Question Bank
MSCWB Sub Assistant Engineer Exam (Civil Engineering) - English
Duration: 120 Β· Questions: 100 Β· Max Marks: 100 Β· Language: 3
Civil
1
A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
2
A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
3
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
4
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
5
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant :
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
Which of the above statements are correct?
6
A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?
7
Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct?
8
Quick sand condition occurs when
9
The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is theΓΒ corresponding error in the computed area of the land.
10
Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct?
11
Consider the following statements as regards a Septic TankΓΒ
1. The size required is large and uneconomical when serving more than roughly 100 persons.
2. It can remove around 90% of BOD and 80% of suspended solids.
3. As compared to the sludge holdings of a plain sedimentation tank, a septic tank can hold about 90% less of sludge volume.
4. Frequent removal of sludge is not required Which of the above statements are correct?ΓΒ
1. The size required is large and uneconomical when serving more than roughly 100 persons.
2. It can remove around 90% of BOD and 80% of suspended solids.
3. As compared to the sludge holdings of a plain sedimentation tank, a septic tank can hold about 90% less of sludge volume.
4. Frequent removal of sludge is not required Which of the above statements are correct?ΓΒ
12
Sewage sickness relates to
13
The waste water of a certain large colony contains 10–5.6 mmol of OH– ions at 25ºC. The pH of this sample is
14
Consider the relevance of the following features for causing photochemical smog:
1. Air stagnation
2. Abundant sunlight
3. High concentration of NOx in atmosphere.
4. High concentration of SO2 in atmosphere. Which of the above features are correct?
1. Air stagnation
2. Abundant sunlight
3. High concentration of NOx in atmosphere.
4. High concentration of SO2 in atmosphere. Which of the above features are correct?
15
Consider the following statements related to ecology:
1. All the physical, chemical and biological factors that a species needs in order to live and reproduce is called ecological niche.
2. The boundary zone between two ecosystems is known as ecotone.
3. The forests in the Arctics are known as tundra.
4. A biome usually has a distinct climate and life forms adapted to that climate. Biome is more extensive and complex than an ecosystem Which of the above statements are correct?
1. All the physical, chemical and biological factors that a species needs in order to live and reproduce is called ecological niche.
2. The boundary zone between two ecosystems is known as ecotone.
3. The forests in the Arctics are known as tundra.
4. A biome usually has a distinct climate and life forms adapted to that climate. Biome is more extensive and complex than an ecosystem Which of the above statements are correct?
16
Consider the following laws of ecology suggested by Barry Commoner:
1. Everything is connected to everything else.
2. Everything must go somewhere.
3. Nature knows best.
4. There is no such thing as a free lunch.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. Everything is connected to everything else.
2. Everything must go somewhere.
3. Nature knows best.
4. There is no such thing as a free lunch.
Which of the above statements are correct?
17
For a hydraulically efficient rectangular channel of bed width 5m, the hydraulic radius is
18
A soil sample has shrinkage limit of 6%, and the specific gravity of the soil grains is 2.6. The porosity of soil at shrinkage limit is
19
Local mean time of a place of longitude of 42036’ W is 8h 42m 15s AM. The corresponding Green which Mean Time is
20
A vertical photograph of a flat area having an average elevation of 250m above mean sea level was taken with a camera of focal length 25 cm. A section line AB 300 m long in the area measures 15cm on the photograph; a tower BP in the area also appears on the photograph. The distance between images of top and bottom of the tower measures 0.5 cm on the photograph. The distance of the image of the top of the tower is 10 cm. The actual height of the tower is
21
A transportation trip survey was undertaken between private car, and public car transportation. The proportion of those using private cars is 0.45. While using the public transport, the further choices available are Metro Rail and Mono Rail, out of which commuting by a Mono Rail has a proportion of 0.55. In such a situation, the choice of interest in using a Metro Rail, Mono Rail and private car would be respectively.
22
An airfoil of surface area 0.1 m2 is tested for lift L in a wind tunnel. (Conditions can be considered as incompressible flow.) At an angle of attack of 5°, with standard air density 1.22 kg/m3, at a speed of 30m/sec, the lift is measured to be 3.2 kgf. What is the lift coefficient? For a prototype wing of area 10 m2, what is the approximate lift at an air speed of 160 kmph at the same angle of attack of 5°?
