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Question Bank

NFAT M.Sc Forensic Toxicology Exam - English

Duration: 90 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 100 · Language: 1

View NFAT - M.Sc Forensic Toxicology 2026 Exam Page

Physics

1
Like charges each other, while opposite charges each other.
  1. A.Attract, repel
  2. B.Repel, attract
  3. C.Neutralize, amplify
  4. D.None of the above
2
Which law states that the force between two point charges is directly proportional to the product of their charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them?
  1. A.Ohm’s Law
  2. B.Gauss’s Law
  3. C.Coulomb’s Law
  4. D.Faraday’s Law
3
An electric field is defined as the force experienced per unit:
  1. A.Voltage
  2. B.Charge
  3. C.Resistance
  4. D.Capacitance
4
The SI unit of the electric field is:
  1. A.Newton (N)
  2. B.Volt (V)
  3. C.Newton per coulomb (N/C)
  4. D.Farad (F)
5
The electric field due to a point charge is strongest at:
  1. A.Infinity
  2. B.Near the charge
  3. C.Midway between two charges
  4. D.A point perpendicular to the charge
6
The direction of an electric field is always:
  1. A.From negative to positive charge
  2. B.From positive to negative charge
  3. C.Circular around the charge
  4. D.Undefined
7
If the distance between two charges is doubled, the force between them will:
  1. A.Double
  2. B.Quadruple
  3. C.Reduce to one-fourth
  4. D.Remain the same
8
Electric potential is measured in:
  1. A.Coulombs
  2. B.Joules
  3. C.Volts
  4. D.Newtons
9
Gauss’s Law states that the total electric flux through a closed surface is equal to:
  1. A.The charge enclosed divided by permittivity
  2. B.Zero
  3. C.The square of the enclosed charge
  4. D.The product of charge and distance
10
The SI unit of electric flux is:
  1. A.Newton
  2. B.Volt-meter
  3. C.Newton-meter² per Coulomb
  4. D.Farad
11
Gauss’s Law is useful in determining the electric field for:
  1. A.Point charges only
  2. B.Highly symmetric charge distributions
  3. C.Moving charges
  4. D.Capacitors only
12
The electric flux through a closed surface that does not enclose any charge is:
  1. A.Maximum
  2. B.Zero
  3. C.Infinite
  4. D.Cannot be determined
13
Which of the following surfaces can be used for applying Gauss’s Law?
  1. A.Spherical surface
  2. B.Cylindrical surface
  3. C.Plane surface
  4. D.All of the above
14
The ability of a capacitor to store charge is called:
  1. A.Resistance
  2. B.Capacitance
  3. C.Conductance
  4. D.Inductance
15
A parallel plate capacitor’s capacitance increases when:
  1. A.Plate separation increases
  2. B.Dielectric constant decreases
  3. C.Plate area increases
  4. D.None of the above
16
A dielectric is placed between the plates of a capacitor. The capacitance:
  1. A.Increases
  2. B.Decreases
  3. C.Remains the same
  4. D.Becomes zero
17
The capacitance of a capacitor is inversely proportional to:
  1. A.Distance between plates
  2. B.Plate area
  3. C.Dielectric constant
  4. D.Voltage
18
A conductor in electrostatic equilibrium has an electric field inside that is:
  1. A.Maximum
  2. B.Zero
  3. C.Equal to charge density
  4. D.Random
19
A charged conductor's excess charge resides on its:
  1. A.Inner surface
  2. B.Outer surface
  3. C.Volume
  4. D.None of the above
20
A lightning conductor works on the principle of:
  1. A.Coulomb’s law
  2. B.Gauss’s law
  3. C.Electrostatic shielding
  4. D.Faraday’s law
21
When a positively charged rod is brought near a neutral conductor, the conductor:
  1. A.Gains positive charge
  2. B.Gains negative charge
  3. C.Remains neutral
  4. D.Becomes an insulator
22
Electric potential is a scalar or vector quantity?
  1. A.Scalar
  2. B.Vector
  3. C.Both
  4. D.None
23
The work done in moving a charge along an equipotential surface is:
  1. A.Maximum
  2. B.Zero
  3. C.Equal to charge magnitude
  4. D.None of the above
24
The unit of electric potential is:
  1. A.Joule
  2. B.Newton
  3. C.Volt
  4. D.Coulomb
25
Electrostatic force between two charges in a vacuum is:
  1. A.Maximum
  2. B.Minimum
  3. C.Zero
  4. D.Infinite

