period
D.Both 2 and 3
E.None of the above
Q 19 :
Which among the following is /are ‘Term Deposit’?
A.Fixed Deposit
B.Current Deposit
C.Recurring Deposit
D.All of the above
E.None of the above
Q 20 :
The first bank of limited liability managed by Indians was :
A.The Commercial Bank of India
B.Allahabad Bank
C.Oudh Commercial Bank
D.Punjab National bank ltd
E.None of the above
Q 21 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 22 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 23 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 24 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 25 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 26 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 27 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 28 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 29 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 30 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 31 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 32 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 33 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 34 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 35 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 36 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 37 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 38 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 39 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 40 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 41 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 42 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 43 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 44 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A.having a constant phase difference
B.of equal wavelength
C.of equal speed
D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 45 :
Three resistors 1 รขโยฆ, 2 รขโยฆ, 3รขโยฆ resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 รขโยฆ resistor is -
A.0.75 A
B.1 A
C.2 A
D.1.5 A
Q 46 :
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
A.anywhere
B.emitter-collector
C.collector-base
D.base-emitter
Q 47 :
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
A.2 and 4
B.1 only
C.3 and 4
D.4 only
Q 48 :
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
A.S1,S2 and S4
B.S2 and S4
C.S4 only
D.S3 only
Q 49 :
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
A.low permeability and high hysterisis loss
B.high permeability and low hysterisis loss
C.high permeability and high hysterisis loss
D.low permeability and low hysterisis loss
Q 50 :
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
A.same in all the medium
B.lesser in rarer medium
C.lesser in denser medium
D.independent of the medium
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General Awareness
Q 51 :
For the constructive interference the path difference between the two interfering waves must be equal to
A.(2รฐยลโน + 1)λ
B.2nรฐยลโน
C.nλ
D.n
Q 52 :
The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained using
A.multimeter
B.voltmeter
C.voltameter
D.potentiometer
Q 53 :
A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms down to his sides. Which the following is true about his kinetic energy K and angular momentum L?
A.Both K and L increase
B.Both K and L remain unchanged
C.K remains constant, L increases
D.K increases but L remains constant
Q 54 :
Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate?
A.Gas constant (R)
B.Pressure (p)
C.Volume (V)
D.Temperature (T)
Q 55 :
An antenna uses electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 MHz . For proper working, the size of the antenna should be
A.300 m
B.3 km
C.15 m
D.15 km
Q 56 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 57 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 58 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 59 :
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A.28 mm
B.56 mm
C.70 mm
D.140 mm
Q 60 :
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A.1 M solution of glucose
B.0.05 M solution of glucose
C.6% solution of glucose
D.25% solution of glucose
Q 61 :
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
A.to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B.to minimise the snow fall
C.to minimise pollution
D.to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Q 62 :
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A.AB2
B.A2B
C.AB
D.AB3
Q 63 :
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A.decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B.decreases electron density at meta position
C.increases electron density at meta position
D.increases electron density at ortho and para position
Q 64 :
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
A.PCI5
B.PCI3
C.SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
D.dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Q 65 :
The carbon bond length in benzene is
A.in between C2H6 and C2H4
B.same as in C2H4
C.in between C2H6 and C2H2
D.in between C2H4 and C2H2
Q 66 :
The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium formate and calcium acetate is
A.methanal
B.propanal
C.propanone
D.ethanal
Q 67 :
An organic compound x is oxidised by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts with phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structured of X is
A.CH3CH2OH
B.CH3 – C – CH3
C.(CH3)2CHOH
D.CH3CHO
Q 68 :
Arrange the following in the increasing of their. Basic strengths CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)2N, NH3
A.NH3, < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
B.NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
C.(CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
D.CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N , NH3
Q 69 :
The one which has least iodine value is
A.sunflower oil
B.ginger oil
C.ghee
D.groundnut oil
Q 70 :
A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because
A.glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly
B.glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
C.glucose reduces the blood sugar level
D.glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously
Q 71 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 72 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 73 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Q 74 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A.fresh-water mussel
B.tortoise
C.frog
D.jelly fish
Q 75 :
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Q 76 :
Compare the statement A and B. Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy. Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
Q 77 :
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
A.B,C and D
B.A and D
C.B and D
D.A, B and C
Q 78 :
Compare the statements A and B. Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds. Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
Q 79 :
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
A.Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
B.Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
C.Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
D.Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
Q 80 :
Stoma opens, when
A.guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
B.guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
C.guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
D.guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
Q 81 :
Which of the following is properly matched ?
