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Latest NCESS Project Assistant Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Science, Numerical Ability, Mechanical Engineering
Question Bank NCESS Project Assistant Exam (Mechnical) - English
General Science
Q 1 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 2 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 3 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 4 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A.having a constant phase difference
B.of equal wavelength
C.of equal speed
D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 5 :
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
A.0.75 A
B.1 A
C.2 A
D.1.5 A
Q 6 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 7 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 8 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 9 :
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A.28 mm
B.56 mm
C.70 mm
D.140 mm
Q 10 :
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A.1 M solution of glucose
B.0.05 M solution of glucose
C.6% solution of glucose
D.25% solution of glucose
Q 11 :
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
A.to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B.to minimise the snow fall
C.to minimise pollution
D.to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Q 12 :
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A.AB2
B.A2B
C.AB
D.AB3
Q 13 :
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A.decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B.decreases electron density at meta position
C.increases electron density at meta position
D.increases electron density at ortho and para position
Q 14 :
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
A.PCI5
B.PCI3
C.SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
D.dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Q 15 :
The carbon bond length in benzene is
A.in between C2H6 and C2H4
B.same as in C2H4
C.in between C2H6 and C2H2
D.in between C2H4 and C2H2
Q 16 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 17 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 18 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Q 19 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A.fresh-water mussel
B.tortoise
C.frog
D.jelly fish
Q 20 :
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Q 21 :
Compare the statement A and B. Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy. Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
Q 22 :
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
A.B,C and D
B.A and D
C.B and D
D.A, B and C
Q 23 :
Compare the statements A and B. Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds. Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
Q 24 :
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
A.Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
B.Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
C.Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
D.Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
Q 25 :
Stoma opens, when
A.guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
B.guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
C.guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
D.guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
Numerical Ability
Q 26 :
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
A.2 hours
B.3 hours
C.4 hours
D.5 hours
Q 27 :
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
A.69
B.96
C.78
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 28 :
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
A.12
B.13
C.14
D.10
E.None of these
Q 29 :
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
Q 30 :
The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
A.42
B.38
C.32
D.72
E.None of these
Q 31 :
Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
A.18
B.16
C.19
D.17
E.None of these
Q 32 :
The difference between th of th of a number and of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
A.45
B.35
C.40
D.30
E.None of these
Q 33 :
If is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
A.2024
B.2104
C.2004
D.2014
E.None of these
Q 34 :
‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
A.38
B.42
C.44
D.34
E.None of these
Q 35 :
The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
A.20
B.22
C.21
D.23
E.None of these
Q 36 :
If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
A.50
B.75
C.57
D.60
E.None of these
Q 37 :
IF the sum of four consecutive even number is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
A.52
B.54
C.56
D.48
E.None of these
Q 38 :
If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
Q 39 :
What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
A.118
B.95
C.110
D.100
E.None of these
Q 40 :
What is 234 time 167 ?
A.48768
B.41184
C.40581
D.39078
E.None of these
Q 41 :
The product of two consecutive even number is 4488. Which is the smaller number ?
A.62
B.71
C.66
D.65
E.None of these
Q 42 :
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
Q 43 :
What is the least number to be added to 1416 to make it perfect square ?
A.47
B.38
C.28
D.25
E.None of these
Q 44 :
What is 147 times 329 ?
A.48069
B.48363
C.49021
D.48723
E.None of these
Q 45 :
The sum of 5 consecutive even number A, B, C, D and E is 410. What is the product of A and E ?
A.6708
B.6880
C.6552
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 46 :
The product of two consecutive odd number is 6399. What is the smaller number ?
A.83
B.79
C.81
D.77
E.None of these
Q 47 :
If the fractions are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
E.None of these
Q 48 :
What is 394 times 113 ?
A.44402
B.44632
C.44802
D.44522
E.None of these
Q 49 :
What is the least number to be added to 7700 to make it a perfect square ?
A.131
B.221
C.77
D.98
E.None of these
Q 50 :
What least number should be added to 8602 to make if a perfect square ?
A.234
B.47
C.128
D.36
E.None of these
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NCESS Project Assistant Exam (Mechanical) Question Bank Book - English
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Q 53 :
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
A.Newtonian fluid
B.Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C.Pseudo-plastic fluids
D.Dilatent fluids
Q 54 :
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
A.8
B.6
C.4
D.2
Q 55 :
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
A.0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B.4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C.0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D.4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Q 56 :
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.Both 1 and 2
B.1 only
C.2 only
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 57 :
State whether following flow field is physically possible?