23
Two tanks A and B, of constant cross-sectional areas of 10 m2 and 2.5 m2, respectively, are connected by a 5cm pipe, 100 m long, with f = 0.03. If the initial difference of water levels is 3m, how long will it take for 2.5 m3 of water to flow from A to B? Considering entry and exit losses, it can be grossly assumed that the flow velocity, in m/s, through the pipe is 1.75 h, where h is in m, taking g = 10 m/sec2; also, may take area of pipe as 2 × 10–3 m2.
24
The consistency and flow resistance of a sample of bitumen can be determined through which of the following tests?
25
A pipe of 324 mm diameter, having friction coefficient as 0.04, connects two reservoirs with 15 m difference in their water levels through a 1500 m long pipe. What will be the discharge through the pipe?
26
Flexible concrete is a mix comprising of
27
Consider a soil sample, for which tests yield the following results:
Passing 75 micron sieve 62%
Liquid limit 35%
Plasticity Index 14%
As per the group index classification of soil, what is the soil condition of the above soil sample?
Passing 75 micron sieve 62%
Liquid limit 35%
Plasticity Index 14%
As per the group index classification of soil, what is the soil condition of the above soil sample?
28
Consider the following statements regarding ductility of bitumen:
1. Ductility is the property which does not permit bitumen to undergo large deformation without breaking.
2. Bitumens with high ductility are generally adhesive but do not have good cementing properties.
3. Ductility must be ascertained at two different temperatures in order to pronounce on the suitability of the material.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. Ductility is the property which does not permit bitumen to undergo large deformation without breaking.
2. Bitumens with high ductility are generally adhesive but do not have good cementing properties.
3. Ductility must be ascertained at two different temperatures in order to pronounce on the suitability of the material.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
29
What is the critical thickness of a prestressed concrete pavement (using Westergaard’s Corner Load Formula) to support a maximum wheel load of 4200 kg? Allow 10% for impact. Tyre pressure may be taken as 7 kg/cm2. Assume flexural strength of concrete as 50 kg/cm2, factor of safety as 2, subgrade reaction for plastic mix road as 6 kg/cm3, and modulus of elasticity as 3 × 105 kg/cm2.
30
At a hydraulic jump, the flow depths are 0.4 m and 5 m at the upstream and downstream, respectively. The channel is wide rectangular. The discharge per unit width is nearly
31
Overspeed and delay studies on a preselected section of a Highway are conducted by
32
The surface tension of water at 20°C is 75 × 10–3 N/m. The difference in water surface within and outside an open-ended capillary tube of 1mm internal bore, inserted at the water surface, would nearly, be
33
Survey of India was publishing toposheets using a scale of
34
The maximum speed of a train on B.G. track having a curvature of 3° and cant of 10 cm with allowable cant deficiency of 76 mm, for conditions obtaining in India, is
35
The gradient for a B.G railway line such that the grade resistance together with curve resistance due a 4° curve which will be equivalent to a simple ruling gradient of 1 in 150 is
36
A pelton wheel works under a head of 400m. Friction loss through the pipe flow is limited to 10%. The coefficient of velocity for the jet is 0.98. What is the velocity of the jet?
Take g = 10 m/s2.
Take g = 10 m/s2.
37
The value of porosity of a soil sample in which the total volume of soil grains is equal to twice the total volume of voids would be
38
A solid cylinder of length H, diameter D and of relative density S floats in neutral equilibrium in water with its axis vertical. What is the ratio of H to D if S = 0.6?
39
In a two-dimensional flow, with its stream function 
= 2xy, the velocity at a point (3,4) is
= 2xy, the velocity at a point (3,4) is40
An open rectangular tank of dimensions 4m×3m×2m contains water to a height of 1.6m. It is then accelerated along the longer side. What is the maximum acceleration possible without spilling the water? If this acceleration is then increased by 10%, what amount of water will be spilt off?
