Question Bank
Question for NEET PG - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English
Last Update on : October 11, 2026
Duration: 60 · Questions: 300 · Max Marks: 300
To boost your performance in NEET PG exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in NEET PG exams.
Latest NEET PG Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : ANATOMY, Physiology, Biochemistry, Pharmacology, Microbiology, Pathology, Forensic, Medicine, Social and Preventive Medicine, Medicine Dermatology and Venereology, Surgery, ENT, Orthopedics & Anaesthesia, Radiodiagnosis & Radiotherapy, Obstetrics and Gynaecology, Paediatrics, Psychiatry, Ophthalmology
Question Bank NEET PG Medical Entrance Exam
ANATOMY
Q 1 :
Diaphragm is supplied by -
- A.Phrenic nerve
- B.C2, C3, C4 Roots
- C.Thoracodorsal nerve
- D.Long thoracic nerve
Q 2 :
Which of the following is a traction epiphysis ?
- A.Distal Radius
- B.Mastoid process
- C.Tibial Condyles
- D.Coracoid Process
Q 3 :
Respiratory bronchioles are formed from -
- A.Principal bronchus
- B.Terminal bronchioles
- C.Tertiary Bronchus
- D.Lobar bronchioles
Q 4 :
Which of the following structures is related to the esophagus 22.5cm from the incisor teeth ?
- A.Arch of aorta
- B.Right principal broncus
- C.Thoracic Duct
- D.Azygous Vein
Q 5 :
Which of the following are cusps of the aortic valves ?
- A.Left, right and Anterior
- B.Anterior, Right and Posterior
- C.Posterior , Left and Right
- D.Anterior , Posterior and Left
Q 6 :
The tongue develops from all of the following except -
- A.Lingual swellings of the 1st Arch
- B.Occipital Myotomes
- C.Small dorsal part of hypobranchial eminence
- D.5th Pharyngeal arch
Q 7 :
Midgut is supplied by -
- A.Renal Artery
- B.Celiac Trunk
- C.Arch of Aorta
- D.Superior mesenteric artery
Q 8 :
All of the following is included in chest wall except ?
- A.Ribs
- B.Thoracic Vertebrae
- C.Sternum
- D.Lumbar vertebrae
Q 9 :
Anterior Rectus Sheath just above public symphysis is formed by
- A.External Oblique Aponeurosis
- B.Aponeeurosis of three muscles including External Oblique, Internal Oblique and Transversus Abdominis
- C.Linea Alba
- D.Internal Oblique only
Q 10 :
Superior gluteal nerver supplies all of the following except
- A.Gluteus medius
- B.Gluteus Maximus
- C.Gluteus Minimus
- D.Tensor Fascia Late
Q 11 :
Guyon's canal contains which of the following nerve ?
- A.Ulnar nerve
- B.Radial nerve
- C.Median nerve
- D.Anterior interosseus nerve
Q 12 :
Straight sinus is formed by -
- A.Inferior Sagittal Sinus
- B.Internal Jugular veins
- C.Superior Sagittal Sinus
- D.Tranverse sinus
Q 13 :
Yoke muscle of right superior oblique is -
- A.Left Inferior rectus
- B.Left Superior rectus
- C.Left Inferior Obliqued
- D.Left Lateral Rectus
Q 14 :
Long spinous process is seen in -
- A.Cervical vertebrae
- B.Thoracic Vertebrae
- C.Lumbar Vertebrae
- D.Sacrum
Q 15 :
Ligamentum Teres develops from -
- A.Ductus Venisus
- B.Umbilical artery
- C.Umbilical Vein
- D.Septim Primum
Physiology
Q 16 :
True about function of secretin
- A.Antagonizes the action of CCK
- B.Stimulates gastrin secretion
- C.Delay gastric emptying
- D.All of the above
Q 17 :
Nissl's granules are found in which part of nerve cell-
- A.Axon hillock
- B.Axons
- C.Node of Ranvier
- D.Body
Q 18 :
Action potential in cardiac muscles is due to which ions -
- A.K+
- B.Na+
- C.Ca+2
- D.Cl-
Q 19 :
Thick Ascending Limb of loop of Henele has which channels -
- A.Na + Cl - contransporter
- B.Na + -2Cl - - K + cotransporter
- C.ENaC channel
- D.Na + - aminoacidcotransporter
Q 20 :
True about arginine vasopression -
- A.Major action on kidney is through V 1 recepter
- B.Causes vasoconstriction
- C.Causes release of v WF
- D.Causes vasodilation
Q 21 :
True about high altitude acclimatization
- A.Left shift of O2 - Hb curve
- B.Decreased RBC count
- C.Hypoventilation
- D.Increased erythropoietin
Q 22 :
True about Carboxyhemoglobin -
- A.Take up O2 very quickly
- B.Causes histotoxic hypoxia
- C.Causes left shift of Hb- O2 dissociation curve
- D.All are true
Q 23 :
Which hormone acts through IP3 -DAG-
- A.LH
- B.FSH
- C.ADH
- D.Oxytocin
Q 24 :
True about protein kinase -
- A.Phosphorylates threonine residue
- B.Involved in IP3-DAG mechanism
- C.Activated by Ca2+
- D.All of the above
Q 25 :
True about thyroxine are all except -
- A.Increases BMR
- B.Increase oxygen consumption
- C.Decreases rate of respiration
- D.Causes lipolysis
Q 26 :
Function of surfactant is -
- A.Increase O2 diffusion
- B.Decrease airway resistance
- C.Prevents overexpansion of lung
- D.Reduction in surface tension
Q 27 :
Not true about Bohr effect -
- A.Decrease offinity of O2 by increase PCO2
- B.Left shift of Hb-O2 dissociation curve
- C.It is true to H+
- D.All are true
Q 28 :
GLUT -1 is present in-
- A.Skeletal muscle
- B.Adipose tissue
- C.Jejunum
- D.Placenta
Q 29 :
Stereociliaare present in -
- A.Taste buds
- B.Hair cells
- C.Retina
- D.Nose
Q 30 :
Stereociliaare present in -
- A.Eye
- B.Ear
- C.Tongue
- D.Nose
Biochemistry
Q 31 :
All are tryptophan derivatives except -
- A.Melanin
- B.Serotonin
- C.Melatonin
- D.Niacin
Q 32 :
True about carbohydrate absorption -
- A.Glucose absorption occurs independent of sodium
- B.Fructose absorption occurs dependent on Na
- C.Fructose absorption occurs via SGLT 1
- D.Fructose absorption is not by secondary active transport
Q 33 :
Intake of high protein diet causes-
- A.Increased gluconeogenesis
- B.Increased beta oxidation
- C.Decreased glycogenolysis
- D.metabolic alkalosis
Q 34 :
True about chaperone -
- A.Also known as HS proteins
- B.Have ATPase activity
- C.Always bind to specific areas on unfolded proteins
- D.They always acts as foldases
Q 35 :
Which vitamin used in electron transport chain -
- A.Thiamine
- B.Riboflavin
- C.Cobalamine
- D.Pyridoxine
Q 36 :
Na K ATPase is maker enzyme for-
- A.Plasma membrane
- B.Inner mitochondrial membrane
- C.Outer mitochondrial membrane
- D.Golgi body
Q 37 :
Which of the following amino acids is a component of Thioredoxinreductase -
- A.Selenocysteine
- B.Cysteine
- C.Methionine
- D.Homocysteine
Q 38 :
Dietary essential amino acid ?
