Latest Nabard Grade A Officer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Reasoning, English, Computer Knowledge, General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude, Economic & Social Issues, Agriculture and Rural Development
Question Bank NABARD Grade A Officer Preliminary Exam - English
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 2Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 3Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 4Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 5Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 6Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 7Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 8Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 9Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 10Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 11Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 12Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 13Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 14Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 15Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 16Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 17Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 18Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 19Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 20Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
English
Question 21Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 22Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 23Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 24Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 25Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 26Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 27Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 28Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 29Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 30Single Answer
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Question 31Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 32Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 33Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 34Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 35Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 36Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 37Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 38Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 39Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 40Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 41Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 42Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 43Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 44Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 45Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 46Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To sleep with the fishes
A
Always be in a dream world
B
To make absurd excuses
C
To sleep peacefully
D
To be dead
Question 47Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.
A
To exterminate
B
To expurgate
C
To intricate
D
To extricate
Question 48Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together
A
Irascible
B
Crucible
C
Miscible
D
Risible
Question 49Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Shooting fish in a barrel
A
To do random acts of stupidity
B
To behave in a cruel manner
C
Ridiculously easy
D
To escape through a narrow opening
Question 50Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
What does the phrase ‘knew no bounds’ mean ?
A
was bounded by
B
was limitless
C
was limited
D
was bound to
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Computer Knowledge
Question 51Single Answer
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 52Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 53Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 54Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 55Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 56Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 57Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 58Single Answer
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically
Question 59Single Answer
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 60Single Answer
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline
Question 61Single Answer
The term classic style implies
A
you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B
a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C
both a and b
D
font style
E
None of these
Question 62Single Answer
The term click implies
A
to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
a button in a dialog box
C
to shut down or exit a dialog box
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 63Single Answer
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
A
Minimize the window
B
Close the associated window or application
C
Maximize the window
D
Move the window
Question 64Single Answer
A command button
A
is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B
is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
D
is a small button with an X on it
E
None of these
Question 65Single Answer
What is smallest unit of the information?
A
A bit
B
A byte
C
A block
D
A nibble
Question 66Single Answer
A cursor is
A
to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on the clipboard
B
a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
pressing and holding the main mouse button
D
A button in a dialog box
E
None of these
Question 67Single Answer
What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?
A
A structured collection of data only
B
Software used to create, manage, retrieve, and update data in databases
C
A physical device for storing database backups
D
A programming language used only for calculations
Question 68Single Answer
The meaning of cut is
A
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
B
to cut a document in two unequal parts
C
to cut a document in two equal parts
D
Only b and c are correct
Question 69Single Answer
A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user is called as
A
pre - determined setting
B
user - setting
C
default
D
setting
E
None of these
Question 70Single Answer
The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and manage files and programs is
A
wall paper
B
desktop
C
background
D
All of the above
E
None of these
General Awareness
Question 71Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 72Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 73Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 74Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 75Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 76Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 77Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 78Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 79Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 80Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 81Single Answer
Who is set to be appointed as the new Chancellor of Germany?
A
Olaf Scholz
B
Friedrich Merz
C
Annalena Baerbock
D
Christian Lindner
Question 82Single Answer
Which province launched Pakistan's first online medicine ordering portal?
A
Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
B
Punjab
C
Sindh
D
Balochistan
Question 83Single Answer
What is the name of the mission through which NASA plans to return humans to the Moon by?
A
Artemis
B
Apollo
C
Orion
D
Perseverance
Question 84Single Answer
Who won the Best Actor award at the 2025 Oscars?
A
Joaquin Phoenix
B
Leonardo DiCaprio
C
Will Smith
D
Brad Pitt
Question 85Single Answer
Which country hosted the 2025 World Economic Forum Annual Meeting?
A
Switzerland
B
Singapore
C
United Arab Emirates
D
Germany
Question 86Single Answer
What is the name of the mission through which ISRO plans to send humans to space by?
A
Gaganyaan
B
Chandrayaan
C
Mangalyaan
D
Shukrayaan
Question 87Single Answer
Who is the current Director-General of the World Trade Organization (WTO) as of?
A
Roberto Azevêdo
B
Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala
C
Pascal Lamy
D
Christine Lagarde
Question 88Single Answer
Which country the "Green Future" initiative to achieve carbon neutrality by?
A
Germany
B
Japan
C
United Arab Emirates
D
Canada
Question 89Single Answer
The "One Health" initiative, addressing the interconnected health of people, animals, and the environment, was recently endorsed by which organization?