A.Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B.Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C.Possible for steady, compressible flow
D.Not Possible
Q 58 :
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
A.0.25
B.0.26
C.2
D.4
Q 59 :
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A.10 kW
B.20 kW
C.30 kW
D.50 kW
Q 60 :
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
A.man power
B.profit
C.inventory
D.manufacturing
Q 61 :
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
A.3 m/s2
B.6 m/s2
C.9 m/s2
D.15 m/s2
Q 62 :
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
A.9
B.-6
C.117
D.10.8
Q 63 :
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
A.More for lighter fluid
B.More for denser fluid
C.Less for denser fluid
D.Less for lighter fluid
Q 64 :
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
A.Linearly with fluid density
B.Inversely with pressure drop
C.Directly as square of pipe radius
D.Inversely with fluid velocity
Q 65 :
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
A.1.5mm
B.2.5mm
C.4.0mm
D.5.0mm
Q 66 :
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
A.0.05m
B.0.07m
C.0.08m
D.0.09m
Q 67 :
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
A.8 kW
B.4 kW
C.2 kW
D. 1 kW
Q 68 :
In a hydraulic coupling
A.The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
B.The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
C.The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
D.The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque
Q 69 :
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
A.1,2 and 3 only
B.1,2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1,2, 3 and 4
Q 70 :
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
A.150 N
B.1470 N
C.340 N
D.900 N
Q 71 :
Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n2.
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.1,2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 72 :
Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?
A.Energy
B.Mass
C.Momentum
D.Angle
Q 73 :
Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in
A.Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
B.Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
C.Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
D.Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid
Q 74 :
Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 105. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be
A.2Q
B.A little more than 2Q
C.A little less than 2Q
D.4Q
Q 75 :
Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
A. 7.5 W/m2K
B.15 W/m2K
C.25 W/m2K
D. 35 W/m2K
Q 76 :
For laminar flow through a round pipe, the shear stress
A.Remains constant over the cross-section
B.Varies linearly with the radial distance
C.Must be zero at all point
D.Varies parabolically with radial distance
Q 77 :
Percentage clongation during tensile test is indicative of
A.Creep
B.Malleability
C.Ductility
D.Elasticity in the metal
Q 78 :
Which of the above statements is not correct in the context of laminar flow through a pipeline?
A.Shear stress is zero at the center and varies linearly with pipe radius
B.Head loss is proportional to square of the average flow velocity
C.The friction factor varies inversely with flow Reynolds number
D.No dispersion of die injected into the flow stream
Q 79 :
Laminar flow between closely spaced parallel plates is governed by the consideration of which one of the following pair of forces?
A.Pressure and inertial forces
B.Gravity and inertial forces
C.Viscous and inertial forces
D.Pressure and inertial forces
Q 80 :
Formation and collapse of vapour bubbles are believed to be the root cause for cavitation in hydraulic turbines. Most favorable condition for the formation of bubbles is set in the turbine at
A.Penstock/nozzl
B.Guide vanes/Inlet of the runner
C.Vanes receiving impact of jet
D.Outlet of the runner/Entrance of the draft tube
Q 81 :
For fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe with Reynolds number Rethe friction factor is
A.Inversely proportional to Re
B.Proportional to Re
C.Proportional to square of Re
D.Independent of Re
Q 82 :
The ratio of power outlet of the pump to the power input to the pump is known as
A.Mechanical efficiency
B.Static efficiency
C.Overall efficiency
D.Manometric efficiency
Q 83 :
A pump is defined as a device which converts
A.Hydraulic energy into Mechanical energy
B.Mechanical energy into Hydraulic energy
C.Kinetic energy into Mechanical energy
D.None of the above
Q 84 :
The specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of the unit of such a size that is
A.Delivers the unit discharge at unit head
B.Requires unit power to develop unit head
C.Delivers the unit discharge at unit power
D.Produces unit power with unit head available
Q 85 :
Negative slip occurs in reciprocating pumps, when delivery pipe is
A.Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running atlow speed
B.Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running at high speed
C.Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at low speed
D.Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at high speed
Q 86 :
The pressure inside a soap bubble of 50 mm diameter is 25 N/m2 above the atmospheric pressure. The surface tension in soap film would be
A.0.156 N/m
B.0.313 N/m
C.0.624 N/m
D.0.078 N/m
Q 87 :
A Newtonian fluid is one which
A.Is viscous but incompressible
B.Has a linear relationship between the shear stress and the rate of angular deflection
C.Exhibits an increase in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
D.Exhibits a decrease in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
Q 88 :
Unlike the viscosity of fluids, the viscosity of gases increases with increasing temperature. This is due to
A.Increased cohesive force between the molecule
B.Increased momentum transfer in the molecules
C.Decreased momentum transfer in the molecules
D.Increase in both cohesive force and momentum transfer
Q 89 :
Manometer is a device used for measuring
A.Velocity at a point in a fluid
B.Pressure at a point in a fluid
C.Discharge of a fluid
D.None of the above
Q 90 :
When a dolphin glides through air, it experiences an external pressure of 0.75 m of mercury. The absolute pressure on dolphin when it is 5m below the free surface of the water is
A.0.10 N/m2
B.0.5 N/m2
C.1.0 N/m2
D.0.15 N/m2
Q 91 :
Which of the above statements is correct?