- A.Cysteine
- B.Agrinine
- C.Methionine
- D.Selenocysteine
Q 39 :
Hardening of sodalime done by -
- A.CaCO3
- B.CaSO4
- C.BaSO4
- D.Sodium silicate
Q 40 :
Which enzyme joins two substrates -
- A.Lyase
- B.Ligase
- C.Isomerase
- D.Synthase
Q 41 :
Keshan disease caused by-
- A.Selenium
- B.Magnesium
- C.zinc
- D.Molybdenum
Q 42 :
NADPH used in which pathway-
- A.Fatty acid synthesis
- B.Gluconeogenesis
- C.Beta oxidation
- D.Glycogenolysis
Q 43 :
What is the inhibitor of CarnitinePalmitoylTransferase -1 [CPT- 1]
- A.ATP
- B.Acetoacetate
- C.Succiny CoA
- D.Acyl CoA
Q 44 :
Which of the following can carry larger genome ?
- A.Plasmids
- B.BAC
- C.Y AC
- D.Cosmids
Q 45 :
Which amino acid induces bends in helix ?
- A.Glycine
- B.Valine
- C.Leucine
- D.Isoleucine
Pharmacology
Q 46 :
All are TNF a inhibitors except -
- A.Adalimumab
- B.Bevacizumab
- C.Infliximab
- D.Etanercept
Q 47 :
Which of the following mydriatics has the shortest duration of action ?
- A.Atropine
- B.Homatropine
- C.Cyclopentolate
- D.Tropicamide
Q 48 :
All of the following pairs are correct except -
- A.Peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor - Benzerazide
- B.MAO- B inhibitor - Clorgyline
- C.COMT inhibitor - Entacapone
- D.Dopamine facilitation - Amantadine
Q 49 :
Topica lantifungal of choice for aspergillus infection of eye is -
- A.Miconazole
- B.Clotrimazole
- C.Econazole
- D.Fluconazole
Q 50 :
Which of the following is a topical antifungal agent ?
- A.Benzyl benzoate
- B.Brimetenide
- C.Butenafine
- D.Posconazole
Important Questions Package
NEET PG Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy NEET PG Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in NEET PG question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
| Sr. | Package Name | Amount | |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1. | NEET PG Medical Entrance Exam Description : 4780 Question with Answer | ₹800 | |
| 2. | NEET PG Medical Entrance Exam - English Description : 500 Question With Answer | ₹131 | |
| 3. | NEET PG Medical Entrance Exam Question Bank Book - English Description : <span style="color:#FF0000"><span style="font-size:18px"><span style="font-family:georgia,serif"><strong>1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)</strong></span></span></span> | ₹390 |
Pharmacology
Q 51 :
Which of the following topical steroids is the most potent ?
- A.Halobetasol propionate
- B.Fluticasone
- C.Hydrocortisone
- D.Triamcinolone acetonide
Q 52 :
Mechanism of action of finasteride is -
- A.Androgen receptor antagonist
- B.5 - α reductase inhibitor
- C.17 - hydroxylase inhibitor
- D.Aromatase inhibitor
Q 53 :
Which drug inhibits both cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase ?
- A.Aspirin
- B.Indomethacin
- C.Imidazole
- D.BW755
Q 54 :
Anti- inflammatory actions of corticosteroids are mediated by -
- A.By inhibiting angiogenesis
- B.By inhibiting breakdown of phospholipids
- C.By increasing vascularity
- D.By increasing granulation tissue formation
Q 55 :
Which of the following is dihydroorotate dehydrogenase inhibitor ?
- A.Methotrexate
- B.Leflunomide
- C.Hydroxychloroquine
- D.Sulfasalazine
Q 56 :
Mechanism of action of Teriparatide is -
- A.Recombinant PTH [rPTH]
- B.Recombinant calcitonin
- C.Recombinant insulin
- D.Recombinant prolactin
Q 57 :
Drug of choice for MRSA is -
- A.Adriamycin
- B.Vancomycin
- C.Daptomycin
- D.Demeclocycline
Q 58 :
Statins inhibit which of the following enzyme -
- A.HMG CoA reductase
- B.HMG CoA synthetase
- C.HMG CoA oxidase
- D.Acetyl CoA synthetase
Q 59 :
Which anti- TB drug causes ocular problem ?
- A.Rifampin
- B.Ethambutol
- C.Streptomycin
- D.Pyrazinamide
Q 60 :
Resistance to tuberculous drug develops by -
- A.Conjugation
- B.Point mutation
- C.Transformation
- D.Transduction
Q 61 :
Drug acting on 5HT4 receptor is -
- A.Loxiglumide
- B.Renzapride
- C.Atractiloside
- D.Metocopromide
Q 62 :
Mechanism of action of aprepitant is -
- A.RANK ligand inhibitor
- B.MMDA antagonist
- C.NK 1 receptor antagonist
- D.5 HT 3 antagonist
Q 63 :
Drug of choice for aborting the acute attack of migraine is -
- A.NSAIDs like indomethacin
- B.Opioids like morphine
- C.Triptans like sumatriptan
- D.Glucocorticoids
Q 64 :
Fastest acting anti malarial drug is -
- A.Chloroquine
- B.Quinine
- C.Mefloquine
- D.Artether
Q 65 :
Drug used for cigarette smoking cessation ?