A
World Health Organization (WHO)
B
United Nations (UN)
C
World Bank
D
Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
Question 90Single Answer
Which country recently became the first to approve the use of lab-grown meat for commercial sale?
A
United States
B
Singapore
C
Netherlands
D
Israel
Quantitative Aptitude
Question 91Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 92Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 93Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 94Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 95Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 96Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 97Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 98Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 99Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 100Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 101Single Answer
Passage :
information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206
Question 102Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these
Question 103Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%
Question 104Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these
Question 105Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these
Question 106Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
A
4%
B
3%
C
1%
D
None of these
Question 107Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A ᴖ (A ᴗ B) equal to ?
A
Complement of A
B
Complement of B
C
B
D
A
Question 108Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
A
10%
B
15%
C
20%
D
25%
Question 109Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
A
25%
B
100%
C
75%
D
0%
Question 110Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
A
15
B
25
C
40
D
75
Economic & Social Issues
Question 111Single Answer
In case of indifference curve of two goods X and Y, as consumption of X increases :
A
MRSXY increases
B
MRSXY decreases
C
MRSXY remains the same
D
MRSXY increases but later on MRSXY decreases
Question 112Single Answer
General Economic equilibrium is NOT related to which one of the following problems ?
A
Uniqueness problem
B
Existence problem
C
Stability problem
D
Moral hazard problem
Question 113Single Answer
In the shoft-run production function, which on eof the following is CORRECT ?
A
Technology is assumed to change as labour input changes
B
Technology is assumed to change as capital stock changes
C
Technology is assumed to change positively until diminishing returns set in
D
Technology is assumedto be constant for a given production function relationship
Question 114Single Answer
As output expands, LAC curve falls. This is due to :
A
Law of variable proportions
B
Law of diminishing returns
C
Economies of scale
D
Diseconomies of scale
Question 115Single Answer
In a situtation of decision under uncertainty, if a consumer faces equal expected income from two alternatives, then she will take decision on the basis of :
A
Expected utility of both the alternatives
B
Probability of risk attached with each alternatives
C
Variation of risk attached with each alternatives
D
Mean of risk of each alternatives
Question 116Single Answer
What type of relationship the Phillips curve postulates between the rae of unemployment and the rate of increase of money wages ?
A
Inverse
B
Direct
C
Direct and proportional
D
Inverse and proportional
Question 117Single Answer
The concept of 'money illusion' was first given by whom ?
A
Milton Friedman
B
Irving Fisher
C
Robertson
D
J. M. Keynes
Question 118Single Answer
Which one of the following correctly describes the concept of 'Super Multiplier' ?
A
Investment multiplier
B
Money multiplier
C
Interaction between multiplier and accelerator
D
Employment multiplier
Question 119Single Answer
Given
I = 50 + 0.2Y
S = –150 + 0.4Y
G = 50
Where, I = Investment, S = Savings
G = Government Expenditure
Y = National Income
What is the equilibrium level of national income
A
2500
B
1250
C
250
D
1500
Question 120Single Answer
The independence of real variables from changes in money supply and nominal variables is called :
A
Keynesian dichotomy
B
Classical dichotomy
C
Money illusion
D
Money multiplier
Question 121Single Answer
Assuming the probability of a male birth as 0.5, find the chances that a family of 3 children will have two boys and one girl :
A
B
C
D
Question 122Single Answer
Which one of the following measures of central tendency will be the most appropriate to use if the data relates to rates, proportions and ratios ?
A
Arithmetic mean
B
M edian
C
Harmonic Mean
D
Geometric mean
Question 123Single Answer
The sampling distribution of mean based on a sample of 13 units selected without replacement shows a variance of 5 units. If the population consists of 49 units, estimate the variance of the population
A
80.67
B
84.87
C
86.67
D
86.87
Question 124Single Answer
In the classical linear regression model, Xi and Ui are assumed to be :
A
highly correlated
B
not correlated
C
positively correlated
D
negatively correlated
Question 125Single Answer
Identify which one of the following statements is INCORRECT ?