41
While conducting the flow measurement using a triangular notch, an error of +2% in head over the notch is observed. The percentage error in the computed discharge would be
42
An orifice is located in the side of a tank with its centre 10 cm above the base of the tank. The constant water level is 1.0 m above the centre of orifice. The coefficient of velocity is 0.98. On the issuing jet, the horizontal distance from the vena-contracta to where the jet is 10 cm below vena-contracta is
43
The velocity of water at the outer edge of a 60cm diameter whirlpool, where the water level is horizontal is 2.5 m/s. The velocity of water at a level where the diameter of the whirlpool is 15 cm, is
44
In a trapezoidal channel with bed width of 2m, and side slopes of 2V on 1H, critical flow occurs at a depth of 1m. What will be the quantity of flow and the flow velocity?
Take g as 10m/s2.
Take g as 10m/s2.
45
A 7.5 m wide rectangular channel conveys 12 m3/s of water with a velocity of 1.5 m/s. The specific energy head of the flow is
46
The sequent depth ratio in a hydraulic jump formed in a rectangular horizontal channel is 10. The Froude number of the supercritical flow is
47
A partially open sluice gate discharges water at 6 m/s with a depth of 40 cm in a rectangular horizontal channel of width 5 m. What would be the post-jump depth of flow on the downstream of the gate by taking g as 10 m/s2?
48
What is the maximum power available at the downstream end of a pipeline 3 km long, 20 cm in diameter, if water enters at the upstream end at a pressure of 720 m of water, with the taking pipe friction coefficient as 0.03 and g as 10m/s2?
49
In the design of pipeline the usual practice is to assume that due to aging of pipelines:
1. The effective roughness increases linearly with time
2. The friction factor increases linearly with time 3. The flow through the pipe becomes linearly lesser with time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. The effective roughness increases linearly with time
2. The friction factor increases linearly with time 3. The flow through the pipe becomes linearly lesser with time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
50
Consider the following statements:
1. In flow through hydro-dynamically smooth pipes, the friction factor f is always a constant. In flow through hydro-dynamically smooth pipes, the friction factor f is always a function of the flow Reynolds number.
3. In a fully developed rough turbulent pipe flow, the friction factor f is a function of relative roughness only.
4. In a fully developed rough turbulent pipe flow, the friction factor f is a function of the flow Reynolds number and relative roughness.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. In flow through hydro-dynamically smooth pipes, the friction factor f is always a constant. In flow through hydro-dynamically smooth pipes, the friction factor f is always a function of the flow Reynolds number.
3. In a fully developed rough turbulent pipe flow, the friction factor f is a function of relative roughness only.
4. In a fully developed rough turbulent pipe flow, the friction factor f is a function of the flow Reynolds number and relative roughness.
Which of the above statements are correct?
51
Two identical centrifugal pumps are connected in parallel to a common delivery pipe of a system. The pump curve of each of the pumps is represented by H = 20 – 60Q2 where H is manometric head of the pump and Q is the discharge of the pump. The head loss equation when two such fully-similar pumps jointly deliver the same discharge Q will be
52
At the point of operation with maximum efficiency, a turbine indicated unit power of 12 units and unit speed of 98 units and operates with 3300 kgf/s of flow. What are the speed in rpm and the specific speed of the machine respectively when its design head is 8.5m?
53
A hydraulic turbine develops 8000 kW when running at 300 rpm under a head of 45 m. the speed of the same turbine under a head of 60m is
54
Consider the following statements:
1. In an Impulse turbine, the pressure of the, flowing water remains unchanged and is equal to atmospheric pressure.
2. In Impulse turbines, the water impinges on the buckets with ‘pressure energy’.
3. In a Reaction turbine, the pressure of the, flowing water remains unchanged and is equal to atmospheric pressure.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. In an Impulse turbine, the pressure of the, flowing water remains unchanged and is equal to atmospheric pressure.
2. In Impulse turbines, the water impinges on the buckets with ‘pressure energy’.
3. In a Reaction turbine, the pressure of the, flowing water remains unchanged and is equal to atmospheric pressure.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
55
A Pelton wheel with single jet rotates at 600 rmp. The velocity of the jet from the nozzle is 100 m/s. If the ratio of the bucket velocity of jet velocity is 0.44 and the speed ratio is 0.43, what is the coefficient of velocity of the nozzle?