- A.Varenicline
- B.Bupropion
- C.Mecamylamine
- D.All of the above
Microbiology
Q 66 :
Most common type of actinomycosis -
- A.Cervicofacial
- B.Thoracis
- C.Abdomen
- D.Brain
Q 67 :
Rocky mountain spotted fever is caused by -
- A.Rickettsia rickettsii
- B.Rochalimaea quintana
- C.Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
- D.Coxiella burnetii
Q 68 :
Causative agent of Q- fever-
- A.Rickettsia rickettsii
- B.Rochalimaea quintana
- C.Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
- D.Coxiella burnetii
Q 69 :
True about listeria are all except -
- A.Shows beta hemolysis
- B.Shows tumbling motilty
- C.Gram negative
- D.PALCAM agar selective media
Q 70 :
Cat scratch disease is caused by-
- A.Streptobacillus moniliformis
- B.Spirillum minus
- C.B. Henselae
- D.R. tsutsugamushi
Q 71 :
Most effective test for prognosis of syphilis is -
- A.VDRL
- B.FRA-ABS
- C.TP-PA
- D.CFT
Q 72 :
E.coli 0157 : H 7 can cause -
- A.G B syndrome
- B.Hemolytic uremic sydrome
- C.Traveller diarrhea
- D.All of the above
Q 73 :
Which of the following fungus is exclusively seen in Reticuloendothelial cells -
- A.Cryptococcus
- B.Candida
- C.Aspergillus
- D.Histoplasma
Q 74 :
Hand foot mouth disease is caused by -
- A.Enterovirus - 70
- B.Coxsackie - A virus
- C.Coxsackie - B virus
- D.Enterovirus
Q 75 :
Antigenic variation seen in which of the following -
- A.Influenza virus
- B.Hepatitis virus
- C.Yellow fever virus
- D.Leptospira
Q 76 :
Vector of yellow fever -
- A.Culex
- B.Aedes
- C.Tse-Tse fly
- D.None
Q 77 :
Varicella -Zoster virus is not associated with -
- A.Latent infection
- B.Chicken pox
- C.Centrifugal rash
- D.Thromboxytopenia
Q 78 :
Culture medium used for entamoeba histolytica -
- A.Blood agar
- B.Philip's medium
- C.CLED medium
- D.Trypticase serum
Q 79 :
Which cancer is caused by Schistosoma hematobium -
- A.Colorectal cancer
- B.Bile duct carcinoma
- C.Pancreatic cancer
- D.Urinary bladder cancer
Q 80 :
Wool-Sorter disease is caused by -
- A.Pseudonmonas
- B.Bacillus anthracis
- C.Vibrio parahemolyticus
- D.Spirillus minor
Q 81 :
Most common cause of catheter induced UTI -
- A.E. coli
- B.Proteus
- C.Pseudomonas
- D.Streptococed
Q 82 :
True about bacterial cell division is -
- A.Mitosis
- B.Binary fission
- C.Always break apart
- D.All are correct
Q 83 :
Capsid of virus is coded by -
- A.Viral nucleic acid
- B.Host cell nuclet acid
- C.Bacteriophase genone
- D.Any of the above
Q 84 :
Single stranded DNA virus-
- A.Papillomavirus
- B.Parvovirus
- C.Hepadnavirus
- D.Flavivirus
Q 85 :
Molluscum cantagiosum is caused by -
- A.Poxvirus
- B.Picornavirus
- C.Parvovirus
- D.Flvivirus
Pathology
Q 86 :
Scavenger receptors are for ?
- A.Oxidized LDL
- B.Reduced LDL
- C.HDL
- D.VLDL
Q 87 :
Warthin Finkedly bodies are found in ?
- A.Tuberculosis
- B.Sarcoidosis
- C.Herpes
- D.Measles
Q 88 :
Vitamin A deficiency leads to metaplasia of ?
- A.Squamous epithelium
- B.Columnar epithelium
- C.Both
- D.None
Q 89 :
Megaloblastic anemia is due to ?
- A.Folic acid deficiency
- B.Vitamin B6 deficiency
- C.Defect in RNA synthesis
- D.Defect in protein synthesis
Q 90 :
All are true about Patterson Kelly syndrome except ?
- A.Iron deficiency anemia
- B.Cheilosis
- C.Esophageal webs
- D.Gastric polyps
Q 91 :
Not a cause of constrictive pericarditis ?
- A.TB
- B.Sarcoidosis
- C.SLE
- D.Trauma
Q 92 :
Lipofuscin containing macrophages are a feature of ?
- A.Wear and fear
- B.Fat deposit
- C.Iron deficiency
- D.Calcification
Q 93 :
CA- 125 is ?
- A.Mucin glycoprotein
- B.Carcinoma transmigration antigen
- C.Mucopolysaccharide
- D.Lipid
Q 94 :
Complement mediated hypersensitivity reaction is ?
- A.Type - 1 hypersensitivity
- B.Type- 2 hypersensitivity
- C.Type - 4 hypersensitivity
- D.None
Q 95 :
Not true about apotosis is ?
- A.Cellular swelling
- B.Nuclear compaction
- C.Intact cell membrane
- D.Cytoplasmic eosinophlia
Q 96 :
All are true about Toll like receptors except ?
- A.Recognize microbial molecules
- B.Activation of immune system
- C.Regulation of calcium channel
- D.Activation of transcription factors
Q 97 :
T -cell mediated disease is ?
- A.Asthma
- B.Myasthenia gravis
- C.SLE
- D.Sarcoidosis
Q 98 :
Acute phase reactants are stimulated by -
- A.IL- 6
- B.IL-1
- C.TNF-
- D.All of the above
Q 99 :
Group - D chromosome is ?
- A.Chromosome 3
- B.Chromosome 6
- C.Chromosome 12
- D.Chromosome 15
Q 100 :
Most common type of heavy chain disease is ?
- A.Alpha chain disease
- B.Gamma chain disease
- C.Mu chain disease
- D.Delta chain disease
Q 101 :
Following is specific for hemolytic uremic syndrome ?
- A.Thrombotic Microangiopathy
- B.Coomb's positive hemolytic anemia
- C.Neural manifestations
- D.None of the above
Q 102 :
Fibroblast proliferation is stimulated by ?
- A.TGF -β
- B.IFN-γ
- C.TNF- α
- D.IL- 10
Q 103 :
True about thromboxane - A 2 is ?
- A.Vasodilatation
- B.Platelet aggregation
- C.Potentiation of edema
- D.Formed in endothelium
Q 104 :
Granulomatous lung disease is caused by ?
- A.Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
- B.Sarcoma
- C.Bronchogenic carcinoma
- D.Bronchogenic cyst
Q 105 :
Heinz bodies are removed by ?
- A.Macrophages
- B.Lymphocytes
- C.Neutrophills
- D.Fibroblasts
Q 106 :
Most potent antigen presenting cell is ?
- A.B cells
- B.Dendritic cells
- C.T cells
- D.NK cells
Q 107 :
Following is tumor marker for lung ?
- A.S- 100
- B.CEA
- C.CD -99
- D.Beta 2 microgobulin
Q 108 :
Gene for embryogenic stem cell is ?
- A.Oct- 4
- B.Nanog
- C.GJA1
- D.All of the above
Q 109 :
Cystic supratentorial tumor is ?
- A.Craniopharyngioma
- B.Ependymoma
- C.Medulloblastoma
- D.None of the above
Q 110 :
Alzheimer's disease is due to ?
- A.Increase in cerebral acetyl choline level
- B.Abnormal phosphoryation of tau proteins
- C.Ventricular atrophy
- D.All of the above
Forensic
Q 111 :
Domestic violence against wife by husband for dowry is covered under which section of IPC?
- A.304
- B.306
- C.398
- D.498
Q 112 :
Section 84 IPC for?
- A.Criminal responsibility of insane
- B.Criminal responsibility of child under seven years of age
- C.Criminal responsibility of drunken person
- D.Criminal responsibility of intoxicated person
Q 113 :
Earliest sign of fetal death-
- A.Spalding sign
- B.Robert’s sign
- C.Ball sign
- D.Adipocere formation
Q 114 :
First carpal bone to appear is?
