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Latest NHM JK Medical Officer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : English, General Knowledge, Reasoning, Computer Knowledge, Quantitative Aptitude, Medical Officer
Question Bank NHM JK Medical Officer Exam - English
English
Q 1 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 2 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 3 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 4 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 5 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 6 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 7 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 8 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 9 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 10 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 11 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 12 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 13 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 14 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 15 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 16 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 17 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 18 :
One must keep one’s promises.
A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
B.One’s promises had to be kept.
C.Promises must be kept.
D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 19 :
I read the story in one night.
A.The story had been read by me in one night.
B.The story has been read by me in one night
C.n one night the story has been read by me.
D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 20 :
We must take care of the old.
A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B.The old must be taken care of by us.
C.Those who are old need care by us
D.The old should be taken care of by us.
General Knowledge
Q 21 :
Who is the current RBI Governor commenting on India's 'Goldilocks' economy in early March 2026?
A.Sanjay Malhotra
B.Shaktikanta Das
C.Urjit Patel
D.Raghuram Rajan
Q 22 :
Which Formula 1 event begins in March 2026?
A.End of season
B.Start of the Formula 1 season
C.Monaco Grand Prix only
D.Winter testing
Q 23 :
What HPV-related initiative was highlighted in recent Indian current affairs?
A.Ban on vaccine
B.National vaccination drive
C.Export restriction
D.Research ban
Q 24 :
Which country’s general elections are scheduled in March 2026 following anti-corruption protests?
A.Nepal
B.Bhutan
C.Bangladesh
D.Myanmar
Q 25 :
What surged due to the West Asia conflict in early March 2026?
A.Gold prices only
B.Cryptocurrency
C.Global oil prices
D.Stock markets
Q 26 :
Which event's 150th anniversary is noted in March 2026?
A.Internet invention
B.First flight
C.First telephone call
D.Moon landing
Q 27 :
What did Rajasthan remove as a disqualification criterion for local polls in recent updates?
A.Criminal record only
B.Education qualification
C.Two-child rule and leprosy bar
D.Age limit
Q 28 :
0 in early 2026?
A.Assam
B.Tripura
C.Meghalaya
D.Sikkim
Q 29 :
What major geopolitical meeting is scheduled between US President Trump and China's Xi Jinping in March 2026?
A.Bilateral meeting in Beijing
B.G20 Summit
C.APEC Summit
D.WTO Conference
Q 30 :
Which Gulf cities experienced explosions from Iranian strikes in response to the conflict?
A.Riyadh and Jeddah
B.Dubai, Doha, Manama
C.Cairo and Amman
D.Istanbul and Ankara
Q 31 :
Which country's Supreme Leader, Ali Khamenei, was assassinated in a joint US-Israel strike in late February 2026?
A.Syria
B.Iraq
C.Lebanon
D.Iran
Q 32 :
Which country’s Prime Minister visited Israel in late February 2026 to elevate bilateral ties?
A.Canada
B.India (Narendra Modi)
C.Germany
D.UK
Q 33 :
What is the name of the operation or escalation linked to recent US-Israel actions against Iran (reported in early March 2026)?
A.Operation Epic Fury
B.Operation Roar of the Lion
C.Operation Desert Storm
D.Operation True Promise
Q 34 :
In response to the assassination of Ali Khamenei, which group fired projectiles at northern Israel?
A.Hamas
B.IRGC
C.Houthis
D.Hezbollah
Q 35 :
Which event is scheduled for inauguration by PM Narendra Modi in March 2026 in Uttar Pradesh?
A.New Parliament building
B.Noida International Airport
C.Bullet train launch
D.Smart City project
Q 36 :
Who inaugurated three major inland waterways projects on National Waterway-2 in Assam in February 2026?
A.Nitin Gadkari
B.Jyotiraditya Scindia
C.Narendra Modi
D.Sarbananda Sonowal
Q 37 :
Which Indian state launched its first Dark Sky Park in Kolli Hills in February 2026?
