Question for NFAT - M.Sc Forensic Psychology 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest NFSU NFAT MSc Forensic Psychology Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Psychology, Research Methodology, Statistics

Question Bank NFAT M.Sc Forensic Psychology Exam - English

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General Psychology

Question 1Single Answer

Who is known for discovering classical conditioning?

A
Skinner
B
Bandura
C
Pavlov
D
Thorndike

Question 2Single Answer

In classical conditioning, a stimulus that naturally triggers a response is called:

A
Conditioned Stimulus
B
Neutral Stimulus
C
Unconditioned Stimulus
D
Response Stimulus

Question 3Single Answer

In Pavlov’s experiment, salivation to food was a:

A
Conditioned Stimulus
B
Unconditioned Response
C
Conditioned Response
D
Neutral Response

Question 4Single Answer

What is the response called when it occurs after the conditioned stimulus alone?

A
Unconditioned Response
B
Neutral Response
C
Conditioned Response
D
Operant Response

Question 5Single Answer

Which term describes the process when the conditioned response diminishes after repeated exposure to the CS without the UCS?

A
Extinction
B
Generalization
C
Acquisition
D
Spontaneous Recovery

Question 6Single Answer

When a conditioned response returns after a rest period, it is called:

A
Extinction
B
Generalization
C
Spontaneous Recovery
D
Acquisition

Question 7Single Answer

Stimulus generalization occurs when:

A
Response decreases with exposure
B
A similar stimulus triggers the same response
C
No response is produced
D
The original stimulus is forgotten

Question 8Single Answer

Discrimination in classical conditioning refers to:

A
Not responding to stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus
B
Responding to every stimulus
C
Showing the same response to all stimuli
D
Ignoring the unconditioned stimulus

Question 9Single Answer

John Watson demonstrated classical conditioning of fear using:

A
Dogs
B
Pigeons
C
Little Albert
D
Bobo Doll

Question 10Single Answer

Which learning type explains the development of phobias?

A
Operant Conditioning
B
Observational Learning
C
Classical Conditioning
D
Insight Learning

Question 11Single Answer

Who developed the Law of Effect?

A
Skinner
B
Pavlov
C
Thorndike
D
Bandura

Question 12Single Answer

Operant conditioning involves learning through:

A
Association
B
Observation
C
Consequences
D
Reasoning

Question 13Single Answer

Which of the following strengthens behavior by presenting a pleasurable stimulus?

A
Negative reinforcement
B
Positive punishment
C
Positive reinforcement
D
Negative punishment

Question 14Single Answer

Removing an unpleasant stimulus to increase behavior is:

A
Positive punishment
B
Negative reinforcement
C
Positive reinforcement
D
Negative punishment

Question 15Single Answer

Which of the following weakens behavior by presenting an unpleasant stimulus?

A
Negative reinforcement
B
Positive punishment
C
Positive reinforcement
D
Extinction

Question 16Single Answer

Which is an example of negative punishment?

A
Giving a fine
B
Taking away a toy
C
Giving candy
D
Spanking

Question 17Single Answer

Which schedule of reinforcement involves reward after a fixed number of responses?

A
Fixed interval
B
Variable interval
C
Fixed ratio
D
Variable ratio

Question 18Single Answer

Slot machines work on which schedule of reinforcement?

A
Fixed interval
B
Fixed ratio
C
Variable interval
D
Variable ratio

Question 19Single Answer

The process of reinforcing successive steps toward a goal is called:

A
Chaining
B
Modeling
C
Shaping
D
Imitation

Question 20Single Answer

What happens when reinforcement is no longer given for a previously reinforced behavior?

A
Extinction
B
Generalization
C
Acquisition
D
Discrimination

Question 21Single Answer

Observational learning was demonstrated by:

A
Tolman
B
Kohler
C
Bandura
D
Skinner

Question 22Single Answer

In Bandura’s experiment, children learned aggression by observing adults interacting with:

A
Dolls
B
Puppets
C
Toy guns
D
Bobo Doll

Question 23Single Answer

Observational learning involves:

A
Trial and error
B
Passive reception
C
Watching and imitating
D
Reinforcement only

Question 24Single Answer

Which of the following is not a key process in observational learning?

A
Attention
B
Retention
C
Motor reproduction
D
Conditioning

Question 25Single Answer

Learning by watching others get rewarded or punished is called:

A
Vicarious reinforcement
B
Operant conditioning
C
Classical conditioning
D
Insight learning

Question 26Single Answer

What role does cognition play in observational learning?