- A.Trapezium
- B.Capitate
- C.Pisiform
- D.Lunate
Q 115 :
Ossification center to appear before birth-
- A.Medial epicondyle of humerus
- B.Olecranon
- C.Clavicle
- D.Pisiform
Medicine
Q 116 :
Gorlins formula is used to calculate
- A.Area of stenotic aortic valve
- B.Amount of daily calorie intake
- C.Body mass index
- D.Basal metabolic rate
Q 117 :
Modified wells criteria is used for initial assessment of patients with suspected-
- A.Pulmonary embolism
- B.Pleural effusion
- C.Cardiac tamponade
- D.Myocardial infarction
Q 118 :
Value of PaO2 / FiO2 characteristic of ARDS is-
- A.< 200 mmHg
- B.200 – 400 mmHg
- C.400 – 600 mmHg
- D.600 – 800 mmHg
Q 119 :
Which of the following is true about Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state-
- A.It is more common in young patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B.Mental status is not altered in any case
- C.There is associated hypertension and tachycardia
- D.Kussumaul respirations are characteristic
Q 120 :
Hypercalcemia related to malignancy is seen in which of the following cancers?
- A.Multiple myeloma
- B.Lung carcinoma
- C.Carcinoma breast
- D.All the above
Social and Preventive Medicine
Q 121 :
A person is said to killed by road traffic accident if he dies within how many days of accident -
- A.12 days
- B.30 days
- C.40 days
- D.47 days
Q 122 :
Acceptable noise level in industries -
- A.25-30 dB
- B.30-40 dB
- C.40-50 dB
- D.60-80 dB
Q 123 :
Aedes mosquito grows in -
- A.Clean water
- B.Artificial water collection
- C.Stagnant drains
- D.Water bodies containing plants
Q 124 :
Replacement & periodic examination in radiation industary is recommended -
- A.Every month
- B.Every 2 months
- C.Every 6 months
- D.Every year
Q 125 :
True about mosquito preventive nets are all except-
- A.Hole size <0.0475
- B.150 holes per square inch
- C.Best pattern in circular
- D.There should be no rent
Q 126 :
Component of HDI are all except -
- A.Life expectancy
- B.Knowledge
- C.Income
- D.Social status
Q 127 :
Extended sickness benefit is payable of -
- A.91 days
- B.150 days
- C.207 days
- D.309 days
Q 128 :
Reservior for scrub typhus -
- A.Mite
- B.Humans
- C.Rodents
- D.Dogs
Q 129 :
Least failure rate is seen in which IUD-
- A.CUT-200
- B.Lippes lood
- C.LNG-IUD
- D.Nova - T
Q 130 :
Human milk contains how much calaries [per 100 gm]-
- A.45
- B.72
- C.117
- D.146
Q 131 :
Rice is deficient in which amino acid -
- A.Serine
- B.Threonine
- C.Methonine
- D.Cystone
Q 132 :
Rice protein is deficient in -
- A.Methionine
- B.Cystein
- C.Lysine
- D.Tryptophon
Q 133 :
If a conraceptive has failure rate of 15, how many unplanned pregnancies will the female have in her reproductive period .
- A.3.5
- B.4.0
- C.4.5
- D.5
Q 134 :
In a population of 10,000 literate people are 4000. In same population 2000 are 0-6 years old . What is the literacy rate of that population -
- A.30%
- B.40%
- C.50%
- D.60%
Q 135 :
Which graph shows continuous frequency distribution -
- A.Bar dagram
- B.Pie chart
- C.Histogram
- D.Scatter diagrom
Q 136 :
Which of the following shows progresion of events against time -
- A.Bar chart
- B.Pie chart
- C.Histogram
- D.Line diagram
Q 137 :
Relative risk of 5 mean-
- A.50% of disease among exposed is due to exposuse to risk factor
- B.50% of disease [among exposed & non exposed ] is due to risk factors
- C.Incidence of disease is 5 times higher in exposed group
- D.Incidence of disease is 50% more in exposed group
Q 138 :
In a case of meningitis , neiserria meningitides was grown in culture after 48 hours. Which measure is to be taken immediately -
- A.Isolation of contacts
- B.Antibiotic treatment of contacts
- C.Vaccination of contact
- D.All of the above
Q 139 :
Which is a preventable causes of blindness -
- A.Cataract
- B.Vitamin A deficiency
- C.Refractive errors
- D.Retinal dystrophies
Q 140 :
Which of the following is not an avoidable cause of blindness -
- A.Cataract
- B.Vitamin A deficiency
- C.Refractive errors
- D.Retinal dystrophies
Q 141 :
Used urine bags are disposed in which color bag-
- A.Red
- B.Yellow
- C.white
- D.Black
Q 142 :
Daily physical activity/ exercise is which type of prevention -
- A.Primordial
- B.Primary
- C.Secondary
- D.Tertiary
Q 143 :
Neurolathyrism is due to ingestion of -
- A.Ergot alkaloid
- B.Crotolaric seeds
- C.Khesari Dal
- D.Sanguinarine
Q 144 :
The purpose is to limit the incidence of disease by controlling causes and risk factors
- A.Primordial prevention
- B.Primary prevention
- C.Secondary prevention
- D.Tertiary prevention
Q 145 :
ESI act is under which ministry-
- A.Ministry of human resources developments
- B.Ministry if social welfare
- C.Ministry of labour and employment
- D.Ministry of health & education
Medicine Dermatology and Venereology
Q 146 :
Civatte bodies are a feature of?
- A.Lichen simplex chronicus
- B.Lichen planus
- C.Lichen sclerosus
- D.All of the above
Q 147 :
Koenon’s periungual fibroma is a feature of?
- A.Kawasaki’s disease
- B.Refsum disease
- C.Darrier’s disease
- D.Bournville’s disease
Q 148 :
Wood’s lamp examination is useful in?
- A.Psoriasis
- B.Leprosy
- C.Lichen planus
- D.Icthyosis
Q 149 :
Which of the following is a melanising agent?
- A.Methoxsalen
- B.Dapsone
- C.Minocycline
- D.Kojic acid
Q 150 :
Fordyce spots involve?
- A.Penis
- B.Tongue
- C.Fingers
- D.Nails
Q 151 :
A 23 years old female patient presented with sever diffuse hair fall for last 1 month. She had a major accident with severe blood loss 5 months back for which she had to be hospitalized for 1 month. She is very anxious that all her hair will fall. Most likely diagnosis is?
- A.Alopecia aerate
- B.Telogen effluvium
- C.Anagen effluvium
- D.Androgenetic alopecia
Q 152 :
Most common etiology of erythema multiforme is?
- A.Idiopatic
- B.Drugs
- C.HSV
- D.TB
Q 153 :
Palmoplanter keratoderma is a feature of?