A.For a floating body, the stable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
B.For a floating body, the stable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains lower than the center of gravity of the body
C.For a floating body, the neutral equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
D.For a floating body, the unstable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
Q 92 :
A wall of 0.6m thickness has normal area of 1.5 m2 and is made up of material of thermal conductivity 0.4 W/mK. If the temperature on the two sides of the wall are 800°C and 1000°C, the thermal resistance of the wall is
A. 1.8 K/W
B. 1.8 W/K
C.1 K/W
D. 1 W/K
Q 93 :
A flownet is a graphical representation of streamlines and euqipotnetial lines such as these lines
A.Intersect each other at various different angles forming irregular shaped nets
B.Intersect each other orthogonally forming curvilinearsquares
C.Indicate the direction but not magnitude of vector
D.Indicate the direction and magnitude of vector
Q 94 :
Which of the above statements is correct for the velocity of potential?
A.Existence of velocity potential is an indication of irrotational nature of the flow
B.The velocity potential automatically satisfies the continuity equation
C.Velocity potential can be defined only for 2-dimensional flow
D.All of the above
Q 95 :
Angle of diverging portion of the venturimeter is limited to 7°, because:
1.Flow decelerates in the diverging portion and pressure increases in the downstream direction. Hence, the fluid experience an adverse pressure gradient, if the divergence angle is large.
2 .Flow separation takes place due to adverse pressure gradient when divergence angle is large.
3 .If the divergence angle is large, a negative pressure is created at the throat which obstructs the flow of fluid.
Which of the above reasons are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 96 :
A gas is flowing through an insulated nozzle. If the inlet velocity of gas is negligible and there is an enthalpy drop of 45kJ/kg, the velocity of gas leaving the nozzle is
A.100m/s
B.200m/s
C.300m/s
D.350m/s
Q 97 :
Which of the above statements are correct for turbo-prop powered aircrafts?
1 .The propulsion efficiency of turbo-prop is higher than that of turbo-jet and rockets for low speeds up to about 800km/hr.
2.For the same thrust the turbine in the turbo prop aircraft is smaller than in the turbo-jet aircraft.
3.For the turbo-prop the flight velocity cannot exceed the jet velocity.
A.1,2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 98 :
If absolute jet exit velocity from a jet engine is 2800m/s and forward flight velocity is 1400m/s then propulsive efficiency is
A.33.33%
B.40%
C.66.66%
D.90%
Q 99 :
An air-breathing aircraft is flying at an altitude where the air density is half the value at ground level. With reference to the ground level, the air fuel ratio at this altitude will be
A.1
2
B.1
C.2
D.4
Q 100 :
Which of the above statements are correct for rockets?
1.Unlike the turbo-jet aircraft, in rockets the flight velocity can exceed the jet velocity.
2.In rockets gases having lower molecular weight increase the specific thrust.
3.In rockets the gases are expanded in the nozzle up to the atmospheric pressure.
th of 
th of a number and 
of 
th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
is subtracted from 
and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?