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Question Bank

Question for NEET PG ENT - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 10, 2026

Duration: 60 · Questions: 50 · Max Marks: 50

View NEET PG ENT 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in NEET PG ENT exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in NEET PG ENT exams.

Latest NEET PG ENT Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : ENT

Question Bank NEET PG ENT - English

ENT

Q 1 :
What is a normal finding on frontal sinus palpation?
  1. A.Pain on pressure
  2. B.No tenderness
  3. C.Swelling
  4. D.Erythema
Q 2 :
What is examined during oropharyngoscopy?
  1. A.Nasal septum
  2. B.Tympanic membrane
  3. C.Base of tongue
  4. D.Vocal cords
Q 3 :
What is palpated in the oral cavity?
  1. A.Thyroid gland
  2. B.Nasal mucosa
  3. C.Tympanic membrane
  4. D.Tonsillar pillars
Q 4 :
What is visualized during indirect laryngoscopy?
  1. A.False vocal cords
  2. B.Tympanic membrane
  3. C.Nasal septum
  4. D.Tonsils
Q 5 :
What is assessed during neck palpation?
  1. A.Tympanic membrane
  2. B.Nasal airflow
  3. C.Jugular lymph nodes
  4. D.Vocal cords
Q 6 :
What cranial nerve is tested for uvula deviation?
  1. A.Vagus nerve
  2. B.Facial nerve
  3. C.Vestibulocochlear nerve
  4. D.Hypoglossal nerve
Q 7 :
What ear symptom suggests labyrinthitis?
  1. A.Nasal obstruction
  2. B.Vertigo
  3. C.Sore throat
  4. D.Weight loss
Q 8 :
What nasal symptom suggests sinus infection?
  1. A.Facial pain
  2. B.Tinnitus
  3. C.Dysphagia
  4. D.Hoarseness
Q 9 :
What throat symptom indicates tonsillar abscess?
  1. A.Dysphagia
  2. B.Earache
  3. C.Anosmia
  4. D.Vertigo
Q 10 :
What is visualized during pinna inspection?
  1. A.Tonsil size
  2. B.Nasal mucosa
  3. C.Preauricular tags
  4. D.Thyroid nodules
Q 11 :
What does pneumatic otoscopy detect?
  1. A.Vocal cord movement
  2. B.Nasal airflow
  3. C.Fluid behind tympanic membrane
  4. D.Lymph node size
Q 12 :
What does the Rinne test indicate in conductive hearing loss?
  1. A.Air conduction better than bone
  2. B.Bone conduction better than air
  3. C.Equal air and bone conduction
  4. D.No conduction detected
Q 13 :
What is a purpose of the Weber test?
  1. A.Test thyroid function
  2. B.Assess nasal airflow
  3. C.Evaluate vocal cords
  4. D.Differentiate hearing loss type
Q 14 :
What is assessed in the Bing test?
  1. A.Vocal cord movement
  2. B.Nasal patency
  3. C.External auditory canal occlusion
  4. D.Lymph node size
Q 15 :
What is visualized during anterior rhinoscopy?
  1. A.Vocal cords
  2. B.Tympanic membrane
  3. C.Nasal cavity
  4. D.Tonsils
Q 16 :
What is a purpose of sinus transillumination?
  1. A.Evaluate vocal cords
  2. B.Assess nasal airflow
  3. C.Detect sinus pathology
  4. D.Test hearing
Q 17 :
What is examined during oropharyngoscopy?
  1. A.Nasal septum
  2. B.Tympanic membrane
  3. C.Pharyngeal mucosa
  4. D.Vocal cords
Q 18 :
In Pure Tone Audiometry, air conduction thresholds are measured using?
  1. A.Headphones or earphones
  2. B.Tuning fork
  3. C.Bone vibrator
  4. D.Loudspeaker
Q 19 :
Bone conduction thresholds in PTA are measured using?
  1. A.Headphones
  2. B.Bone vibrator
  3. C.Earphones
  4. D.Speaker
Q 20 :
An audiogram showing an air-bone gap indicates?
  1. A.Sensorineural hearing loss
  2. B.Mixed hearing loss
  3. C.Conductive hearing loss
  4. D.Normal hearing
Q 21 :
The speech banana on an audiogram represents?
  1. A.Bone conduction thresholds
  2. B.Frequencies and intensities of speech sounds
  3. C.Air conduction thresholds
  4. D.Noise levels
Q 22 :
A flat audiogram curve is typically associated with?
  1. A.Conductive hearing loss
  2. B.Sensorineural hearing loss
  3. C.Mixed hearing loss
  4. D.Normal hearing
Q 23 :
Speech Reception Threshold (SRT) is defined as the intensity level at which?
  1. A.Speech is detected but not understood
  2. B.100% of words are understood
  3. C.50% of words are understood
  4. D.Speech is uncomfortably loud
Q 24 :
Speech Discrimination Score (SDS) measures?
  1. A.Ability to detect speech
  2. B.Bone conduction thresholds
  3. C.Loudness discomfort level
  4. D.Ability to understand speech at suprathreshold levels
Q 25 :
Most Comfortable Loudness (MCL) refers to?
  1. A.Threshold for speech detection
  2. B.Loudness level where speech is most comfortably heard
  3. C.Uncomfortable loudness level
  4. D.Bone conduction threshold