- A.Pemphigus
- B.Verruca plana
- C.Psoriasis
- D.Pityriasis rubra pilaris
Q 154 :
Fox Fordyce disease is a disease of?
- A.Eccrine glands
- B.Apocrine glands
- C.Holocrine glands
- D.Endocrine glands
Q 155 :
Darier’s sign is seen in?
- A.Atopic dermatitis
- B.Urticaria pigmentosa
- C.Darier’s disease
- D.Erythema multiforme
Q 156 :
Which of the following epidermal layer is dead layer?
- A.Stratum basale
- B.Stratum spinosum
- C.Stratum corneum
- D.Stratum granulosum
Q 157 :
Hypopigmented macules are found in?
- A.Addison’s disease
- B.Porphyria
- C.Cultaneous mastocytosis
- D.Tuberous sclerosis
Q 158 :
Substance common in skin and hair is?
- A.Keratin
- B.Laminin
- C.Nectin
- D.Vimentin
Q 159 :
Level of split in pemphigus foliaceous is at the level of?
- A.Stratum corneum
- B.Stratum spinosum
- C.Stratum granularis
- D.Stratum basale
Q 160 :
Which of the following disease is closely related too enetropathy?
- A.Linear Ig A disease
- B.Pemphigus foliaceous
- C.Dermatitis herpetiformis
- D.Erythema multiforme
Q 161 :
Residual Hypopigmentation following a drug reaction, is best known as?
- A.Vitiligo
- B.Chemical leukoderma
- C.Post inflammatory hypomelanosis
- D.Piebaldism
Q 162 :
Most common pattern of onychomycosis is?
- A.Distal and lateral subungual
- B.Proximal subungual
- C.White superficial
- D.Total dystrophic
Q 163 :
Which of the following is not a feature of dermatomyosistis?
- A.‘V’ sign
- B.Holster sign
- C.Pokiloderma
- D.Groove sign
Q 164 :
Not a feature of candida intertrigo is?
- A.Obesity is a risk factor
- B.C. albicans is the most common causative species
- C.Central scaling
- D.Satellite lesions
Q 165 :
Scaling is not feature of which of the following?
- A.Tinea
- B.Lichen planus
- C.Herpes zoster
- D.Reiter’s disease
Q 166 :
A 32 years old lady from Chhattisgarh tribal area came with an erythematous indurated plaque with scarring on right side of face and extension to ear lobe. Most likely diagnosis is?
- A.Lepromatous leprosy
- B.Molluscum contagious
- C.Lupus vulgaris
- D.Pityriasis rubra pilaris
Q 167 :
Vitiligo is commonly associated with?
- A.Celiac sprue
- B.PCOD
- C.Diabetes
- D.Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
Q 168 :
A 40 year male old patient presents with multiple erythematous annular lesions with peripheral scales arranged predominantly on trunk. Treatment of choice is-
- A.Topical steroids
- B.Systematic steroids
- C.Systematic Azathioprine
- D.Topical antifugal
Q 169 :
Podophyllin resin is indicated for the treatment of?
- A.Syphilis
- B.Herpes genitalis
- C.Anogenital warts
- D.LGV
Q 170 :
Increase in the thickness of the prickle cell layer of the epidermal is called?
- A.Spongiosis
- B.Acanthosis
- C.Hypergranulosis
- D.Hyperkeratosis
Q 171 :
Differential diagnosis of rosacea includes all of the following except?
- A.Acne vulgaris
- B.Lupus erythematosus
- C.BCC
- D.Melasma
Q 172 :
Woronoff’s ring is a feature of?
- A.Psoriasis
- B.Lichen planus
- C.Pityriasis rosea
- D.Pemphigus
Q 173 :
Most important factor in causation of Ingrown toe nail is?
- A.Fungal infection
- B.Ill fitting shoes
- C.Genetic predisposition
- D.Nutritional deficiency
Q 174 :
Which of the following is not a feature of lichen planus?
- A.Pterygium
- B.Spontaneous healing
- C.Scarring alopecia
- D.Not premalignment
Q 175 :
Which of the following is not true for scabies?
- A.Wrist is common site in children
- B.Burrows are intradermal lesions
- C.Papules and pustules are due to hypersensitivity to mite
- D.Itching generalized
Q 176 :
Treatment of choice for scabies is?
- A.Crotamiton [10%]
- B.Benzyl benzoate [25%]
- C.Malathion [0.5%]
- D.Permathrin [5%]
Q 177 :
Langerhans cell are seen in which layer of skin?
- A.Stratum basal
- B.Stratum carneum
- C.Stratum granulosum
- D.Stratum spinosum
Q 178 :
Selenium sulphide is used in the treatment of?
- A.Scabies
- B.T. versicolor
- C.T. cruris
- D.Cutaneous leishmaniasia
Q 179 :
First generation topical retinoid is?
- A.Retinoic acid
- B.Adapalene
- C.Tazarotene
- D.Acitretin
Q 180 :
Apple jelly nodules are seen in?
- A.Erythema nodosum
- B.Dermatomyositis
- C.Cutaneous tuberculosis
- D.SLE
Q 181 :
Pompholyx affects?
- A.Flexors
- B.Extensors
- C.Palms and soles
- D.Face
Q 182 :
Treatment of choice for mycosis fungoides in tumor stage is?
- A.PUVA therapy
- B.Chemotherapy
- C.Electron beam therapy
- D.Topical corticosteroids
Surgery, ENT, Orthopedics & Anaesthesia
Q 183 :
Hadfields operation is performed for which of the following pathology ?
- A.Duct ectasia
- B.Fibroadenoma
- C.Mondors disease
- D.Inflammatory breast carcinoma
Q 184 :
Which of the following is not true about medullary thyroid cancinoma ?
- A.Are a type of neuroendocrine tumors
- B.Associated with MEN 2 A and 2 B syndrome
- C.Form about 25% of the thyroid malignancies
- D.Tumor cells may secrete serotonin, ACTH and VIP
Q 185 :
Which of the following is not a marker for severity of acute pancreatitis ?
- A.Serum amylase and / or serum lipase
- B.Hematocirt > 44%
- C.BUN > 22 mg%
- D.None of the above
Q 186 :
Lucid interval is classically seen in –
- A.Extradural hematoma
- B.Acute subdural hematoma
- C.Chronic subdural hematoma
- D.Intraventricular hemorrhage
Q 187 :
Shoulder pain after laproscopic surgery, next step in management is –
- A.Oral paracetamol for 2-3 days
- B.USG of shoulder region
- C.Diagnostic shoulder arthroscopy
- D.Intraarticular lignocaine injection
Q 188 :
Which of the following should be done for an acute onset painful scrotal swelling in 12 years old male ?