Chemistry

1
What is the rate of a reaction?
  1. A.The change in concentration of reactants or products per unit time.
  2. B.The total amount of reactants consumed.
  3. C.The total amount of products formed.
  4. D.The equilibrium constant.
2
What is the order of a reaction?
  1. A.The sum of the stoichiometric coefficients of reactants.
  2. B.The sum of the powers to which the reactant concentrations are raised in the rate law.
  3. C.The equilibrium constant.
  4. D.The activation energy.
3
What does the activation energy represent?
  1. A.The total energy of reactants.
  2. B.The energy barrier that must be overcome for a reaction to occur.
  3. C.The energy released during a reaction.
  4. D.The energy of the products.
4
What is a catalyst?
  1. A.A substance that increases the activation energy.
  2. B.A substance that decreases the activation energy and increases the rate of reaction.
  3. C.A substance that changes the equilibrium constant.
  4. D.A substance that is consumed during the reaction.
5
What is the half life of a first order reaction?
  1. A.Directly proportional to the initial concentration.
  2. B.Inversely proportional to the initial concentration.
  3. C.Independent of the initial concentration.
  4. D.All of the Above
6
Which factor does not affect the rate of a chemical reaction?
  1. A.Temperature.
  2. B.Concentration of reactants.
  3. C.Presence of a catalyst.
  4. D.Color of the reactants.
7
What is the molecularity of a reaction?
  1. A.The number of molecules involved in the overall reaction.
  2. B.The number of molecules involved in the slowest step of the reaction.
  3. C.The order of the reaction.
  4. D.The equilibrium constant.
8
A reaction with zero order kinetics has a rate that is:
  1. A.Proportional to the concentration of the reactants.
  2. B.Inversely proportional to the concentration of the reactants.
  3. C.Constant.
  4. D.Dependent on the square of the concentration.
9
What is adsorption?
  1. A.The bulk phenomenon of a substance penetrating another.
  2. B.The surface phenomenon of a substance accumulating on another.
  3. C.The formation of a new compound.
  4. D.The release of energy.
10
What is the adsorbate?
  1. A.The substance on which adsorption occurs.
  2. B.The substance that accumulates on the surface.
  3. C.The catalyst.
  4. D.The solvent.
11
What is the adsorbent?
  1. A.The substance that is adsorbed.
  2. B.The substance on whose surface adsorption occurs.
  3. C.The product of adsorption.
  4. D.The gas released during adsorption.
12
What is physisorption?
  1. A.Adsorption due to chemical bonds.
  2. B.Adsorption due to van der Waals forces.
  3. C.Irreversible adsorption.
  4. D.Adsorption at high temperatures.
13
What is chemisorption?
  1. A.Adsorption due to weak intermolecular forces.
  2. B.Adsorption due to chemical bonds.
  3. C.Reversible adsorption.
  4. D.Adsorption at low temperatures.
14
Which of the following is an example of a catalyst used in heterogeneous catalysis?
  1. A.Enzymes in biological systems.
  2. B.Acids in ester hydrolysis.
  3. C.Finely divided nickel in hydrogenation.
  4. D.All of the above.
15
What are colloids?
  1. A.Homogeneous mixtures.
  2. B.Heterogeneous mixtures with particle size between 1 nm and 1000 nm.
  3. C.Solutions with large particles.
  4. D.Pure substances.
16
What is the Tyndall effect?
  1. A.The scattering of light by colloidal particles.
  2. B.The diffusion of particles in a solution.
  3. C.The coagulation of colloids.
  4. D.The adsorption of gases on solids.
17
What is coagulation?
  1. A.The dispersion of colloidal particles.
  2. B.The aggregation of colloidal particles into larger clumps.
  3. C.The adsorption of ions on surfaces.
  4. D.The formation of a true solution.
18
What are surfactants?
  1. A.Substances that increase surface tension.
  2. B.Substances that reduce surface tension.
  3. C.Catalysts.
  4. D.Adsorbents.
19
Which group elements are called alkali metals?
  1. A.Group 1
  2. B.Group 2
  3. C.Group 13
  4. D.Group 17
20
Which group elements are called alkaline earth metals?
  1. A.Group 1
  2. B.Group 2
  3. C.Group 14
  4. D.Group 18
21
Which elements are known as halogens?
  1. A.Group 15
  2. B.Group 16
  3. C.Group 17
  4. D.Group 18
22
Which elements are known as noble gases?
  1. A.Group 1
  2. B.Group 2
  3. C.Group 17
  4. D.Group 18
23
Which of the following is the most electronegative element?
  1. A.Sodium
  2. B.Chlorine
  3. C.Oxygen
  4. D.Fluorine
24
Which of the following is the most abundant element in the Earth's crust?
  1. A.Iron
  2. B.Aluminum
  3. C.Silicon
  4. D.Oxygen
25
Which of the following is an allotrope of carbon?
  1. A.Diamond
  2. B.Graphite
  3. C.Fullerene
  4. D.All of the above

