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Latest MSRLM Block Manager Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, General Knowledge, General English
Question Bank MSRLM Block Manager Exam - English
Reasoning
Q 1 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 2 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 3 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 4 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 5 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 6 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 7 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 8 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 9 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 10 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 11 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 12 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 13 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 14 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 15 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 16 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 17 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 18 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 19 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 20 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 21 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 22 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 23 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 24 :
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A.P
B.Q
C.B
D.K
E.None of these
Q 25 :
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A.None
B.One
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than Four
Q 26 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 27 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 28 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 29 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 30 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 31 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 32 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 33 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 34 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 35 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 36 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 37 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 38 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 39 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 40 :
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A.HID
B.SON
C.Both LAP and BUT
D.CAR
E.Both CAR and LAP
Q 41 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A.LAP
B.BUT
C.CAR
D.SON
E.HID
Q 42 :
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 43 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 44 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 45 :
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word), how many words will remain unchanged?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Q 46 :
According to the English alphabetical series how many letters are there between the first letter of the third word and the first letter of the fifth word?
A.Two
B.One
C.None
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 47 :
If the first letter of all the words is changed to the previous letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will have more than one vowel?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Q 48 :
If all the vowels (in all the words) are changed to the next letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will form meaningful English words?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Q 49 :
If the positions of the first and last letters of all of the words are interchanged and then the words thus formed are arranged alphabetically form left to right, which of the following will be second from the left?
A.SAT
B.DEN
C.ROD
D.PIN
E.FUN
Q 50 :
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged in alphabetical order (within the word) how many words will remain unchanged?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three
E.None
Important Questions Package
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Quantitative Aptitude
Q 51 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 52 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 53 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 54 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 55 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 56 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 57 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 58 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 59 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 60 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 61 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 62 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 63 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 64 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 65 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 66 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 67 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 68 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 69 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 70 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 71 :
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A.20
B.24
C.22
D.26
Q 72 :
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A.3/4
B.2/3
C.4/5
D.5/8
Q 73 :
Which is greater ?
A.11/13
B.12/15
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 74 :
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A.0
B.1
C.Same
D.Prime
Q 75 :
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A.
10
B.100
C.1000
D.10000
Q 76 :
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A.1
B.10
C.Infinite
D.None
Q 77 :
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A.12345
B.1331
C.1234
D.1213
Q 78 :
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A.1
B.3
C.7
D.9
Q 79 :
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A.4
B.8
C.16
D.32
Q 80 :
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.6
Q 81 :
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A.318
B.198
C.213
D.206
Q 82 :
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A.558
B.718
C.628
D.None of these
Q 83 :
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A.20%
B.25%
C.30%
D.40%
Q 84 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A.19%
B.31%
C.44%
D.None of these
Q 85 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A.38%
B.48%
C.51%
D.None of these
Q 86 :
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
A.4%
B.3%
C.1%
D.None of these
Q 87 :
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A รกยดโ (A รกยดโ B) equal to ?
A.Complement of A
B.Complement of B
C.B
D.A
Q 88 :
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
A.10%
B.15%
C.20%
D.25%
Q 89 :
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
A.25%
B.100%
C.75%
D.0%
Q 90 :
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
A.15
B.25
C.40
D.75
Q 91 :
The percentage passengers who like at least 2 of the coffee, tea and lassi, is
A.30
B.45
C.50
D.60
Q 92 :
If the number of passengers is 180, then the number of passengers who like lassi only, is
A.10
B.18
C.27
D.36
Q 93 :
In a town three newspapers A, B and C are published. 42% of the people in that town read A, 68% read B, 51% read C, 30% read A and B, 28% read B and C, 36% A and C and 18% do not read any paper. Find the % of the population of town that reads all the three.
A.15%
B.25%
C.20%
D.35%
Q 94 :
What is the ratio of the length of PQ to that of QO?
A.1 : 4
B.1 : 3
C.3 : 8
D.3 : 4
Q 95 :
The committee should consist of 2 Males, 2 Females and 1 child ?
A.450
B.225
C.55
D.90
Q 96 :
The committee should include all the 3 Childs?
A.90
B.180
C.21
D.55
Q 97 :
In how many different ways can 4 boys and 3 girls be arranged in a row such that all the boys stand together and all the girls stand together ?
A.75
B.576
C.288
D.24
Q 98 :
If four marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that two are blue and two are red ?
Q 99 :
If eight marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that there are equal number of marbles of each other ?
Q 100 :
If two marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that both are red or at least one is red ?
E.None of these
General Knowledge
Q 101 :
Which if the following is TRUE about the meaning of a bank?
