Question for Nagaland Police Constable - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

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Latest Nagaland Police Constable Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Knowledge & Awareness

Question Bank Nagaland Police Constable Exam - English

General Knowledge & Awareness

Q 1 :

Yojna a weekly journal

1. A.Ministry of Finance        
2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
4. D.Planning Commission

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Q 2 :

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

1. A.Ministry of Finance 
2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
4. D.Planning Commission

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Q 3 :

Devaluation of a currency means

1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

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Q 4 :

In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

1. A.1 and 3
2. B.2 and 3
3. C.1 and 2
4. D.1,2 and 3

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Q 5 :

Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women

1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna

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Q 6 :

What is Net National Product

1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy

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Q 7 :

National income is the 

1. A.net national product at market price
2. B.net national product at factor cost
3. C.net domestic product at market price
4. D.net domestic product at factor cost

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Q 8 :

Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our

1. A.financial system            
2. B.tax system
3. C.patents and copyrights  
4. D.Public sector undertakings

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Q 9 :

During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest

1. A.2^nd plan
2. B.3^rd plan
3. C.5^th plan
4. D.6^th plan

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Q 10 :

Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax

1. A.sales tax           
2. B.custom tax
3. C.excise tax         
4. D.income tax

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Q 11 :

In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from

1. A.metastable state to any lower state
2. B.any higher state of lower state
3. C.metastable state to ground state
4. D.any higher state to ground state

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Q 12 :

10^-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is

1. A.between 7 and 8
2. B.between 5 and 6
3. C.between 6 and 7
4. D.between 10 and 11

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Q 13 :

In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is

1. A.1.93 A         
2. B.9.65 A
3. C.19.3 A        
4. D.0.965 A

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Q 14 :

The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on

1. A.the nature of enzymes involved
2. B.the nature of the substrate
3. C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
4. D.the amount of oxygen utilised

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Q 15 :

Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?

1. A.Water vapour
2. B.Carbon monoxide
3. C.Methane
4. D.Oxygen

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Q 16 :

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

1. A.Two
2. B.Three
3. C.Five
4. D.Four
5. E.None of these

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Q 17 :

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

1. A.True
2. B.False
3. C.Uncertain
4. D.None

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Q 18 :

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

1. A.A
2. B.E
3. C.T
4. D.X
5. E.Y

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Q 19 :

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

1. A.None            
2. B.One         
3. C.Two       
4. D.Three        
5. E.More than three

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Q 20 :

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

1. A.None
2. B.One
3. C.Two
4. D.Three
5. E.More than three

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Q 21 :

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

1. A.None
2. B.One
3. C.Two
4. D.Three
5. E.More than three

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Q 22 :

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

1. A.T
2. B.L
3. C.E
4. D.Y
5. E.X

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Q 23 :

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

1. A.None
2. B.One
3. C.Two
4. D.Three
5. E.More than three

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Q 24 :

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

1. A.None
2. B.One
3. C.Two
4. D.Three
5. E.More than three

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Q 25 :

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

1. A.V
2. B.T
3. C.E
4. D.A
5. E.B

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Q 26 :

Choose the industrial cities that grew rapidly in Britain in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries:

1. A.Leeds and Manchester
2. B.Bristol and Manchester
3. C.Carlisle and Leeds
4. D.Chester and Leeds

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Q 27 :

Which were the three Presidency cities of Colonial India in late eighteenth century?

1. A.Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
2. B.Calcutta, Bombay and Surat
3. C.Bombay, Madras and Delhi
4. D.None of these

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Q 28 :

What is Urbanization?

1. A.Migration of population from rural to urban area
2. B.Migration of people from urban to rural
3. C.Migration of people from one country to another
4. D.Migration of population from one state to another one

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Q 29 :

What is de urbanization in the colonial context?

1. A.The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports emerged due to emergence of new cities.
2. B.The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports declined due to emergence of new cities.
3. C.a and b both
4. D.None of these

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Q 30 :

Which of the following Indian cities which were de-urbanized during the nineteenth century?
i. Machlipatnam
ii. Surat
iii. Seringapatam
iv. Bombay

1. A.i and ii
2. B.i, iv and ii
3. C.i, ii and iii
4. D.i, ii, iii and iv

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Q 31 :

The earlist manuscripts were written on 

1. A.palm leaves
2. B.paper 
3. C.wood 
4. D.stones

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Q 32 :

What does BC and AD stands for?

1. A.Anno Domini and Before Common
2. B.Before Christ and Anno Domini 
3. C.Anno Domini and Before Christ
4. D.None of the above

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Q 33 :

Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of a manuscript?
​(A) It is written on a hard surface such as a stone or a metal.
​(B) It is an old book written by hand.
(C) It is written on palm leaf or on specially prepared bark of the birch tree.

1. A.Only A 
2. B.B and C
3. C.Only B 
4. D.All of these

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Q 34 :

Which one of the following statements is false?

1. A.History is about changes that over time, about finding out how things were in the past and how things have changed 
2. B.In the histories narrated by British historians about India, the rule of each Governor-General was important 
3. C.James Mill divided Indian History into three periods Hindu, Muslim and Christian
4. D.The British in India believed that surveys were important for effective administration

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Q 35 :

Which is the criteria to decide that a particular date is important in history?

1. A.They are the date of birth of a king or emperor 
2. B.A particular event or set of events has occurred on or around that date 
3. C.It is the date of coronation of a king
4. D.All of the above

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Q 36 :

The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x² : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to

1. A.{–2, 2} 
2. B.{–1, 0, 1}
3. C.{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
4. D.{0, 1, 2}

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Q 37 :

1. D.None of these

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Q 38 :

If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as

1. A.{2}
2. B.{1, 2}  
3. C.{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
4. D.{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}

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Q 39 :

The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is

1. A.{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
2. B.{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}  
3. C.{2, 4, 6}
4. D.{1, 3, 5}

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Q 40 :

If A B and A B, then

1. A.A is called a proper subset of B
2. B.A is called a super set of B
3. C.A is not a subset of B 
4. D.B is a subset of A

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Q 41 :

The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is

1. A.15
2. B.14
3. C.16
4. D.17

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Q 42 :

The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is

1. A.2^m – 1
2. B.m 
3. C.m²
4. D.2^m

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Q 43 :

If A = {x : x = n², n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is

1. A.3
2. B.8
3. C.7
4. D.None of these

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Q 44 :

If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is

1. A.16
2. B.15  
3. C.4 
4. D.None of these 

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Q 45 :

Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then

1. A.A is always a subset of the complement of B
2. B.B is always a subset of A  
3. C.A and B are always disjoint
4. D.A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint  

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Q 46 :

Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?

1. A.Assam
2. B.Himachal Pradesh
3. C.Punjab
4. D.Tamil Nadu

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Q 47 :

Which of the following statements is true ?
Statement I: Indian techniques such as Rasa and Bhawa in classical dances have their origins in Bharatmuni's Natyashastra.
Statement II: Bharatanatyam has its origin in Odisha.

1. A.Only Statement II is true
2. B.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
3. C.Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true
4. D.Only Statement I is true

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Q 48 :

"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?

1. A.Malik Muhammad Joyce
2. B.Raskhan
3. C.Rich Khusrow
4. D.Rich Hasan

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Q 49 :

What was the real name of Amir Khusro?

1. A.Muhammad Hasan
2. B.Muhammad Hussain
3. C.Muhammad Khusrow
4. D.Muhammad Mine

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Q 50 :

Which is the national game of Bhutan ?

1. A.badminton
2. B.basketball
3. C.football
4. D.archery

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