Q 26 :
Uncomfortable Loudness Level (UCL) is?
  1. A.The level at which speech is detected
  2. B.The level at which sound becomes uncomfortably loud
  3. C.The level at which speech is most comfortable
  4. D.The threshold for bone conduction
Q 27 :
The Rinne test compares?
  1. A.Ipsilateral to contralateral reflexes
  2. B.Left ear to right ear
  3. C.Speech detection to speech recognition
  4. D.Air conduction to bone conduction
Q 28 :
A positive Rinne test indicates?
  1. A.Conductive hearing loss
  2. B.Bone conduction is better than air conduction
  3. C.Air conduction is better than bone conduction
  4. D.Sensorineural hearing loss
Q 29 :
A negative Rinne test is indicative of?
  1. A.Normal hearing
  2. B.Conductive hearing loss
  3. C.Sensorineural hearing loss
  4. D.Mixed hearing loss
Q 30 :
The Weber test is used to?
  1. A.Compare air and bone conduction
  2. B.Lateralize hearing loss
  3. C.Measure speech discrimination
  4. D.Assess acoustic reflexes
Q 31 :
In the Weber test, sound lateralizing to the affected ear suggests?
  1. A.Conductive hearing loss
  2. B.Sensorineural hearing loss
  3. C.Mixed hearing loss
  4. D.Normal hearing
Q 32 :
In the Weber test, sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear suggests?
  1. A.Normal hearing
  2. B.Conductive hearing loss
  3. C.Mixed hearing loss
  4. D.Sensorineural hearing loss
Q 33 :
The Bing test assesses?
  1. A.Conductive hearing loss
  2. B.Sensorineural hearing loss
  3. C.Occlusion effect in bone conduction
  4. D.Speech discrimination
Q 34 :
A positive Bing test indicates?
  1. A.Mixed hearing loss
  2. B.Conductive hearing loss
  3. C.Normal hearing or sensorineural hearing loss
  4. D.Absent acoustic reflexes
Q 35 :
The Gelle test assesses?
  1. A.Speech discrimination
  2. B.Mobility of the ossicular chain
  3. C.Acoustic reflexes
  4. D.Cochlear function
Q 36 :
A negative Gelle test suggests?
  1. A.Normal ossicular mobility
  2. B.Sensorineural hearing loss
  3. C.Ossicular fixation
  4. D.Normal hearing
Q 37 :
Impedance audiometry primarily measures?
  1. A.Neural function
  2. B.Cochlear function
  3. C.Speech discrimination
  4. D.Middle ear function
Q 38 :
A Type A tympanogram indicates?
  1. A.Normal middle ear function
  2. B.Middle ear effusion
  3. C.Negative middle ear pressure
  4. D.Ossicular discontinuity
Q 39 :
A Type As tympanogram is associated with?
  1. A.Ossicular fixation
  2. B.Normal middle ear function
  3. C.Middle ear effusion
  4. D.Eustachian tube dysfunction
Q 40 :
A Type Ad tympanogram is associated with?
  1. A.Normal middle ear function
  2. B.Middle ear effusion
  3. C.Negative middle ear pressure
  4. D.Ossicular discontinuity
Q 41 :
A Type B tympanogram is indicative of?
  1. A.Middle ear effusion or perforation
  2. B.Normal middle ear function
  3. C.Ossicular discontinuity
  4. D.Negative middle ear pressure
Q 42 :
A Type C tympanogram suggests?
  1. A.Normal middle ear function
  2. B.Middle ear effusion
  3. C.Ossicular fixation
  4. D.Negative middle ear pressure
Q 43 :
Acoustic reflexes are absent in which condition?
  1. A.Normal hearing
  2. B.Severe sensorineural hearing loss
  3. C.Mild conductive hearing loss
  4. D.Eustachian tube dysfunction
Q 44 :
Ipsilateral acoustic reflexes are mediated by?
  1. A.Vagus nerve
  2. B.Trigeminal nerve
  3. C.Facial nerve
  4. D.Glossopharyngeal nerve
Q 45 :
Contralateral acoustic reflexes involve which structure?
  1. A.Auditory cortex
  2. B.Cochlear nucleus
  3. C.Inferior colliculus
  4. D.Superior olivary complex
Q 46 :
Otoacoustic Emissions (OAEs) are generated by?
  1. A.Outer hair cells
  2. B.Inner hair cells
  3. C.Stria vascularis
  4. D.Organ of Corti
Q 47 :
Distortion Product Otoacoustic Emissions (DPOAEs) are used to assess?
  1. A.Middle ear function
  2. B.Cochlear function
  3. C.Neural function
  4. D.Eustachian tube function
Q 48 :
Transient Evoked Otoacoustic Emissions (TEOAEs) are commonly used for?
  1. A.Adult hearing assessment
  2. B.Speech discrimination testing
  3. C.Ossicular chain assessment
  4. D.Newborn hearing screening
Q 49 :
Absent OAEs in the presence of normal tympanometry suggest?
  1. A.Conductive hearing loss
  2. B.Normal hearing
  3. C.Mixed hearing loss
  4. D.Sensorineural hearing loss
Q 50 :
The most prominent wave in BERA is?
  1. A.Wave I
  2. B.Wave III
  3. C.Wave VII
  4. D.Wave V

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