- A.Doppler stethoscope evaluation
- B.Administer analgestics
- C.Advise bed rest
- D.Administer antibiotics
Q 189 :
Earliest hematological change following spleenectomy is –
- A.Leuckocytosis and thrombocytosis
- B.Presence of Heinz bodies
- C.Evidence of Howell Jolly bodies
- D.Pikilocytosis
Q 190 :
Following road traffic accident patient suffers polytrauma and is evaluated in the emergency section of the hospital . His pulse rate is 116 , respiratory rate is 24, blood pressure of 122/78 mm of Hg and patient is mildly anxious . What is the approximate blood loss patient has following trauma ?
- A.<750 ml
- B.750 -15 00ml
- C.1500-2000 ml
- D.>2000ml
Q 191 :
First treatment of flail chest is –
- A.O2 administration and analgesia
- B.Mechanical ventrilation
- C.Surgical stabilization
- D.Intrapleural analgesia
Q 192 :
Salivary gland stone is most common in which salivary gland ?
- A.Parotid gland
- B.Submandibular gland
- C.Sublingual gland
- D.Minor salivary gland
Q 193 :
Sebaceous cyst occurs occur in all the following locations in body except –
- A.Palms and soles
- B.Axilla
- C.Back
- D.Pubic area
Q 194 :
Sentinel lymph node biopsy is used for –
- A.Breast carcinoma
- B.Penile carcinoma
- C.Retroperitoneal sarcoma
- D.Hepatic carcinoma
Q 195 :
Which of the following is true abut Singer's nodule ?
- A.It occurs at the junction of anterior 1/3rd and posterior 2/3rd
- B.Most common symptom is pain
- C.Requites excision as potentially mailgnant
- D.Laser therapy is the treatment of choice
Q 196 :
Agger nasi is -
- A.Mucosal flap covering the nasolacrimal duct
- B.Opening of the sinuses
- C.Depression in front of middle turbinate
- D.Elevation anterior to middle turbinate
Q 197 :
Lesion at which along the course of facial nerve would lead to loss of lacrimation and taste ?
- A.Distal to origin of chorda tympani
- B.Between second genu and midportion of vertical segment
- C.Distal to geniculate ganglion and proximal to second genu
- D.Proximal to geniculate ganglion
Q 198 :
Quadrungular septum is seen in which of the following ?
- A.Larynx
- B.Nose
- C.Cranium
- D.Palate
Q 199 :
Tensor tympani is attached at ?
- A.Malleus
- B.Incus
- C.Stapes
- D.Tympanic membrane
Q 200 :
Reinke's space is seen in which of the following ?
- A.Vocal cords
- B.Subglottis
- C.Epiglottis
- D.Pharynx
Q 201 :
Eustachian tube opens in ?
- A.Inner ear
- B.Middle ear
- C.Outer ear
- D.Larynx
Q 202 :
Nasal bone fracture is corrected by ?
- A.Open reduction immediately
- B.Open reduction after 3 days
- C.Open reduction after 3 weeks
- D.Open reduction after 3 months
Q 203 :
Adenoidectomy is contraindicated in which of the following ?
- A.Bleeding disorder
- B.Infection
- C.Submucous palate
- D.All of the above
Q 204 :
Angle made by tympanic membrane with floor of the meatus ?
- A.35 degrees
- B.55 degrees
- C.75 degrees
- D.90 degrees
Q 205 :
Vesicles on external ear are seen in -
- A.Otitis externa
- B.Malignant otitis externa
- C.Herpes zoster
- D.Clear cell carcinoma
Q 206 :
Which muscle is a tensor of vocal cord ?
- A.Cricoarytenoid
- B.Cricothyroid
- C.Interarytenoid
- D.Thyroaryteniod
Q 207 :
Iliotibial band contracture in patients of poliomyelitis will lead to -
- A.Flexion at hip and knee
- B.Flexion at hip, extention at knee
- C.Extention at hip flexion at knee
- D.Extention at hip and knee
Q 208 :
Not true about anterior cruciate ligament -
- A.It begins just behind the anterior horn of lateral meniscus on tibia
- B.It is taut in extention
- C.It provides propriceptive inputs to knee
- D.It is intrasynovial
Q 209 :
Jumpers knee -
- A.Apophysitis of patellar tendon as it inserts in patella
- B.Apophysitis of patellar tendon as it inserts in tibia
- C.Apophysitis of quadriceps tendon as it inserts in patella
- D.Apophysitis of hamstring tendon as it inserts in tibia
Q 210 :
CTEV shoe true is -
- A.It is the same as normal shoe
- B.It has straight medial border
- C.It has medical shoe raise
- D.It has heel with extra length
Q 211 :
Which of the following is not true regarding in flammatory arthritis -
- A.Presence of morning stiffness
- B.Sclerosis on X-ray
- C.Anemia of chronic disease
- D.Presence of fever , weight loss and elevated ESR
Q 212 :
Cubitus valgus develops as complication of -
- A.Jupitor fracture
- B.Smiths fracture
- C.Malgaigne fracture
- D.Staddle fracture
Q 213 :
Which of the following is not true about Galeazzi fracture dislocation ?
- A.Fracture of distal third of radius and dislocation of distal radio -ulnar joint
- B.Results from fall on outstretched hand
- C.The distal end of ulna dislocates volarly after disruption of distal radio-ulnar joint
- D.Radius is angulated medially and anteriorly
Q 214 :
Which of following is not true about the tests for hip instability in neonates ?
- A.Ortolanis test has two parts
- B.They are performed at 2 -3 days of birth
- C.In ortolanis test examiners fingers rest on the greater trochanter
- D.In barlows test examiners thumb is placed in the groin
Q 215 :
Most commonly lesion associated with pathological fracture in hand is -
- A.Enchondroma
- B.Metastases
- C.Osteoid osteoma
- D.Osteochondroma
Q 216 :
Bamboo spine appearance is seen in -
- A.Ankylosing spondylitis
- B.Rheumatoid arthritis
- C.Osteoarthritis
- D.DISH
Q 217 :
Most common complication of central venous line insertion is?
- A.Lung apex injury
- B.Infection at catheter site
- C.Cardiac tamponade
- D.Pneumothorax
Q 218 :
Fastest acting inhalational anaesthetic agent is?
- A.Sevoflurane
- B.Isoflurane
- C.Ether
- D.Halothane
Q 219 :
True about capnography is?
- A.It cannot detect esophageal intubation
- B.It cannot detect mechanical ventilation failure
- C.It is used to detect correct intubation in patients
- D.It cannot detect saddle embolism
Q 220 :
Which of the following prevents aspiration?
- A.LMA
- B.airway
- C.Nasopharyngeal airway
- D.Proseal LMA
Q 221 :
Not true about CPR?
- A.Chest compressions at 100/min
- B.Ratio 30:2
- C.Chest compression > 6 inches
- D.Breathing rate 8-10 breaths/min
Q 222 :
Appropriate post operative urine output is?
- A.1 ml/kg/hr
- B.2 ml/kg/hr
- C.3 ml/kg/hr
- D.4 ml/kg/hr
Q 223 :
Shifting patient from assisted ventilation to voluntary ventilation which of the following shows failure?