Biology

1
Which of the following is considered the father of evolution?
  1. A.Gregor Mendel
  2. B.Charles Darwin
  3. C.James Watson
  4. D.Francis Crick
2
What is the primary mechanism of evolutionary change?
  1. A.Genetic drift
  2. B.Natural selection
  3. C.Gene flow
  4. D.Mutation
3
What is the term for the change in allele frequencies in a population over generations?
  1. A.Speciation
  2. B.Adaptation
  3. C.Evolution
  4. D.Extinction
4
What are homologous structures?
  1. A.Structures with different functions but similar ancestry.
  2. B.Structures with similar functions but different ancestry.
  3. C.Structures with no function.
  4. D.Structures that are identical.
5
What is the term for the random change in allele frequencies due to chance?
  1. A.Natural selection
  2. B.Gene flow
  3. C.Genetic drift
  4. D.Mutation
6
What is the process by which new species arise?
  1. A.Adaptation
  2. B.Speciation
  3. C.Extinction
  4. D.Mutation
7
What is the term for the movement of genes between populations?
  1. A.Genetic drift
  2. B.Gene flow
  3. C.Natural selection
  4. D.Mutation
8
What is the ultimate source of genetic variation?
  1. A.Natural selection
  2. B.Gene flow
  3. C.Genetic drift
  4. D.Mutation
9
What is the term for the process by which organisms become better suited to their environment?
  1. A.Speciation
  2. B.Adaptation
  3. C.Extinction
  4. D.Mutation
10
What is the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium used to describe?
  1. A.Evolutionary change
  2. B.Genetic drift
  3. C.A population in which allele frequencies are not changing.
  4. D.Speciation
11
What is the primary function of mitochondria?
  1. A.Protein synthesis
  2. B.Cellular respiration
  3. C.Photosynthesis
  4. D.Waste disposal
12
Which organelle is responsible for packaging and modifying proteins?
  1. A.Endoplasmic reticulum
  2. B.Golgi apparatus
  3. C.Lysosome
  4. D.Peroxisome
13
What is the main difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
  1. A.Presence of a nucleus
  2. B.Presence of ribosomes
  3. C.Presence of cytoplasm
  4. D.Presence of a cell membrane
14
What is the phase of the cell cycle in which DNA is replicated?
  1. A.G1 phase
  2. B.S phase
  3. C.G2 phase
  4. D.M phase
15
What is the process of cell division that produces genetically identical daughter cells?
  1. A.Meiosis
  2. B.Mitosis
  3. C.Fertilization
  4. D.Crossing over
16
What is the process of cell division that produces haploid gametes?
  1. A.Mitosis
  2. B.Meiosis
  3. C.Fertilization
  4. D.Binary fission
17
What are carbohydrates primarily used for?
  1. A.Energy storage
  2. B.Genetic information storage
  3. C.Structural support
  4. D.Catalysis
18
What is the function of lipids in the cell membrane?
  1. A.Transport of ions
  2. B.Structural integrity
  3. C.Catalysis of reactions
  4. D.Energy production
19
Which type of cell signaling involves direct contact between cells?
  1. A.Endocrine signaling
  2. B.Paracrine signaling
  3. C.Juxtacrine signaling
  4. D.Autocrine signaling
20
What is the function of a second messenger in cell signaling?
  1. A.To bind to DNA
  2. B.To amplify the signal
  3. C.To transport proteins
  4. D.To degrade signaling molecules
21
Which enzyme is responsible for synthesizing ATP?
  1. A.Polymerase
  2. B.Kinase
  3. C.ATP synthase
  4. D.Protease
22
Which cellular component is responsible for digesting worn-out organelles?
  1. A.Golgi apparatus
  2. B.Endoplasmic reticulum
  3. C.Lysosome
  4. D.Mitochondria
23
What is the function of the cell cycle checkpoints?
  1. A.To regulate protein synthesis
  2. B.To ensure accurate DNA replication and cell division
  3. C.To transport molecules
  4. D.To produce energy
24
Which type of cell signaling involves hormones traveling through the bloodstream?
  1. A.Paracrine signaling
  2. B.Juxtacrine signaling
  3. C.Autocrine signaling
  4. D.Endocrine signaling
25
What is the function of G proteins in cell signaling?
  1. A.To bind to DNA
  2. B.To activate enzymes
  3. C.To transport ions
  4. D.To degrade signaling molecules