56
In a single-acting reciprocating pump, the acceleration head at the beginning of the suction stroke is 3.5m. If the pump is 1.5m below the water level in the supply reservoir, the pressure head at the cylinder reservoir, the pressure head at the cylinder at that instant, considering the atmospheric pressure as 10.0m is
57
A tank is 1.8m deep and square length of 4.5m at the top and square length of 3m at the bottom. The four sides are plane and each has the same trapezoidal shape. The tank is completely full of oil weighing 936kg/m3. What is the resultant pressure on each side?
58
Over a basin of area 333 km2, there was a storm for 6 h with a uniform intensity of 2 cm/ h. The observed runoff was 20×106 m3. the average rate of infiltration for the basin was
59
International Traffic Intelligent Survey Data are related with
60
A peak flow of a flood hydrograph due to a six-hour storm is 470m3/s. The corresponding average depth of rainfall is 8 cm. Assume an infiltration loss of 0.25 cm/hour and a constant base flow of 15m3/s. What is the peak discharge of 6 hour unit hydrograph for this catchment?
61
A new reservoir has a capacity of 12 Mm3 and its catchment area is 400 km2. The annual sediment yield from this catchment is 0.1 ha. m/ km2 and the trap efficiency can be assumed constant at 90%. The number of years it takes for the reservoir to lose 50% of its initial capacity is, nearly
62
Cavitation is likely to occur if
1. Pressure becomes very high
2. Temperature becomes low
3. Pressure at the specific points falls below vapour pressure
4. Energy is released with the onset of a high intensity wave due to noise and vibration of the machine.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. Pressure becomes very high
2. Temperature becomes low
3. Pressure at the specific points falls below vapour pressure
4. Energy is released with the onset of a high intensity wave due to noise and vibration of the machine.
Which of the above statements are correct?
63
Which of the following statements are correct as regards aquifer characteristics?
1. The storage coefficient is the volume of water released from storage from the entire aquifer due to unit depression of peizometric head.
2. The storage coefficient is the same as the specific yield for water table aquifer.
3. Both the aquifer constants, viz. storage coefficient S and Transmissivity T are dimensionless numbers.
1. The storage coefficient is the volume of water released from storage from the entire aquifer due to unit depression of peizometric head.
2. The storage coefficient is the same as the specific yield for water table aquifer.
3. Both the aquifer constants, viz. storage coefficient S and Transmissivity T are dimensionless numbers.
64
The conditions to be satisfied for a channel in ‘Regime’ as per Lacey are
1. Constant discharge
2. Silt grade and silt concentration are constant 3. The channel is flowing in unlimited incoherent alluvium of the same alluvial character as that transported.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. Constant discharge
2. Silt grade and silt concentration are constant 3. The channel is flowing in unlimited incoherent alluvium of the same alluvial character as that transported.
Which of the above statements are correct?
65
Consider the following statements related to uplift pressure in gravity dams:
1. A drainage gallery reduces the uplift pressure at all levels below the gallery.
2. A drainage gallery below upstream water level reduces the uplift pressure at all levels below the upstream water level.
3. A grout curtain near the heel reduces seepage and uplift pressure everywhere on the gravity dam whatever the upstream water level. Which of the above statements are correct?
1. A drainage gallery reduces the uplift pressure at all levels below the gallery.
2. A drainage gallery below upstream water level reduces the uplift pressure at all levels below the upstream water level.
3. A grout curtain near the heel reduces seepage and uplift pressure everywhere on the gravity dam whatever the upstream water level. Which of the above statements are correct?
66
A 20 m long horizontal concrete floor under a barrage on a permeable foundation retains a 5m head of water and has a 5 m deep downstream end pile. The exit gradient is
67
Electrical conductivity (EC) of water and total dissolved solids (TDS) are relatable as:
The value of EC will
The value of EC will
68
Consider the following properties of fluorine:
1. It is a member of the halogen family
2. It is a greenish yellow diatomic gas
3. Chlorine, iodine, bromine and Helium are members of the halogen family.
4. Even fireproof of asbestos burns in the ambience of fluorine.
Which of the above are correct?