A.It is a financial establishment
B.It acts like a financial intermediary
C.It accepts deposits from the public
D.It provides safe locker facility
E.All the above
Q 102 :
Which of the following is NOT true about the functioning of a bank ?
A.A bank should always add the word “bank” to its name.
B.They include general utility services and agency services.
C.A bank is a non-profit organization having service oriented approach.
D.A bank acts as a connecting link between borrowers and lenders of money.
E.A bank lends out money in the form of loans to those who require it for different purposes.
Q 103 :
Which of the following is NOT a banking service?
A.Issuance of debit and credit cards
B.Providing safe custody of valuable items
C.ATM services
D.Provision for higher interest rates to the accounts held by women
E.Online transfer of funds across the globe
Q 104 :
The definition of Banking is given in which of the following ACTs?
A.Negotiable Instrument Act 1881
B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act 1934
C.Banking Regulation Act 1949
D.Company Act 1956
E.None of the above
Q 105 :
Banks in India are regulated by :
A.The Reserve Bank of India Act,1934
B.The Banking regulation Act,1949
C.The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment and Misc. Provisions) Act, 1953
D.The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1980
E.None of the above
Q 106 :
Which of the following terms is used in Banking field ?
A.Zero Hour
B.Input devices
C.Privilege motion
D.Sedimentary
E.Invest rate swap
Q 107 :
A centralized database with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is known as?
A.Investment Banking
B.Core Banking
C.Mobile Banking
D.National Banking
E.Specialized Banking
Q 108 :
Which of the following is necessary while opening deposit account in banks ?
A.Will
B.Registration
C.Nomination
D.Indemnity
E.Guarantee
Q 109 :
Which of the following is not banking term?
A.Letter of credit
B.MIBOR
C.Factoring services
D.Entry load
E.None of the above
Q 110 :
Systematic investment plans relates to:
A.Mutual Funds
B.Life Insurance Companies
C.Commercial Banks
D.Post office saving schemes
E.None of the above
Q 111 :
Which is the following is / are third party products sold out by banks?
A.Mutual funds
B.Term deposits
C.Credit cards
D.All of these
E.None of the above
Q 112 :
The first bank the Bank of Hindustan was established in:
A.1780
B.1790
C.1770
D.1802
E.1814
Q 113 :
Which of the following NOT a Retail banking product ?
A.Checking account
B.Saving account
C.Money market account
D.Certificate of deposit (CD)
E.Mutual Fund
Q 114 :
Which of the following is Not a Business (or commercial / investment) banking product ?
A.Business loan
B.Capital raisig
C.Checking account
D.Project finance
E.Term loan
Q 115 :
The banker’s bank in any country called as:
A.Commercial bank
B.Central bank
C.EXIM bank
D.Scheduled Bank
E.Development bank
Q 116 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 117 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 118 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 119 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 120 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 121 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 122 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 123 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 124 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 125 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 126 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 127 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 128 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 129 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 130 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 131 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 132 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 133 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 134 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 135 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 136 :
Who has sworn in as the new Chief Minister of Maharashtra, after the resignation of Uddhav Thakarey ?
A.Devendra Fadnavis
B.Eknath Shinde
C.Sunil Prabhu
D.Sharad Pawar
Q 137 :
PSLV Orbital Experimental Module (POEM) is associated with which organization ?
A.DRDO
B.ISRO
C.HAL
D.BHEL
Q 138 :
Which is the only institution in India to issue ‘Electoral Bonds’?
A.RBI
B.SBI
C.NITI Aayog
D.CBDT
Q 139 :
The Union Cabinet approved the categorization of which institution as an ‘International Organization’, in July 2022 ?
A.International Solar Alliance
B.BIMSTEC
C.Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure
D.One Sun One World One Grid
Q 140 :
Which Indian organization carried out the maiden flight test of Autonomous flying wing technology demonstrator ?
A.DRDO
B.NSIL
C.Dhruva Airspace
D.Pixxel Space
Q 141 :
CAPSTONE, which was seen in the news recently, is a satellite launched by which space agency ?
A.NASA
B.ESA
C.SpaceX
D.Rocosmos
Q 142 :
In the PSLV-C53 mission, ISRO launched three satellites of which country ?
A.Nepal
B.Bangladesh
C.Singapore
D.New Zealand
Q 143 :
What is the budgetary outlay of 'Computerisation of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS)' ?
A.Rs 216 Crore
B.Rs 2516 Crore
C.Rs 750 Crore
D.Rs 7216 Crore
Q 144 :
Which is the venue of the 11th World Urban Forum held in 2022 ?