A.Kerala
B.Tamil Nadu
C.Uttarakhand
D.Himachal Pradesh
Q 38 :
What funding amount did Germany announce for a new climate resilience initiative with India in February 2026?
A.EUR 10 million
B.EUR 100 million
C.EUR 50 million
D.EUR 20 million
Q 39 :
Which Indian state won its maiden Ranji Trophy title recently (reported in early March 2026)?
A.Mumbai
B.Tamil Nadu
C.Jammu & Kashmir
D.Karnataka
Q 40 :
What was the primary goal stated for the 2026 Israeli–United States strikes on Iran?
A.Nuclear disarmament only
B.Border security
C.Economic sanctions enforcement
D.Regime change in Tehran
Reasoning
Q 41 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 42 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 43 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 44 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 45 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 46 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 47 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 48 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 49 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 50 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
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Reasoning
Q 51 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 52 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 53 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 54 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 55 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 56 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 57 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 58 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 59 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 60 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Computer Knowledge
Q 61 :
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A.Window
B.Pop-up menu
C.Message box
D.Taskbar
Q 62 :
What is active desktop ?
A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C.both a and b above mentioned
D.A software
E.None of these
Q 63 :
What is meant by an active window?
A.A window that is minimized
B.The window currently receiving user input
C.Any window currently open
D.The window opened first
Q 64 :
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A.An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B.A computer operating system
C.A spreadsheet application
D.A database management system
Q 65 :
An application is
A.word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B.computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C.Both a and b above mentioned
D.a document
E.None of these
Q 66 :
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A.Window program
B.Spreadsheet program
C.Graphics program
D.Word program
E.None of these
Q 67 :
The term Briefcase is used for
A.a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B.a window that us currently open
C.A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 68 :
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A.Executing a command or initiating an action
B.Permanently storing data
C.Displaying the computer's IP address
D.Formatting a disk automatically
Q 69 :
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A.a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B.a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C.an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 70 :
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A.The associated option is enabled or selected
B.The application has closed
C.The file has been deleted
D.The computer is offline
Q 71 :
The term classic style implies
A.you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B.a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C.both a and b
D.font style
E.None of these
Q 72 :
The term click implies
A.to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B.a button in a dialog box
C.to shut down or exit a dialog box
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 73 :
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
A.Minimize the window
B.Close the associated window or application
C.Maximize the window
D.Move the window
Q 74 :
A command button
A.is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B.is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C.is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
D.is a small button with an X on it
E.None of these
Q 75 :
What is smallest unit of the information?
A.A bit
B.A byte
C.A block
D.A nibble
Q 76 :
A cursor is
A.to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on the clipboard
B.a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C.pressing and holding the main mouse button
D.A button in a dialog box
E.None of these
Q 77 :
What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?
A.A structured collection of data only
B.Software used to create, manage, retrieve, and update data in databases
C.A physical device for storing database backups
D.A programming language used only for calculations
Q 78 :
The meaning of cut is
A.to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
B.to cut a document in two unequal parts
C.to cut a document in two equal parts
D.Only b and c are correct
Q 79 :
A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user is called as
A.pre - determined setting
B.user - setting
C.default
D.setting
E.None of these
Q 80 :
The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and manage files and programs is
A.wall paper
B.desktop
C.background
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Quantitative Aptitude
Q 81 :
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
A.2 hours
B.3 hours
C.4 hours
D.5 hours
Q 82 :
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
A.69
B.96
C.78
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 83 :
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
A.12
B.13
C.14
D.10
E.None of these
Q 84 :
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
Q 85 :
The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
A.42
B.38
C.32
D.72
E.None of these
Q 86 :
Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
A.18
B.16
C.19
D.17
E.None of these
Q 87 :
The difference between th of th of a number and of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
A.45
B.35
C.40
D.30
E.None of these
Q 88 :
If is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
A.2024
B.2104
C.2004
D.2014
E.None of these
Q 89 :
‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
A.38
B.42
C.44
D.34
E.None of these
Q 90 :
The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
A.20
B.22
C.21
D.23
E.None of these
Q 91 :
If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
A.50
B.75
C.57
D.60
E.None of these
Q 92 :
IF the sum of four consecutive even number is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
A.52
B.54
C.56
D.48
E.None of these
Q 93 :
If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
Q 94 :
What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
A.118
B.95
C.110
D.100
E.None of these
Q 95 :
What is 234 time 167 ?