A
Intersection of two disjoint sets is a null set
B
Complement of a Universal set is a null set
C
If X ∩ Y =ϕ, then X-Y ≠X
D
Question 126Single Answer
Given Y = X³ – 12X² + 36X + 8, identify which one of the following is CORRECT :
A
Y is maximum at X = 6, and minimum at X = 2
B
Y is minimum at X= 6, and maximum at X = 2
C
Y has two inflexion points at X = 2 and X = 6
D
Point of optimality is indeterminate
Question 127Single Answer
Identify which one of the following statements is CORRECT :
A
A–1 is equal to Adj (A) if the value of the determinant A is unity
B
If two columns of a determinant are interchanged, the sign of the determinant does not alter
C
The value of a determinant changes if the rows and columns are interchanged
D
Law of division is allowed in matrix operations
Question 128Single Answer
Identify which of the following statements with respect to Linear Programming Problem (LPP) is CORRECT ?
A
A solution is unbounded in an LPP if all the feasible solutions of the problem fall within the boundary created by its constraints
B
If A is primal problem and B its dual, then dual of B is Not A
C
The constraints of an LPP in standard form is always expressed in less than and equal to form
D
If an LPP has two optimum solutions, then it has also infinite number of optimum solutions
Question 129Single Answer
The Net Barter terms of trade refer to :
A
The excess of import expenditures over export earnings
B
Trade agreements
C
The ratio between export prices and import prices
D
The terms and conditions on which a country is offered a loan in the event of balance of payments difficulties
Question 130Single Answer
The items on the capital account of Balance of Payments are :
A
Flow variables
B
Stock variables
C
Changes in stock magnitudes
D
Both Stock and Flow variables
Question 131Single Answer
A sudden shift from import tariffs to free trade may induce short-term unemployment in :
A
Import competing industries
B
Industries that are only exporters
C
Industries that sell domestically as well as export
D
Industries that neither import or export
Question 132Single Answer
The optimum tariff means :
A
Most occur in the elastic range of the tariff imposing home country's offer curve
B
Takes account of the probability that the partner country will retaliate with protective measures of its own
C
Maximises total export sales of the imposing country
D
Must occur in the elastic range of the partner country's offer curve
Question 133Single Answer
The movement from old level of expenditure and taxation to a new and higher level is called :
A
Concentration effect
B
Inspection effect
C
Displacement effect
D
All of the above
Question 134Single Answer
Which method can help in obtaining a welfare improvement, if externalities exist ?
A
Pigovian taxes
B
Regulation
C
Assigning property righs and permitting bargaining
D
All of the above
Question 135Single Answer
The efficiency condition in the production of pure public good requires that the production be carried out up to a point when :
{where MBi, represents marginal Benefit of the 'ith' individual and MBj represents marginal Benefits that accrue to the 'jth' individual and MC is the marginal cost}
A
B
C
D
Question 136Single Answer
The incidence of which of the following will entirely be on the monopolist ?
A
Lump-sum tax
B
Specific tax
C
Regulated monopoly pricing
D
None of these
Question 137Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a Commercial Bank ?
A
Public Sector Bank
B
Private Sector Bank
C
Regional Rural Bank
D
Co – operative Bank
Question 138Single Answer
Liquidity Adjusment Facility (LAF) was recommended by :
A
C. Rangarajan Committee
B
Raghuram Rajan Committee
C
Narasimhan Committe -II
D
Bimal Jalan Committee
Question 139Single Answer
Which of the following is TRUE for Bank Rate ?
A
Increase in Bank rate by Central Bank would increase money supply keeping other factors constant
B
Bank rate is a qualitative instrument
C
Bank rate is the minimum rate at which the Central Bank provides credit to financial institutions against securities of the government
D
Bank rate is a direct instrument of credit control
Question 140Single Answer
Human Development Index (HDI) currently, as published by the UNDP is calculated by using which of the following ?
A
Geometric mean
B
Arithmetic Mean
C
Harmonic Mean
D
Quadratic mean
Question 141Single Answer
Harrod-neutral technical progress is necessarily :
A
Growth augmenting
B
Laour augmenting
C
Capital augmenting
D
Resource augmenting
Question 142Single Answer
Which among the following is NOT part of the neoclassical theory of growth ?
A
Swan Model
B
Meade's Model
C
Pasinetti Model
D
Solow Model
Question 143Single Answer
If a production function admits both Harrod and Hicks neutral technical progress, the elasticity of subsitution should be :
A
equal to one
B
equal to zero
C
equal to infinity
D
equal to one divided by two
Question 144Single Answer
The total population of city 'X' in 2011 was 28 lakhs adn the total number of live births was 50 thousand. Find out crude birth rate per 1000 population ?
