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Latest MWRD Bihar JE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Aptitude, General Awareness, English, Reasoning, Civil Engineering
Question Bank MWRD Bihar JE Exam (Civil) - English
General Aptitude
Q 1 :
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
A.2 hours
B.3 hours
C.4 hours
D.5 hours
Q 2 :
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
A.69
B.96
C.78
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 3 :
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
A.12
B.13
C.14
D.10
E.None of these
Q 4 :
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
Q 5 :
The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
A.42
B.38
C.32
D.72
E.None of these
Q 6 :
Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
A.18
B.16
C.19
D.17
E.None of these
Q 7 :
The difference between th of th of a number and of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
A.45
B.35
C.40
D.30
E.None of these
Q 8 :
If is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
A.2024
B.2104
C.2004
D.2014
E.None of these
Q 9 :
‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
A.38
B.42
C.44
D.34
E.None of these
Q 10 :
The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
A.20
B.22
C.21
D.23
E.None of these
Q 11 :
If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
A.50
B.75
C.57
D.60
E.None of these
Q 12 :
IF the sum of four consecutive even number is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
A.52
B.54
C.56
D.48
E.None of these
Q 13 :
If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
Q 14 :
What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
A.118
B.95
C.110
D.100
E.None of these
Q 15 :
What is 234 time 167 ?
A.48768
B.41184
C.40581
D.39078
E.None of these
Q 16 :
The product of two consecutive even number is 4488. Which is the smaller number ?
A.62
B.71
C.66
D.65
E.None of these
Q 17 :
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
Q 18 :
What is the least number to be added to 1416 to make it perfect square ?
A.47
B.38
C.28
D.25
E.None of these
Q 19 :
What is 147 times 329 ?
A.48069
B.48363
C.49021
D.48723
E.None of these
Q 20 :
The sum of 5 consecutive even number A, B, C, D and E is 410. What is the product of A and E ?
A.6708
B.6880
C.6552
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
General Awareness
Q 21 :
Which wildlife sanctuary in Kerala recorded 63 new species during a faunal survey?
A.Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
B.Karimpuzha Wildlife Sanctuary
C.Silent Valley National Park
D.Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
Q 22 :
The Lok Sabha recently passed a bill to establish Tribhuvan Sahkari University in which state?
A.Punjab
B.Uttar Pradesh
C.Gujarat
D.Haryana
Q 23 :
The Indian Air Force participated in the INIOCHOS-25 exercise held in which country?
A.France
B.Greece
C.Italy
D.United States
Q 24 :
Where was the third session of the India-Uganda Joint Trade Committee recently held?
A.Gujarat
B.Maharashtra
C.New Delhi
D.Goa
Q 25 :
Which organization unveiled plans for the Future Circular Collider to succeed the Large Hadron Collider?
A.NASA
B.ISRO
C.CERN
D.ESA
Q 26 :
The Supreme Court of India upheld the 2016 regulations of which state's Electricity Regulatory Commission?
A.Maharashtra
B.Rajasthan
C.Gujarat
D.Karnataka
Q 27 :
Which country 'Operation Brahma' to assist earthquake-affected Myanmar?
A.China
B.India
C.Bangladesh
D.Thailand
Q 28 :
What is the primary focus of the PM MITRA scheme by the Indian government?
A.Agriculture
B.Textile Industry
C.Renewable Energy
D.Information Technology
Q 29 :
Which Indian state is set to establish the first 'Leopard Safari'?
A.Madhya Pradesh
B.Rajasthan
C.Uttarakhand
D.Punjab
Q 30 :
Which organization released the report titled "Education and Nutrition: Learn to Eat Well"?
A.UNICEF
B.WHO
C.UNESCO
D.FAO
Q 31 :
Which city hosted the launch of Capital Radio in 1973?
A.Manchester
B.London
C.Birmingham
D.Glasgow
Q 32 :
Which country is the host of the biennial multinational air exercise INIOCHOS?
A.France
B.Greece
C.Australia
D.India
Q 33 :
"Best Worst Thing That Ever Could Have Happened" is a 2016 documentary about which Stephen Sondheim musical that was initially unsuccessful?
A.Into the Woods
B.Merrily We Roll Along
C.Company
D.Follies
Q 34 :
Emma Watson is the ambassador for which Italian fashion house's perfume "Paradoxes’"?
A.Gucci
B.Prada
C.Versace
D.Dolce & Gabbana
Q 35 :
Which acid reacts with sodium hydroxide to produce salt and water?
A.Sulfuric acid
B.Nitric acid
C.Hydrochloric acid
D.Acetic acid
Q 36 :
Which future Labor prime minister served as mayor of Stepney in 1919?