1. It is a member of the halogen family
2. It is a greenish yellow diatomic gas
3. Chlorine, iodine, bromine and Helium are members of the halogen family.
4. Even fireproof of asbestos burns in the ambience of fluorine.
Which of the above are correct?
69
The following are certain operating problems of a rapid sand filter:
1. Sand depth should never be depleted by more than 10 cm.
2. Air binding results due to development of negative head and formation of air bubbles in the filter sand.
3. Water softening with lime-soda leads to incrustation of sand.
4. Bumping of filter bed is caused due to negative head.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. Sand depth should never be depleted by more than 10 cm.
2. Air binding results due to development of negative head and formation of air bubbles in the filter sand.
3. Water softening with lime-soda leads to incrustation of sand.
4. Bumping of filter bed is caused due to negative head.
Which of the above statements are correct?
70
Consider the following characteristics of E.Coli bacteria:
1. Gram negative
2. Spore-forming
3. Facultative anaerobic
4. Bacillus
Which of the above are correct?:
1. Gram negative
2. Spore-forming
3. Facultative anaerobic
4. Bacillus
Which of the above are correct?:
71
How much bleaching powder is needed to chlorinate 5000l of water whose chlorine demand is 2 mg/l, assuming that the bleaching powder has 25% available chlorine?
72
Which technique of stabilization for the sub-base is preferred for a heavy plastic soil?
73
A fill having volume of 150000 m3 is to be constructed at a void ratio of 0.8. The borrow pit solid has a void ratio of 1.4. The volume of soil required to be excavated from the borrow pit will be
74
Consider the following assumptions as regards field permeability test:
1. The flow is laminar and Darcy’s law is valid.
2. The flow is horizontal and uniform at all the points in the vertical section.
3. The velocity of flow is proportional to the ‘tangent magnitude’ of the hydraulic gradient.
Which of the above assumptions are correct?
1. The flow is laminar and Darcy’s law is valid.
2. The flow is horizontal and uniform at all the points in the vertical section.
3. The velocity of flow is proportional to the ‘tangent magnitude’ of the hydraulic gradient.
Which of the above assumptions are correct?
75
In a three-layered soil system, the thicknesses of the top and bottom layers each are half the thickness of the middle layer. The coefficients of permeability of the top and bottom layers each are double the coefficient of permeability k of the middle layer. When horizontal flow occurs, the equivalent coefficient of permeability of the system will be
76
A uniform collapsible sand stratum, 2.5 m thick, has specific gravity of its sand as 2.65, with a natural void ratio of 0.65. The hydraulic head required to cause quick collapsible sand condition is
77
The ratio of dry unit weight to unit weight of water represents
78
Proctor’s compaction test for the maximum dry density of a certain soil gave the results as: 1.77 gm/cc and OMC 14.44%. The specific gravity of the clay soil grain was 2.66. What was the saturation degree for this soil?
79
What is Highway Engineering ?
80
In a certain sea shore, the height of a retaining wall with smooth vertical back is 4.4 m. The foundation is over an expansive collapsible soil and has horizontal surface at the level of the top of the wall and carries a udl of 197 kPa. The unit weight and angle of internal friction are 19 kN/m3 and 30°, respectively. What is the nearest magnitude of the total active pressure per metre length of this sea shore wall?
81
Which of the following statements are rightly associated with the laws of weights in the theory of errors?
1. If an equation is multiplied by its own weight, then the weight of the resulting equation is equal to the reciprocal of the weight of the original equation.
2. The weight of the algebraic sum of two or more quantities is equal to the reciprocal of the sum of the individual weights.
3. If the quantity of a given weight is multiplied with a factor, then the weight of the resulting quantity is obtained by dividing the original weight by the square root of that factor.
4. If the quantity of a given weight is divided by a factor, then the weight of the resulting quantity is obtained by multiplying the original weight by the square of that factor.
1. If an equation is multiplied by its own weight, then the weight of the resulting equation is equal to the reciprocal of the weight of the original equation.
2. The weight of the algebraic sum of two or more quantities is equal to the reciprocal of the sum of the individual weights.
3. If the quantity of a given weight is multiplied with a factor, then the weight of the resulting quantity is obtained by dividing the original weight by the square root of that factor.