A
None
B
Observers blindly copy
C
Observers evaluate consequences before acting
D
Behavior is automatic

Question 27Single Answer

When a child imitates an adult’s behavior seen in a movie, it is an example of:

A
Classical conditioning
B
Observational learning
C
Operant conditioning
D
Insight learning

Question 28Single Answer

Bandura emphasized the role of __________ in learning.

A
Motivation
B
Environment
C
Cognition
D
Biology

Question 29Single Answer

Cognitive learning focuses on:

A
Reflexes
B
Conditioning
C
Mental processes
D
Muscle movements

Question 30Single Answer

Tolman’s rat maze experiments demonstrated:

A
Classical conditioning
B
Operant conditioning
C
Latent learning
D
Habituation

Question 31Single Answer

Latent learning becomes evident when:

A
There is reinforcement
B
A stimulus is presented
C
A reward is offered
D
The behavior is punished

Question 32Single Answer

Insight learning was studied by:

A
Skinner
B
Thorndike
C
Kohler
D
Pavlov

Question 33Single Answer

Kohler observed insight learning in:

A
Dogs
B
Cats
C
Rats
D
Chimpanzees

Question 34Single Answer

Which of the following is a feature of insight learning?

A
Gradual behavior change
B
Trial and error
C
Sudden realization of a solution
D
Shaping

Question 35Single Answer

A student suddenly figuring out a math problem after struggling is an example of:

A
Operant conditioning
B
Classical conditioning
C
Insight learning
D
Observational learning

Question 36Single Answer

The maze-learning experiment with rats in cognitive maps was done by:

A
Pavlov
B
Skinner
C
Tolman
D
Bandura

Question 37Single Answer

Learning that is not immediately demonstrated is called:

A
Insight
B
Latent learning
C
Conditioning
D
Shaping

Question 38Single Answer

In classical conditioning, when the CS is repeatedly presented without the UCS, it leads to:

A
Spontaneous recovery
B
Extinction
C
Generalization
D
Reinforcement

Question 39Single Answer

Positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement both:

A
Increase behavior
B
Decrease behavior
C
Punish behavior
D
Confuse behavior

Question 40Single Answer

Which psychologist is most associated with operant chambers (Skinner boxes)?

A
Watson
B
Bandura
C
Skinner
D
Pavlov

Question 41Single Answer

The idea that behaviors followed by pleasant consequences are likely to be repeated is known as:

A
Cognitive dissonance
B
Insight
C
Law of Effect
D
Shaping

Question 42Single Answer

In shaping, reinforcement is given for:

A
Final goal behavior only
B
Any random behavior
C
Successive approximations
D
Unrelated responses

Question 43Single Answer

Cognitive learning differs from conditioning as it:

A
Focuses on rewards
B
Includes motor responses only
C
Emphasizes mental processes
D
Requires stimuli

Question 44Single Answer

Who emphasized trial and error learning?

A
Pavlov
B
Thorndike
C
Kohler
D
Bandura

Question 45Single Answer

Vicarious punishment occurs when:

A
You get punished
B
You see someone else get punished
C
You avoid punishment
D
You get rewarded

Question 46Single Answer

Observational learning occurs even without:

A
Cognition
B
Reinforcement
C
Attention
D
Memory

Question 47Single Answer

Which form of learning can be unconscious and automatic?

A
Operant conditioning
B
Observational learning
C
Classical conditioning
D
Insight learning

Question 48Single Answer

Which learning concept explains a dog learning to sit for a treat?

A
Classical conditioning
B
Operant conditioning
C
Observational learning
D
Insight learning

Question 49Single Answer

Which process weakens a behavior in operant conditioning?

A
Reinforcement
B
Reward
C
Punishment
D
Shaping

Question 50Single Answer

Learning from books and lectures is considered a type of:

A
Classical conditioning
B
Operant conditioning
C
Cognitive learning
D
Observational learning

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Research Methodology

Question 51Single Answer

What is sampling in research methodology?

A
Analyzing the entire population
B
Selecting a subset from a population
C
Collecting all possible data points
D
Measuring variables directly

Question 52Single Answer

What is an advantage of systematic sampling?

A
It ensures subgroup representation
B
It is simple and systematic
C
It is always non-random
D
It avoids a sampling frame

Question 53Single Answer

In stratified sampling, what are strata?

A
Random clusters
B
Subgroups based on characteristics
C
Non-random samples
D
Entire populations

Question 54Single Answer

What is a common use of snowball sampling in psychology?