A.Spain
B.Poland
C.Australia
D.France
Q 145 :
2022 Resilient Democracies Statement is associated with which global association ?
A.G-20
B.BRICS
C.G-7
D.ASEAN
Q 146 :
Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate Digital India Week 2022 in which state in July 2022 ?
A.Gujarat
B.Haryana
C.Punjab
D.Rajasthan
Q 147 :
India and the European Union concluded the first round of negotiations for India-EU Trade and Investment Agreements ……. In July 2022.
A.Chennai
B.New Delhi
C.Hyderabad
D.Pune
Q 148 :
Which of the following released the Web Publication ‘Deposits with Scheduled Commercial Banks – March 2022’ on its Database on Indian Economy (DBIE) Portal in June 2022 ?
A.RBI
B.NITI Aayog
C.NASSCOM
D.ASSOCHAM
Q 149 :
In June 2022, the International Weightlifting Federation (IWF) has elected whom as the President ?
A.T Raja Kumar
B.P Udayakumar
C.Venkat Nageswar Chalasani
D.Mohammed Jaloud
Q 150 :
Union Home Ministry has amended the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act in July 2022. The amended rule now allows relatives to send ……. Lakh rupees without informing the government.
A.5
B.8
C.10
D.12
General English
Q 151 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 152 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 153 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 154 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 155 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 156 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 157 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 158 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 159 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 160 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 161 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 162 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 163 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 164 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold
Q 165 :
Assets
A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits
Q 166 :
Affidavit
A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony
Q 167 :
Hollow
A.Alveolate
B.Cleft
C. Cavernous
D.Solid
Q 168 :
Cosset
A.Ignoreb
B.Close
C.Caress
D.Fondle
Q 169 :
Ogle
A.Leer
B.Gaze
C.Ignore
D.Gawk
Q 170 :
Intrinsic
A.Elemental
B.Innate
C.Connate
D.Acquired
Q 171 :
Coalesce
A.Separate
B.Adhere
C.Cleave
D.Amalgamate
Q 172 :
Loiter
A.lag
B.Hasten
C.Amble
D.Loii
Q 173 :
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A.held, generating
B.aimed, creating
C.targeted, awakening
D.focused, building
E.concentrated, producing
Q 174 :
Deep-seated
A.Chronic
B.Temporary
C.inbred
D.Subconscious
Q 175 :
Vibrant
A.Drab
B.Gaudy
C.Jazzy
D.Vivid
Q 176 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 177 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 178 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 179 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 180 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 181 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 182 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 183 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 184 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 185 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 186 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 187 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 188 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 189 :
To sleep with the fishes
A.Always be in a dream world
B.To make absurd excuses
C.To sleep peacefully
D.To be dead
Q 190 :
To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.
A.To exterminate
B.To expurgate
C.To intricate
D.To extricate
Q 191 :
Liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together
A.Irascible
B.Crucible
C.Miscible
D.Risible
Q 192 :
Shooting fish in a barrel
A.To do random acts of stupidity
B.To behave in a cruel manner
C.Ridiculously easy
D.To escape through a narrow opening
Q 193 :
What does the phrase ‘knew no bounds’ mean ?
A.was bounded by
B.was limitless
C.was limited
D.was bound to
Q 194 :
“There are more cyclists than pedestrians on the streets of Amsterdam”.
Choose the sentence which means the same as the above statement.
A.Pedestrians outnumber cyclists on the streets of Amsterdam
B.Cyclists are not as many is number as pedestrians
C.Walking is not as common as cycling is on the streets of Amsterdam
D.Cycling is not as common as walking is on the streets of Amsterdam
Q 195 :
Use the appropriate idiom to complete the expression. You may go home early if you are
A.Feeling a bit under the weather
B.Hitting the nail on the head
C.Sitting on the fence
D.Adding insult to the injury
Q 196 :
To bend over backwards
A.To accommodate every unreasonable request usually without getting anything back
B.Stepping away from an unpleasant situation
C.To make every effort to achieve something, especially to be fair or helpful
D.Submitting oneself completely to a higher authority
Q 197 :
To declare invalid an official agreement, decision, or result.
A.To annul
B.To negate
C.To efface
D.To undo
Q 198 :
Feeling or showing deep and solemn respect.
A.Pious
B.Reverent
C.Humble
D.Devout
Q 199 :
The teacher was taken aback by the student’s remark.
A.Annoyed
B.Surprised
C.Hurt
D.Pleased
Q 200 :
The lawyer insisted on having the contract in black and white.