4. If the quantity of a given weight is divided by a factor, then the weight of the resulting quantity is obtained by multiplying the original weight by the square of that factor.
82
The magnetic bearing of a line (on full-circle mensuration basis) is 55° 30’ East. The true magnetic bearing of the line will be.
83
In any closed traverse, if the survey work is error free, then
1. The algebraic sum of all the latitudes should be equal to zero.
2. The algebraic sum of all the departures should be equal to zero.
3. The sum of the northings should be equal to the sum of the southings.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. The algebraic sum of all the latitudes should be equal to zero.
2. The algebraic sum of all the departures should be equal to zero.
3. The sum of the northings should be equal to the sum of the southings.
Which of the above statements are correct?
84
The rise and fall method for obtaining the reduced levels of points provides a check on
1. Foresight
2. Backsight
3. Intermediate sight
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. Foresight
2. Backsight
3. Intermediate sight
Which of the above statements are correct?
85
Turning of the theodolite telescope in vertical plane by 180° about the horizontal axis is known as
86
Which of the following are among the fundamental lines of a theodolite?
1. The vertical and horizontal axes
2. The lines of collimation and axis of the plate levels.
3. The bubble line of the altitude level
1. The vertical and horizontal axes
2. The lines of collimation and axis of the plate levels.
3. The bubble line of the altitude level
87
The velocity distribution in the boundary layer is given by 
where u is the velocity at adistance of y from the boundary and = U at y = Γ°ΒβΊΒΏ, being boundary layer thickness. Then the value of momentum thickness will be
where u is the velocity at adistance of y from the boundary and = U at y = Γ°ΒβΊΒΏ, being boundary layer thickness. Then the value of momentum thickness will be- A.
2 - B.
4 - C.
6 - D.
8
88
The standard plasticity chart by Casagrande to classify fine-grained soils is shown in the figure.
The area marked P represents.
The area marked P represents.
89
A collapsible soil sub-grade sample was tested using Standard California Bearing Ratio apparatus; and the observations are given below
Taking the standard assumption regarding the load penetration curve, CBR value of the sample will be taken as
| Sl.No. | Load | Penetration |
| 1. 2. |
60.55 kg 80.55 kg |
2.5 mm 5.0 mm |
90
A fluid flow is described by a velocity field 
. What is the absolute velocity (in magnitude) at the point (2,2,1)?
. What is the absolute velocity (in magnitude) at the point (2,2,1)?91
A line source of strength 15 m s is situated within a uniform stream flowing at –12 m/s (i.e., right to left). At a distance of 0.6m downstream from the source is an equal sink. How far will the stagnation points be from the nearest source/ sink?
92
A solid cylinder of circular section of diameter d is of material with specific gravity Ss. This floats in a liquid of specific gravity Sl. What is the maximum length of the cylinder if equilibrium is to be stable with the cylinder axis vertical?
93
The important parameters describing the performance of a hydraulic machine are P the power input, H the head produced across the machine and the efficiency,n. For a given geometrical design of the machine, the performance is characterized by the variables: H - the head increase across the machine, p- the fluid density, Γ°ΒΕβ- the angular velocity of the rotor, D - the diameter of the rotor, µ- the fluid viscosity and Q - the flow rate; and both P and n are expressed thorugh these variables. How many non-dimensional parameters are involved herein? Gravitational acceleration g has also to be considered necessarily?
94
What are the values of coefficients a and c if velocity distribution in a laminar boundary layer on a flat is:
Where,
Where,
95
The Engineering News Record Formula, 
is used for the case of
1. Drop hammer
2. Single acting hammer
3. Double acting hammer
Which of the above is/are correct?
is used for the case of1. Drop hammer
2. Single acting hammer
3. Double acting hammer
Which of the above is/are correct?
96
The virgin compression curve with axes adopted as per convention in this regard for a clay soil is shown in the figure. The compression index of the soil is
97
Hypotenusal allowance is given by the expression (adopting standard conventions)
98
The magnetic bearing of a line (on full-circle mensuration basis) is 55° 30’ East. The true magnetic bearing of the line will be.
99
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?
100
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?