- A.O2 saturation < 80%
- B.PEEP < 5cms
- C.RR < 35mins
- D.Tidal volume > 5 ml/kg
Q 224 :
Ideal inhalational inducing agent of choice is?
- A.Halothane
- B.Desflurane
- C.Sevoflurane
- D.Isoflurane
Q 225 :
Which anaesthetic agent is safe to use in porphyria?
- A.Etomidate
- B.Ketamine
- C.Thiopentone
- D.Propofol
Q 226 :
Positive and-expiratory pressure causes increase in which respiratory parameter-
- A.Lung compliance
- B.FRC
- C.Tidal volume
- D.All of the above
Q 227 :
Brain dead patient comes under which category in ASA classification?
- A.ASA 1
- B.ASA 3
- C.ASA 4
- D.ASA 6
Q 228 :
Which of the following mixture of anaesthetics is applied on skin?
- A.Lidocaine and prilocaine
- B.Bupivacaine and prilocaine
- C.Lidocaine and Bupivacaine
- D.Lidocaine and procaine
Radiodiagnosis & Radiotherapy
Q 229 :
Bird beak sign of barium swallow is seen in?
- A.Achalasia cardia
- B.Carcinoma esophagus
- C.Hiatus hernia
- D.Nut cracker esophagus
Q 230 :
USG findings of focal anechoic lesion with floating membranes indicated toward which liver pathology?
- A.Pyogenic abscess
- B.Hemangioma
- C.Amoebic abscess
- D.Hydatid cyst
Q 231 :
The best investigation to detect renal stone is-
- A.X-ray
- B.CT
- C.MRI
- D.US
Q 232 :
Egg on side appearance is seen in-
- A.Fallot’s tetralogy
- B.TAPVC
- C.TGA
- D.Ebstein’s anomaly
Q 233 :
Electron beam therapy is used for which tumor-
- A.Renal carcinoma
- B.Kaposi sarcoma
- C.Hepatic carcinoma
- D.AML
Q 234 :
Earliest sign indicative of sacroilitis on X-ray is?
- A.Osteophytes
- B.Erosion
- C.Blurring of SI joint
- D.Sclerosis
Q 235 :
Salt pepper skull is seen in?
- A.Multiple myeloma
- B.Hyperparathyroidism
- C.Sickle cell anemia
- D.Fibrous dysplasia
Q 236 :
Delta sign on CT is seen in?
- A.Gradenigo syndrome
- B.Subdural hematoma
- C.Extradural hematoma
- D.Sagittal sinus thrombosis
Q 237 :
Threshold radiation dose for haematological syndrome is?
- A.3 Gy
- B.6 Gy
- C.15 Gy
- D.50 Gy
Q 238 :
Hummingbird sign in brain MRI is seen in-
- A.Multiple sclerosis
- B.Progressive supranuclear palsy
- C.Parkinson’s disease
- D.Alzheimer disease
Q 239 :
Lyre sign is seen in-
- A.Meningioma
- B.Acoustic neuroma
- C.Sagittal sinus thrombosis
- D.Carotid body tumor
Q 240 :
Best investigation to detect bone metastasis is-
- A.X-ray
- B.MRI
- C.Ultrasound
- D.Bone scan
Obstetrics and Gynaecology
Q 241 :
Which of the following condition is screened by “Pap Smear” ?
- A.Ovarian cancer
- B.Endometrial cancer
- C.Cervical cancer
- D.Breast Cancer
Q 242 :
Aspermia means -
- A.Absence of sperms in semen
- B.Absence of semen
- C.100% immobile sperms
- D.None of the above
Q 243 :
AMH/ MIS is secreted by
- A.Leydig cells
- B.Sertoli cells
- C.Theca cells
- D.All of the above
Q 244 :
Which of the following is not a part of PID-
- A.Endometritis
- B.Cervicitis
- C.Tuboovarian abcess
- D.Peritonitis
Q 245 :
LNG content of Mirena is -
- A.20 gms
- B.20 mg
- C.52 gms
- D.52 mgs
Q 246 :
Which of the following decreases the risk of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease ?
- A.Cu T
- B.Spermicidal agents
- C.O, C , pills
- D.Today vaginal sponge
Q 247 :
Complications of Pre eclampsia are all except -
- A.(a) Post datism
- B.DIC
- C.Blindness
- D.None of the above
Q 248 :
What is monitored in a patient of Pre eclasmsia ?
- A.Uric acid
- B.Platlet count
- C.LFT
- D.All of the above
Q 249 :
In a pregnant lady with hyperthyroidism , the safest drug to be used is -
- A.Propylthiouracil
- B.Actinomycin D
- C.Suction evacuation
- D.Combination of all
Q 250 :
Patient with choriocarcinoma & jaundice , treatment of choice is -
- A.Methotreaxate
- B.Actinomycin D
- C.Suction evacuation
- D.Combination of all
Q 251 :
Crying of fetus in utero is called as -
- A.Vagitus uterinus
- B.First cry
- C.Utero vaginalis
- D.Vagitus vagina
Q 252 :
Betamethasone given to preterm patient for all except -
- A.Fetal lung maturity
- B.Decrease intraventricular hemorrhage
- C.Prevents periventricular leukomalacia
- D.Prevent PPH
Q 253 :
True about cephalhematoma is :
- A.Crosses the suture lines
- B.Always present at birth
- C.Ventouse delivery is a risk factor
- D.All of the above
Q 254 :
The prostaglandin most commonly used at term for induction of labor is -
- A.PGI2
- B.PGE 1
- C.PGE 2
- D.PGF2 α
Q 255 :
Medical management of fibroids is with all except -
- A.Progesterone
- B.Mifepristone
- C.Ulipristal acetate
- D.Misoprostol
Q 256 :
hCG levels at which Expectant management of Ectopic pregnancy can be done -
- A.10000 IU/L
- B.1000 IU / L
- C.2500 IU/L
- D.5000 IU/ L
Q 257 :
Embryo is called "fetus" after how many weeks post fertilization /conception ?
- A.6
- B.8
- C.10
- D.12
Q 258 :
Shortest transverse diameter is -
- A.BPD
- B.Bitemporal diameter
- C.Bimastoid diameter
- D.All are equal in length
Q 259 :
Best indicator of gestational age in first trimeseter is -
- A.Gestational sac
- B.C. R. L .