A.Platyhelminthes –Trematoda – Planoria
B.Echinodermate – Asteroidea – Star fish
C.arthropoda – Insecta – Spider
D.Mollusca – Cephalopoda – Unio
Q 82 :
A man is admitted to a hospital. He is suffering from an abnormally low body temperature, loss of appetite and extreme thirst. His brain scan would probably show a tumour in
A.medulla oblongata
B.pons
C.cerebellum
D.hypothalamus
Q 83 :
The agents, which are known to cause CJD are
A.protein particles
B.a class of bacteria
C.a class of viruses
D.fungi
Q 84 :
In crop improvement programmers, virus-free clones can be obtained through
A.grafting
B.hybridization
C.embryo culture
D.shoot apex culture
Q 85 :
A person is suffering from frequent episodes of nasal discharge, nasal congestion, reddening of eyes and watery eyes. These are the symptoms of
A.cyanosis
B.bronchitis
C.rhinitis
D.bronchial carcinoma
Q 86 :
In which state, the Department of Posts delivered mail using a drone for the first time ?
A.Kerala
B.Telangana
C.Gujarat
D.Odisha
Q 87 :
Bandhan Express and Maitree Express, which were seen in the news, run between India and which country ?
A.Nepal
B.Sri Lanka
C.Bangladesh
D.Myanmar
Q 88 :
What is the theme of the ‘United Nations Peace keepers 2022’ ?
A.People Peace Progress
B.Peace for All
C.Plant Peace Partnerships
D.Tribute to Peacekeepers
Q 89 :
As per the ‘Road Accidents in India – 2020’ report released recently, which state/UT recorded the highest accident severity in 2020 ?
A.Kerala
B.Mizoram
C.Assam
D.Himachal Pradesh
Q 90 :
Which is the second state to recognize Community Forest Resource (CFR) rights inside a National Park ?
A.Rajasthan
B.Chhattisgarh
C.Karnataka
D.Madhya Pradesh
Q 91 :
PARAM ANANTA, a state of the art Super computer was commissioned at ……….. on May 30,2022.
A.IIT Kanpur
B.IIT Madras
C.IIT Mumbai
D.IIT Gandhi nagar
Q 92 :
Veteran Journalist Padmanand Jha Passed away on 30 May 2022. He was one of the founding members of ………. Newspaper.
A.The Pioneer
B.Hindustan Times
C.The Hindu
D.The Indian Express
Q 93 :
Who has inaugurated the 3 day 39th Commanders’ Conference of the Indian Coast Guard (ICG) ?
A.Defence Minister Rajnath Singh
B.PM Narendra Modi
C.President Ram Nath Kovind
D.Home Minister Amit Shah
Q 94 :
What is the theme for 8th International Day of Yoga in 2022 ?
A.Yoga for Healthy Body
B.Yoga and World
C.Yoga for Humans
D.Yoga for Humanity
Q 95 :
When does Goa Celebrated its state hood day ?
A.15 March
B.28 May
C.30 May
D.30 April
Q 96 :
The Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) has been extended till which year ?
A.2023-24
B.2024-25
C.2025-26
D.2029-30
Q 97 :
Name the Indian Navy Ships (INS) Western Fleet’s oldest warrior, it was decommissioned after 34 years in Mumbai, Maharashtra .
A.INS Rajput
B.INS Khukri
C.INS Viraat
D.INS Gomati
Q 98 :
Which Institution released the report titled ‘Tobacco: Poisoning Our Planet’ ?
A.NITI Aayog
B.World Health Organization
C.UNICEF
D.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Q 99 :
Which state is the top sugar producer of India in 2021-22 ?
A.Madhya Pradesh
B.Maharashtra
C.Gujarat
D.Karnataka
Q 100 :
Which country has recently signed a free trade agreement (FTA) with the United Arab Emirates ?