A
178.57
B
1.7857
C
17.857
D
0.17857
Question 145Single Answer
According to Ronald Coase, Which of the following statements is CORRECT for pollution control ?
A
Providing property rights to the state
B
Providing property rights to the legal institutions
C
Providing property rights to polluters and pollutees
D
Providing property rights to Trade Unions
Question 146Single Answer
According to Census 2011, which one of the following states has the highest share of rural population ?
A
Bihar
B
Odisha
C
Uttar Pradesh
D
Himachal Pradesh
Question 147Single Answer
At present, for the estimation of GDP in India at constant prices, which one of the following years is used as the base year ?
A
2011-12
B
2010-11
C
2014-15
D
2000-01
Question 148Single Answer
Which of the following statement is CORRECT for 'Atmanirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana' launched on November 12, 2020 ?
A
Establishments which make new hires will get a subsidy to cover retirement fund contribution by employees and employers for 2 years
B
Establishment will get a subsidy of Rs 10 crore for period of 5 years
C
Establishment will get tax profit continuously for a period of 3 years
D
Establishment will get tax subsidy for 5 years
Question 149Single Answer
The 15th Finance Commission (FC) has recommended that the States be given what per cent of the divisible tax pool of the Centre during the period 2021-2022 to 2025-26 ?
A
51
B
31
C
41
D
61
Question 150Single Answer
Which of the following sectors of the economy registered highest growth rate in the second quarter of 2020-21 as per estimate of NSO ?
A
Manufacturing
B
Electricity, Gas, Water supply and other Utilit services
C
Agriculture and Allied sectors
D
General Administration
Agriculture and Rural Development
Question 151Single Answer
In food, starch is detected by its :
A
Granular form
B
Energy reserve
C
White appearance
D
Blue reaction with iodine
Question 152Single Answer
Cut surfaces of fruits often becomes dark due to :
A
Dirty knife
B
Oxidetion of iron containing chemicals
C
Dissolution of iron of the knife
D
Oxidation of tannic acid assisted by traces of iron form knife
Question 153Single Answer
Kranz anatomy is typical of :
A
C4 plants
B
C3 plants
C
C2 plants
D
CAM plants
Question 154Single Answer
Bakanae disease in rice plants (Oryza sativa ) is caused by :
A
Naphthalene acetic acid (NAA)
B
2 , 4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4-D)
C
Gibberellic acid (GA)
D
Indole Acetic acid (IAA)
Question 155Single Answer
A monosomic organism can best be represented as :
A
2n-1
B
2n+2
C
n+l
D
2n-2
Question 156Single Answer
Chemicals used for transmitting messages to members of same species are :
A
Allochemics
B
Kairomones
C
Auxins
D
Pheromones
Question 157Single Answer
Tomato and potato belong to :
A
North America
B
South America
C
Asia minor
D
Ethiopia
Question 158Single Answer
At which part of plant potatoes are borne ?
A
Primary root
B
Stolons
C
Lateral roots
D
Adventitious roots
Question 159Single Answer
Wild saccharum sponkaneum was used for introducing resistance to :
A
Smut disease
B
Red rot disease
C
Loose smut disease
D
All of these
Question 160Single Answer
Which of the following cultivar of rice was discovered by Dr. G.S. khush and is most widely grown in the world?
A
IR-26.
B
IR-36.
C
Pusa-24.
D
Ratna.
Question 161Single Answer
Addition of which of the following is useful in rhizobial nitrogen fixation ?
A
Phosphate
B
Magnesium
C
Iron
D
Potassium
Question 162Single Answer
Agriculture is considered to be the most important sector in india because :
A
Agriculture provides the requisite foodstuff for the masses
B
Agricultural development has nothing to do with education
C
Agricultural sector contributes about half of the national income
D
Most of the industries are directly dependent on agriculture
Question 163Single Answer
Which of the following measures have been taken to modernise Indian agriculture ?
A
Area under irrigation increased.
B
High yielding variety seeds.
C
Credit and facilities to villagers.
D
All of these.
Question 164Single Answer
Assertion(A) : The growth rate in agriculture is small even after proper investment and planning Reason (R): Land reforms have not been satisfactorily carried out .
A
A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
B
A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
C
A is true but R is false.
D
Both A and R are false.