A.48768
B.41184
C.40581
D.39078
E.None of these
Q 96 :
The product of two consecutive even number is 4488. Which is the smaller number ?
A.62
B.71
C.66
D.65
E.None of these
Q 97 :
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
Q 98 :
What is the least number to be added to 1416 to make it perfect square ?
A.47
B.38
C.28
D.25
E.None of these
Q 99 :
What is 147 times 329 ?
A.48069
B.48363
C.49021
D.48723
E.None of these
Q 100 :
The sum of 5 consecutive even number A, B, C, D and E is 410. What is the product of A and E ?
A.6708
B.6880
C.6552
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Medical Officer
Q 101 :
Father of anatomy-
A.Robert Koach
B.Aristotle
C.Andreas Vesalius
D.Robert Hook
Q 102 :
Power house of cell a is known as-
A.Mitochondria
B.Lysosomes
C.Ribosomes
D.​Nucleus
Q 103 :
Normal size of a cell is-
A.75-30 micron
B.7.5-300 micron
C.1-2 micron
D.​2-3 micron
Q 104 :
Plasma membrane is composed of-
A.Fat
B.Carbohydrate
C.Protein
D.​All are right
Q 105 :
The function of mitochondria in cell is-
A.To form ATP
B.Protection of cell
C.Transportation​
D.Excretion
Q 106 :
A patient with a diagnosis of end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is admitted to ICU. All of the following is the appropriate nursing diagnoses for this patient, except :
A.Fluid volume excess
B.Decreased RBC
C.Electrolyte imbalance
D.Impaired immune function
Q 107 :
Engulfing of the liquid substance by cell is called
A.Phagocytosis
B.Pinocytosis
C.Osmosis
D.​None of them
Q 108 :
Which of the following cell organ contains hydrolytic gland?
A.Nucleus
B.Lysosome
C.Mitochondria
D.​Endoplasmic reticulum
Q 109 :
The secretion of goblet cell is known as-
A.Hormone
B.Mucous
C.Enzymes
D.​Digestive juices
Q 110 :
Which of the following glands is an example of hollocrine gland ?
A.Sweat gland
B.Sebaceous gland
C.Pancreatic
D.Salivary gland
Q 111 :
In the state infection which tissue are more active-
A.Reticular tissue
B.Adipose tissue
C.Elastic tissue
D.​Collagenase tissue
Q 112 :
Brown adipose tissue is mostly found is-
A.Adult male
B.Adult female
C.New born
D.​Old age persons
Q 113 :
Largest gland of the body is-
A.Pituitary
B.Adrenal
C.Liver
D.​Pancreas
Q 114 :
The potential reason of alopecia is-
A.Protein deficiency
B.Malnutrition
C.Genetic
D.Vitamin deficiency
Q 115 :
Nodes of ranvier is found in which cell –
A.Epithelial cell
B.Muscles cell
C.Nerve cell
D.​Red cell
Q 116 :
The total number of bones found in human body is-
A.206
B.306
C.205
D.​210
Q 117 :
Lambdoid suture runs between these two bones-
A.Parietal and frontal bone
B.Parietal and parietal bone
C.Parietal and occipital
D.​In both temporal bone
Q 118 :
In children fusion of anterior fontanel takes place during-
A.18 months
B.2 months
C.6 months
D.12 months
Q 119 :
Coronal sutures are found in-
A.Parietal and formal bone
B.Parietal and parietal bone
C.Parietal and occipital
D.In both temporal bone
Q 120 :
Which part of the temporal bone is related with hearing and balancing ?