Basis of Forensic Science

1
What is the legal definition of a crime?
  1. A.Any harmful act
  2. B.An act punishable by law
  3. C.Any unethical behavior
  4. D.A violation of social norms
2
Which branch of forensic science deals with crime scene investigation?
  1. A.Forensic Pathology
  2. B.Forensic Toxicology
  3. C.Forensic Criminalistics
  4. D.Forensic Entomology
3
What is the primary goal of forensic science in criminal investigations?
  1. A.Punishing the guilty
  2. B.Identifying the suspect
  3. C.Providing scientific evidence in legal proceedings
  4. D.Solving crimes instantly
4
Which of the following is not a category of crime?
  1. A.Felony
  2. B.Misdemeanor
  3. C.Civil offense
  4. D.Crime scene
5
A crime committed with premeditation and intent is known as a:
  1. A.Manslaughter
  2. B.First-degree murder
  3. C.Negligence
  4. D.Justifiable homicide
6
What is the Latin phrase meaning "the guilty act" in criminal law?
  1. A.Mens rea
  2. B.Habeas corpus
  3. C.Actus reus
  4. D.Corpus delicti
7
Which of the following is an example of a cybercrime?
  1. A.Robbery
  2. B.Identity theft
  3. C.Assault
  4. D.Kidnapping
8
Which type of crime typically involves financial gain through deception?
  1. A.Homicide
  2. B.White-collar crime
  3. C.Organized crime
  4. D.Hate crime
9
Who is considered the "Father of Criminal Investigation"?
  1. A.Edmond Locard
  2. B.Alphonse Bertillon
  3. C.Hans Gross
  4. D.Francis Galton
10
Which of the following is not considered a violent crime?
  1. A.Murder
  2. B.Arson
  3. C.Assault
  4. D.Kidnapping
11
Which of the following is an example of a crime against property?
  1. A.Rape
  2. B.Burglary
  3. C.Homicide
  4. D.Kidnapping
12
Which crime is defined as the unlawful killing of a person without intent?
  1. A.First-degree murder
  2. B.Second-degree murder
  3. C.Manslaughter
  4. D.Terrorism
13
Which type of crime involves unlawful acts committed by government officials?
  1. A.Hate crime
  2. B.Cybercrime
  3. C.Organized crime
  4. D.White-collar crime
14
Which crime involves intentionally setting fire to property?
  1. A.Burglary
  2. B.Arson
  3. C.Larceny
  4. D.Embezzlement
15
A hate crime is a criminal act motivated by:
  1. A.Jealousy
  2. B.Personal revenge
  3. C.Bias against race, religion, or ethnicity
  4. D.Financial gain
16
Which crime is considered a form of domestic violence?
  1. A.Hacking
  2. B.Stalking
  3. C.Bribery
  4. D.Money laundering
17
What is an example of an organized crime?
  1. A.Shoplifting
  2. B.Street robbery
  3. C.Human trafficking
  4. D.Simple assault
18
Which of the following is an economic crime?
  1. A.Homicide
  2. B.Assault
  3. C.Fraud
  4. D.Burglary
19
Which international organization combats transnational crime?
  1. A.WHO
  2. B.INTERPOL
  3. C.UNESCO
  4. D.FBI
20
Which of the following is a non-violent crime?
  1. A.Murder
  2. B.Money laundering
  3. C.Kidnapping
  4. D.Rape
21
What is the first step in a criminal investigation?
  1. A.Collecting evidence
  2. B.Arresting the suspect
  3. C.Conducting a crime scene search
  4. D.Filing an FIR
22
What does forensic ballistics study?
  1. A.Bloodstains
  2. B.Firearms and bullets
  3. C.Fingerprints
  4. D.Toxic substances
23
Who first proposed the Exchange Principle in forensic science?
  1. A.Alphonse Bertillon
  2. B.Hans Gross
  3. C.Edmond Locard
  4. D.Francis Galton
24
Which forensic technique is used to identify individuals based on their unique patterns?
  1. A.Toxicology
  2. B.DNA fingerprinting
  3. C.Polygraph test
  4. D.Ballistics
25
Which of the following is considered direct evidence?
  1. A.Eyewitness testimony
  2. B.Fingerprints
  3. C.CCTV footage
  4. D.Blood samples
Question for NFAT - M.Sc Forensic Toxicology 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ - Toppersexam