A
Studying general populations
B
Studying hidden populations
C
Conducting random surveys
D
Analyzing large datasets

Question 55Single Answer

Which method involves selecting all members of a chosen group?

A
Simple random sampling
B
Cluster sampling
C
Systematic sampling
D
Quota sampling

Question 56Single Answer

What is a risk of non-probability sampling?

A
It is too expensive
B
It limits generalizability
C
It requires random selection
D
It eliminates strata

Question 57Single Answer

In quota sampling, how are participants chosen within strata?

A
Randomly
B
Non-randomly
C
Systematically
D
By clusters

Question 58Single Answer

Which sampling method is least likely to be biased?

A
Convenience sampling
B
Snowball sampling
C
Simple random sampling
D
Purposive sampling

Question 59Single Answer

What is an example of stratified sampling?

A
Selecting every 5th person on a list
B
Sampling males and females proportionally
C
Choosing a school and sampling all students
D
Selecting available volunteers

Question 60Single Answer

Why might purposive sampling be chosen?

A
For random representation
B
For specific research goals
C
For cost elimination
D
For large-scale generalization

Question 61Single Answer

What does representativeness depend on?

A
Sample size alone
B
Similarity to the population
C
Non-random selection
D
Elimination of variables

Question 62Single Answer

Which method is used when a population list is unavailable?

A
Simple random sampling
B
Cluster sampling
C
Systematic sampling
D
Convenience sampling

Question 63Single Answer

What is a strength of stratified sampling?

A
It is always non-random
B
It ensures proportional representation
C
It avoids a sampling frame
D
It is less costly than convenience sampling

Question 64Single Answer

In snowball sampling, what is the role of initial participants?

A
They analyze the data
B
They recruit others
C
They define the population
D
They select clusters

Question 65Single Answer

Which sampling method is most cost-effective for large populations?

A
Simple random sampling
B
Cluster sampling
C
Purposive sampling
D
Quota sampling

Question 66Single Answer

What is a feature of probability sampling?

A
Non-random selection
B
Known chance of selection
C
Researcher bias
D
Limited generalizability

Question 67Single Answer

Why is convenience sampling popular in pilot studies?

A
It ensures randomization
B
It is quick and easy
C
It guarantees representativeness
D
It uses a sampling frame

Question 68Single Answer

Which method balances cost and representativeness?

A
Snowball sampling
B
Stratified random sampling
C
Convenience sampling
D
Purposive sampling

Question 69Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of sampling in research?

A
To study the entire population
B
To make inferences about the population
C
To eliminate variables
D
To reduce data analysis

Question 70Single Answer

What is the lowest level of measurement according to S.S. Stevens’ classification?

A
Ordinal
B
Nominal
C
Interval
D
Ratio

Question 71Single Answer

Which scale of measurement allows for meaningful multiplication and division?

A
Nominal
B
Ordinal
C
Interval
D
Ratio

Question 72Single Answer

On which scale is IQ most appropriately measured?

A
Nominal
B
Ordinal
C
Interval
D
Ratio

Question 73Single Answer

Which of the following is an example of nominal scale data?

A
Exam scores
B
Reaction time
C
Eye color
D
Class rank

Question 74Single Answer

The property of having a “true zero” is unique to which scale?

A
Ordinal
B
Interval
C
Nominal
D
Ratio

Question 75Single Answer

Which of the following statistical techniques is appropriate for data on a nominal scale?

A
Mean
B
Standard deviation
C
Mode
D
Pearson correlation

Statistics

Question 76Single Answer

What does correlation primarily measure?

A
The cause-and-effect relationship between two variables.
B
The difference between the means of two groups.
C
The strength and direction of the linear relationship between two variables.
D
The frequency of occurrence of a single variable.

Question 77Single Answer

0 indicates:

A
A perfect negative linear relationship.
B
No linear relationship.
C
A perfect positive linear relationship.
D
A weak positive linear relationship.

Question 78Single Answer

8 indicates:

A
A strong positive linear relationship.
B
A weak negative linear relationship.
C
A strong negative linear relationship.
D
No linear relationship.

Question 79Single Answer

A correlation coefficient close to 0 suggests:

A
A strong linear relationship.
B
A perfect linear relationship.
C
No linear relationship or a very weak linear relationship.
D
A moderate linear relationship.

Question 80Single Answer

Pearson’s correlation coefficient (r) is best suited for:

A
Nonparametric data.
B
Ordinal data.
C
Parametric data.
D
Nominal data.