- C.Yolk sac
- D.B.. P. D
Q 260 :
Triple Marker test includes -
- A.hCG, AFP , and unconjugated estriol
- B.hCG, AFP, and unconjugated estradiol
- C.hCG, PAPP- A , unconjugated estriol
- D.Inhibin A, hCG & PAPP- A
Q 261 :
Sperm capacitation takes place in -
- A.Testes
- B.Epididymis
- C.Female genital tract
- D.All of the above
Q 262 :
DOC for anovulatory inferllity is -
- A.Clomiphene citrate
- B.Letrozole
- C.Anastrozole
- D.Gonadotropins
Q 263 :
Which is not a feature of inevitable abortion
- A.Bleeding PV
- B.Pain
- C.Closed internal os
- D.None of the above
Q 264 :
RMP can perform MTP in first trimester if he has assisted in ..........MTPs
- A.5
- B.15
- C.25
- D.50
Q 265 :
Endometriosis is -
- A.Endometrium within the myometrium
- B.Function endometrium outside the uterus
- C.Myometrium within the endometrium
- D.Rare squamous variety of CA endometrium
Paediatrics
Q 266 :
What is the age of the child who draws a circle and builds tower of 7 cubes?
- A.1 year
- B.2 years
- C.2 ½ years
- D.3 years
Q 267 :
A 9 month old child with respiratory rate 53/min and presence of cough is classified as-
- A.SIRS
- B.Respiratory distress
- C.Tachypnoea
- D.ARDS
Q 268 :
Which of the following is not a sign of severe dehydration?
- A.Tachycardia
- B.Anuria
- C.Increased thirst
- D.Delayed capillary refill [>3 sec]
Q 269 :
Anterior fontanelle closes by what age?
- A.At term
- B.1 month
- C.18 months
- D.28 months
Q 270 :
Trigonocephaly is due to premature closure of which suture?
- A.Sagittal suture
- B.Metopic suture
- C.Lanbdoid suture
- D.Coronal suture
Q 271 :
Russell silver syndrome is associated with which of the following?
- A.Autosomal inheritance
- B.X – linked inheritance
- C.Sporadic gene mutation
- D.Uniparental disomy
Q 272 :
A newborn after prolonged labor is not breathing well and after 30 seconds of receiving 100% oxygen by bag and mask, heart rate is 88 beats per min, what is the next step in management?
- A.Discontinue oxygen and ventilation
- B.Discontinue oxygen, continue ventilation
- C.Continue oxygen and ventilation
- D.Start chest compressions
Q 273 :
Breast milk protects from infections as it contains all of the following except:
- A.IgE
- B.Lactoferin
- C.Bifidus factor
- D.PABA
Q 274 :
Which of the following is not a feature of Down’s syndrome?
- A.Hypotonia
- B.Infections
- C.Female infertility
- D.Early onset Alzheimer’s disease
Q 275 :
Most common cause of cranial irradiation in children is:
- A.Small cell lung Ca
- B.ALL
- C.AML
- D.Craniopharyngioma
Q 276 :
All of the following disorders follow Mendelian inheritance except:
- A.Marfan’s syndrome
- B.Cystic fibrosis
- C.Leber hereditary optic neuropathy
- D.Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Q 277 :
Congenital syphilis can be best diagnosed by-
- A.IgM FTA – ABS
- B.IgG FTA – ABS
- C.VDRL
- D.TPI
Q 278 :
By what age is the milestone of climbing steps with alternate feet achieved?
- A.2 years
- B.3 years
- C.4 years
- D.5 years
Q 279 :
At what age the first permanent teeth appear in a child?
- A.2 years
- B.4 years
- C.6 years
- D.8 years
Q 280 :
Most common cause of shock in child-
- A.Septic shock
- B.Hypovolemic shock
- C.Cardiogenic shock
- D.Anaphylactic shock
Ophthalmology
Q 281 :
Placido disc is used for assessing -
- A.Corneal thickness
- B.Corneal curvature
- C.Curvature of the lens
- D.Corneal Sheen and surface
Q 282 :
Levator Palpebrae Superioris is supplied by which nerve ?
- A.Ophthalmic nerve
- B.Oculomotor nerve
- C.Abducens
- D.Trochlear nerve
Q 283 :
Phacodonesis is seen in all except -
- A.Traumatic injury to the eye
- B.Hypermature cataract
- C.Pseudoexfoliation
- D.Diabetes mellitus
Q 284 :
Argon Laser trabeculoplasty is used in -
- A.Open angle glaucoma
- B.Angle closure glaucoma
- C.Buphthalmos
- D.None
Q 285 :
Most common malignancy in the orbital and periorbital region in children is -
- A.Rhabdomyosarcoma
- B.Melanoma
- C.Retinoblastoma
- D.Lymphoma
Q 286 :
Stereopsis is tested by all of the following except -
- A.Titmus tst
- B.Frisby test
- C.TNO test
- D.West test
Q 287 :
Blue dot cataract is caused by -
- A.Diabetes
- B.Wilson's disease
- C.Atopic dermatitis
- D.Chalcosis
Q 288 :
Laser iridotomy is done in -
- A.Open angle glaucoma
- B.Angle closure glaucoma
- C.Buphthalmos
- D.After cataract
Q 289 :
Spasm of accommodation minics
- A.Myopia
- B.Hypermetropia
- C.Amblyopia
- D.Presbiopia
Q 290 :
Which of the following is the drug of choice in open angle glaucoma ?
- A.Timolol
- B.Latanoprost
- C.Pilocarpine
- D.Mannitol
Psychiatry
Q 291 :
Poor prognosis of schizophrenia is seen in?
- A.Female sex
- B.Presence of depression
- C.Acute onset
- D.Predominance of negative symptoms
Q 292 :
Anhedonia is?
- A.Absence of pain on previously painful site
- B.Loss of emotions
- C.Somatic symptoms of pain
- D.Inability to experience pleasure
Q 293 :
Confabulation is?
- A.A state of confusion where patient is not able to describe the details
- B.Purposefully fabricating stories to project a certain image
- C.Filling up to gaps by fabrication to cover lapses in memory
- D.A feeling of strangeness to familiar situations or events
Q 294 :
A 35 year old man gets up from sleep with sudden onset breathlessness, anxiety, palpitation, shaking hand, profuse sweating, discomfort in chest or fear of dying. There is history of similar episodes in past. Physical examination is normal. Probable diagnosis is-
- A.Panic attack
- B.Anxiety disorder
- C.Conversion disorder
- D.Acute psychosis
Q 295 :
Tics, hair pulling, nail biting behaviour are best treated with?
- A.Medications
- B.Behaviour therapy
- C.ECT
- D.Psychodynamic therapy
Q 296 :
Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with?
- A.Seizure
- B.Amnesia
- C.Tremers
- D.Delirium
Q 297 :
Agoraphobia is?
- A.Fear of strangers
- B.Fear of crowds
- C.Fear of death
- D.Fear of fire
Q 298 :
Impaired consciousness, visual hallucination, hyperactivity and fragmentary delusions are
- A.Delirium
- B.Dementia
- C.Paranoid psychosis
- D.Schizophrenia
Q 299 :
Excessive sexual desire in females is called?
- A.Nymphomania
- B.Satyriasis
- C.Frigidity
- D.Impotency
Q 300 :
Most common type of delusion is-
- A.Delusion of grandiose
- B.Delusion of love
- C.Delusion of persecution
- D.Delusion of infidelity