A.Squamous part
B.Mastoid part
C.Tympanic part
D.​Petrous part
Q 121 :
Smallest bone of human body is -
A.Stapes
B.Fibula
C.Tarsel
D.Carpel
Q 122 :
Digestion begins in our body from -
A.Small intestine
B.Large intestine
C.Mouth
D.Stomach
Q 123 :
Fetal heart can be felt on which day of embroyonic life -
A.After 6.5-7 Weeks
B.At 5 days
C.At 10 days
D.At 40 days
Q 124 :
The average time of cardiac cycle is-
A.6 sec.
B.0.8 sec
C.1 min
D.​1 sec
Q 125 :
The contraction wave of heart starts from -
A.S.A node
B.A.V node
C.Bundle of his
D.​Purkinje fiber
Q 126 :
The formula to measure the cardiac output is -
A.Stroke volume / heart rate
B.Stroke volume * heart rate
C.Stroke volume – heart rate
D.​Stroke volume + heart rate
Q 127 :
Most of digestion occurs in which part of alimentary canal of man ?
A.Small intestine
B.Large intestine
C.Mouth
D.​Stomach
Q 128 :
Function of pacemaker is -
A.To initiate heart beat
B.To regulate beat
C.To regulate blood pressure
D.​To regulate brain waves
Q 129 :
During sleep blood pressure -
A.Increase
B.Decreases
C.Does not change
D.First decrease than change
Q 130 :
To complete one heart beat the time taken is -
A.0.8 second
B.1 second
C.72 second
D.​1.8 second
Q 131 :
Longest artery found in the body of human is -
A.Aorta
B.Venacava
C.Capillaries
D.​Vesicles
Q 132 :
Blood bank of human body is -
A.Spleen
B.Liver
C.Bone
D.​Kidney
Q 133 :
Red blood corpuscles is also known as -
A.Erythrocytes
B.Leucocytes
C.Monocytes
D.Oligodendrocytes
Q 134 :
Graveyard of red blood cell is -
A.Spleen
B.Liver
C.Bone
D.​Kidney
Q 135 :
Number of which type of WBC is greatest in blood of human?
A.Neutrophils
B.Basophils
C.Monocytes
D.​Basophila
Q 136 :
A person with AB blood group is some times called a universal recipient because of the –
A.Lack of antigen in his blood
B.Lack of antibodies in his blood
C.Lack of both antigen and antibodies in his blood
D.​Presence of antibodies in his blood
Q 137 :
In which organ of the human body are the lymphocytes cells formed ?
A.Long bones
B.Spleen
C.Kidney
D.​Heart
Q 138 :
Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called -
A.Coronary artery
B.Pulmonary artery
C.Femoral artery
D.​Radial artery
Q 139 :
Which of the following chemical can be used in anti – coagulant?
A.Sodium citrate
B.Calcium
C.Sodium nitrate
D.Heparin
Q 140 :
The cells which have least regeneration capacity -
A.Cells of brain
B.Cells of bone
C.Cells of heart
D.Cells of kidney
Q 141 :
Largest part of human brain is-
A.Cerebrum
B.Cerebellum
C.Pons
D.Oblongata
Q 142 :
Centre of reflex action-
A.Spinal cord
B.Pons
C.Cerebellum
D.​Cerebrum
Q 143 :
In a cell, process of respiration takes place in -
A.Mitochondria
B.Golgi apparatus
C.Ribosome
D.​Lysosomes
Q 144 :
Percentage of oxygen found in exhaled air is -
A.12%
B.14%
C.16%
D.​18%
Q 145 :
Saliva secreted from mouth digest -
A.Starch
B.Fat
C.Protein
D.​Alcohol
Q 146 :
Tear gland is not found in-
A.Dog
B.Man
C.Pig
D.Crocodile
Q 147 :
Estrogen is secreted by -
A.Corpus luteum
B.Deciduas
C.Graffian follicels
D.​None of them
Q 148 :
Which of the following hormone is called emergency hormone ?