Question 165Single Answer
What is the "tenurial system"?
A
It points our the method of land use
B
It identifies the ownership of land
C
It identifies the ownership of land and the relationship of the land owner with the actual cultivator.
D
It identifies the size of land and how it is put to use
Question 166Single Answer
Sub-divison and fragmentation of land resulted in :
A
enormous wastage of land owing to boundaries
B
uneconomic holdings
C
destruction of enterprise
D
All of the above
Question 167Single Answer
Which of the following kinds of budgetings should be followed while planning a farm?
A
Enterprise budgeting
B
Partial budgeting
C
Full budgeting
D
Any of these
Question 168Single Answer
Stock - farming refers to :
A
accent on agricultural production to build a buffer stock
B
co-operative farming
C
farming concentrating On the rearing of cattle and sheep
D
Large scale capital intensive commercial farming
Question 169Single Answer
Terrace is practised mostly :
A
In urban areas.
B
On slopes of mountains.
C
On tops of hills.
D
In undulating tracts.
Question 170Single Answer
Large - scale intensive agriculture involves agricultural operations carried on :
A
Near equator
B
In densely populated areas.
C
On hilly tract.
D
None of the above.
Question 171Single Answer
Irrigation canal system can be easily provided in an area which has :
A
Heavy rainfall.
B
Mountains and waterfalls.
C
Dry plain
D
Perennial rivers.
Question 172Single Answer
What system of irrigation is not practised usually ?
A
Canal irrigation.
B
Underground irrigation.
C
Sprinkler irrigation.
D
Lift irrigation.
Question 173Single Answer
Canal irrigation is largely carried on in :
A
AP.
B
MP.
C
Maharashtra.
D
Tamil nadu.
Question 174Single Answer
The maximum density of canal lies in which of the following states ?
A
AP
B
Punjab
C
Tamil nadu
D
Uttar pradesh
Question 175Single Answer
The national flood control programme was taken up in the year :
A
1950.
B
1952.
C
1954.
D
1974.
Question 176Single Answer
Soil morphology means :
A
the physical structure of soil.
B
activities of elementary plants.
C
biological activities of soil.
D
Sedimentation.
Question 177Single Answer
Black cotton soils are deficient in :
A
potash.
B
iron.
C
nitrogen.
D
lime.
Question 178Single Answer
Soluble salt content of soil is determined by measuring its:
A
electrical conductivity.
B
pH value.
C
orgian matter content.
D
sulphur content.
Question 179Single Answer
A fertile soil consists of:
A
sand and pebbles.
B
dry dead leaves.
C
sand and clay.
D
loam and humus.
Question 180Single Answer
The principal cause of soil damage in punjab and haryana is:
A
salinity and water-logging.
B
deforestation.
C
ravine erosion.
D
over-grazing.
Question 181Single Answer
Boilogical control agents of soil borne pla pathogens act by:
A
secreting toxic metabolites.
B
direct parasitism or predation on the pathogens.
C
rapidly depleting nutrients and thereb causing starvation and death of pathogens.
D
Any or all the above ways.
Question 182Single Answer
Rotation of crops is essential for:
A
increasing fertility of the soil.
B
getting different kinds of crops.
C
increasing the quantity of minerals.
D
increasing the quantity of proteins.
Question 183Single Answer
Through Inter - cropping :
A
two crops are grown alternately
B
two crops are grown at a time
C
a gap is given between two cropping period
D
None of these
Question 184Single Answer
For seeds to remain viable , they should be stored in a :
A
cool and dry place
B
dry and warm place
C
moist and warm place
D
cool and moist place
Question 185Single Answer
Mulching means the :
A
spreading of a mixture of wet straw and leaves for protecting seedlings
B
applying of chemical fertilizer.
C
applying of green manure
D
None of the above
Question 186Single Answer
green Revolution is a concept connected with:
A
afforestation.
B
growing new types of grass
C
discovery of high yielding varieties especially in food - grains.
D
None of the above
Question 187Single Answer
The crops which is sown with the commen cement of Monsoon is :
A
rabi crop
B
kharif crop
C
cash crops.
D
None of these
Question 188Single Answer
Which is a long day plant ?
A
Chrysanthemum.
B
Wheat.
C
Rice.
D
Tomato.
Question 189Single Answer
Wheat varieties, which triggered off the green revolution, were;