Question 81Single Answer

For Pearson’s r to be appropriately used, the data should ideally be:

A
Skewed.
B
Categorical.
C
Interval or ratio scale.
D
Ordinal scale.

Question 82Single Answer

Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient (rho) is used when the data:

A
Follows a normal distribution.
B
Is measured on an interval or ratio scale.
C
Is nonparametric or ordinal.
D
Has equal variances.

Question 83Single Answer

Spearman’s rho measures the relationship between:

A
The means of two variables.
B
The variances of two variables.
C
The ranks of the scores on two variables.
D
The raw scores on two variables.

Question 84Single Answer

If there is a positive correlation between impulsivity scores and aggression scores in a sample of offenders, it means that:

A
Higher impulsivity causes lower aggression.
B
Lower impulsivity causes higher aggression.
C
Individuals with higher impulsivity tend to have higher aggression scores.
D
There is no relationship between impulsivity and aggression.

Question 85Single Answer

If there is a negative correlation between empathy scores and psychopathy scores, it suggests that:

A
Higher empathy causes higher psychopathy.
B
Higher psychopathy causes higher empathy.
C
Individuals with higher empathy tend to have lower psychopathy scores.
D
There is no relationship between empathy and psychopathy.

Question 86Single Answer

Correlation implies causation:

A
Always.
B
Sometimes.
C
Never.
D
Only with strong positive correlations.

Question 87Single Answer

A third, unmeasured variable that influences both variables in a correlation is known as a:

A
Dependent variable.
B
Independent variable.
C
Confounding variable.
D
Intervening variable.

Question 88Single Answer

When examining the relationship between age (in years) and reaction time (in milliseconds), which correlation coefficient might be more appropriate if the reaction time data is skewed?

A
Pearson’s r.
B
Spearman’s rho.
C
Both are equally appropriate.
D
Neither is appropriate.

Question 89Single Answer

In forensic psychology research, correlation can be used to explore the relationship between:

A
Treatment type and reduction in recidivism (if treatment is nominal).
B
Severity of childhood trauma (interval) and adult criminal behavior (interval).
C
Gender (nominal) and type of crime (nominal).
D
Whether a witness is male or female and their confidence level (ordinal).

Question 90Single Answer

To calculate Spearman’s rho, the first step is to:

A
Calculate the mean of each variable.
B
Calculate the standard deviation of each variable.
C
Rank the scores on each variable separately.
D
Plot the data on a scatterplot.

Question 91Single Answer

A scatterplot showing a cloud of points with no discernible pattern suggests a correlation that is likely:

A
Strong and positive.
B
Strong and negative.
C
Close to zero.
D
Perfect.

Question 92Single Answer

A scatterplot where the points roughly form a line going from the top left to the bottom right indicates a correlation that is likely:

A
Strong and positive.
B
Strong and negative.
C
Close to zero.
D
Perfect positive.

Question 93

The strength of a correlation coefficient refers to:

A
Its sign (+ or -).
B
How close it is to zero.
C
How close it is to -

Question 94Single Answer

6 is considered a:

A
Very weak positive correlation.
B
Weak positive correlation.
C
Moderate positive correlation.
D
Strong positive correlation.

Question 95Single Answer

2 is considered a:

A
Very weak negative correlation.
B
Weak negative correlation.
C
Moderate negative correlation.
D
Strong negative correlation.

Question 96Single Answer

When interpreting a correlation coefficient, it is important to consider:

A
The sample size.
B
The context of the research question.
C
Whether the correlation is statistically significant.
D
All of the above.

Question 97Single Answer

Statistical significance of a correlation coefficient indicates that the observed correlation is:

A
Very strong.
B
Likely to be due to chance.
C
Unlikely to be due to chance in the population.
D
Clinically significant.

Question 98Single Answer

The p-value associated with a correlation coefficient helps determine its:

A
Strength.
B
Direction.
C
Statistical significance.
D
Practical significance.

Question 99Single Answer

A small sample size can lead to:

A
An overestimation of the true correlation.
B
A decrease in the likelihood of finding a statistically significant correlation.
C
A more accurate estimation of the population correlation.
D
A stronger correlation coefficient.

Question 100Single Answer

Outliers in the data can:

A
Have no effect on the correlation coefficient.
B
Inflate or deflate the correlation coefficient.
C
Only affect Spearman’s rho.
D
Only affect Pearson’s r.