A.Harold Wilson
B.Clement Attlee
C.James Callaghan
D.Ramsay MacDonald
Q 37 :
Pre-eclampsia is a medical condition that typically develops after how many weeks of pregnancy?
A.12 weeks
B.20 weeks
C.28 weeks
D.36 weeks
Q 38 :
In the 1984 film "The Bounty," which character was portrayed by Anthony Hopkins?
A.Fletcher Christian
B.William Bligh
C.James Cook
D.Edward Edwards
Q 39 :
Which Caribbean country, where French is widely spoken, is considered the home of voodoo?
A.Jamaica
B.Haiti
C.Martinique
D.Guadeloupe
Q 40 :
The brand "Flora," introduced in 1964, is associated with which product?
A.Cheese
B.Margarine
C.Yogurt
D.Bread
English
Q 41 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 42 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 43 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 44 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 45 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 46 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 47 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 48 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 49 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 50 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Important Questions Package
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B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 54 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 55 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 56 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 57 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 58 :
One must keep one’s promises.
A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
B.One’s promises had to be kept.
C.Promises must be kept.
D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 59 :
I read the story in one night.
A.The story had been read by me in one night.
B.The story has been read by me in one night
C.n one night the story has been read by me.
D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 60 :
We must take care of the old.
A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B.The old must be taken care of by us.
C.Those who are old need care by us
D.The old should be taken care of by us.
Reasoning
Q 61 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 62 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 63 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 64 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 65 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 66 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 67 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 68 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 69 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 70 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 71 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 72 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 73 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 74 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 75 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 76 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 77 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 78 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 79 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 80 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Civil Engineering
Q 81 :
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A.1 and 3 only
B.1 and 4 only
C.2 and 4 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 82 :
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.2, 3 and 4 only
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 83 :
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
A.Methane and Hydrogen
B.Hydrogen Sulphide
C.Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
D.Ammonia
Q 84 :
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
A.Excessive burning of bricks
B.High silt content in brick clay
C.High porosity of bricks
D.Soluble salts present in parent clay
Q 85 :
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 86 :
Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 87 :
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 88 :
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
A.Tricalcium silicate
B.Dicalcium silicate
C.Tricalcium aluminate
D.Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
Q 89 :
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only
Q 90 :
In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be
A.3.00
B.3.45
C.4.50
D.6.00
Q 91 :
Which method of curing of concrete is recommendable for rapid gain of strength of concrete ?
A.Sprinkling water
B.Membrane curing
C.High-pressure steam curing
D.Infrared radiation curing
Q 92 :
Which of the following is appropriate as simple field method for assesing consistency of concrete ?
A.Compacting factor
B.Slump test
C.Vee-Bee test
D.Kelly Ball test
Q 93 :
Which of the following are relatable to Autoclaved Aerated Concrete ?
1. Light weight
2. Strong
3 Inorganic
4. Nontoxic
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 94 :
The workability of concrete becomes more reliable depending on
1. Aggregate-cement ratio
2. Time of transit
3. Grading of the aggregate
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 95 :
Which of the following statements are correct for stresses acting on mutually perpendicular faces of a plane element ?
1. The sum of the normal stresses in mutually perpendicular planes is equal to the sum of the principal stresses.
2. The shearing stresses in two mutually perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude and direction.
3. Maximum shear stress is half of the difference between principal stresses.
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 96 :
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Strain in the direction of applied stress is known as longitudinal strain.
2. Tensile stress results in tensile strain in linear and lateral directions.
3. Strains in all directions perpendicular to the applied stress are known as lateral strain. 4. Ratio of change in volume to original volume is known as volumetric strain.
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 97 :
In the cross-section of a timber, cambium layer can occur in
A.Inner Bark and Sap Wood
B.Pith and Heart Wood
C.Sap Wood and Heart Wood
D.Outer Bark and Sap Wood
Q 98 :
Consider the following statements :
1. In the infinitesimal strain theory, dilatation is taken as an invariant.
2. Dilatation is not proportional to the algebraic sum of all normal stresses.
3. The shearing modulus is always less than the elastic modulus.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
A.1 only
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 99 :
Which one of the following represents constitutive relationship ?
A.Vertical displacements in a structure
B.Rotational displacements in a structure
C.System of forces in equilibrium
D.Stress-strain behavior of a material
Q 100 :
Principal stresses at a point are 80 N/mm2 and 40 N/mm2, both tensile. The yield stress in simple tension for this material is 200 N/mm2. The values of factors of safety according to maximum principal stress theory and maximum shear stress theory, respectively, are
th of 
th of a number and 
of 
th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
is subtracted from 
and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?