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Question for NHM MP Dental Surgeon - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 14, 2026

Duration: 120 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 100

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To boost your performance in NHM MP Dental Surgeon exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in NHM MP Dental Surgeon exams.

Latest NHM MP Dental Surgeon Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : GK, Reasoning, Nursing, Dental

Question Bank NHM MP Dental Surgeon Exam - English

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GK

Q 1 :
What is the rank of India in the ‘WIPO Global Innovation Index 2022’ ?
  1. A.25
  2. B.40
  3. C.50
  4. D.75
Q 2 :
Who has been appointed as the new Attorney General for India ?
  1. A.R Venkataramani
  2. B.A.J. Sadashiva
  3. C.D Y Chandrachud
  4. D.Ranjan Gogoi
Q 3 :
Which city is the host of the ‘Conference on International Day for Universal Access to Information’ ?
  1. A.Tashkent
  2. B.Dhaka
  3. C.Nursultan   
  4. D.New Delhi
Q 4 :
Which state is the host of the National SC-ST hub conclave organised by the Union MSME Ministry ?
  1. A.Jharkhand
  2. B.Gujarat
  3. C.Maharashtra
  4. D.Tamil Nadu
Q 5 :
‘Operation Garuda’, which was seen in the news, is associated with which organization ?
  1. A.CVC
  2. B.CBI
  3. C.Indian Air Force
  4. D.Indian Navy
Q 6 :
Who has been named as the only Indian on “Time magazine’s list of 100 emerging leaders’ in September 2022 ?
  1. A.Yash Dahiya
  2. B.Rahul Bajaj
  3. C.Avanish Grover
  4. D.Akash Ambani
Q 7 :
At which place, Adani Green Energy Ltd (AGEL) commissioned the World’s largest Wind-solar power plant on 29 September 2022 ?
  1. A.Jaisalmer
  2. B.Gandhinagar
  3. C.Jaipur
  4. D.Jodhpur
Q 8 :
World Maritime Day was observed on 29 September 2022. What was the theme of World Maritime Day 2022 ?
  1. A.A World Without Barriers
  2. B.You Can : Attend the Innovation Forum
  3. C.Save Maritime Species
  4. D.New Technologies for greener Shipping
Q 9 :
Which state is hosting the 36th National Games from 29 September 2022 ?
  1. A.Punjab
  2. B.Meghalaya
  3. C.Odisha
  4. D.Gujarat
Q 10 :
Which country has struck a partnership agreement with Pacific island nations on 29 September 2022 ?
  1. A.Mexico
  2. B.United States
  3. C.New Zealand
  4. D.Australia

Reasoning

Q 11 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
Q 12 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
Q 13 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 14 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
Q 15 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 16 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 17 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
Q 18 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 19 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 20 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B

Dental

Q 21 :
Failure of descent of thyroid gland can be seen in the tongue
 
  1. A.In anterior  2/3 of dorsal aspect
     
  2. B.IN posterior 1/3 of dorsal aspect
     
  3. C.Near the base of tongue close to foramen caecum  
     
  4. D.In anterior 2/3 of inferior 
Q 22 :
development of mandible is by
 
  1. A.I branchial arch
     
  2. B.II branchial arch
     
  3. C.Iv branchial arch
     
  4. D.III branchial arch 
Q 23 :
which of the following lobes of cerebrum is related to the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle ?
 
  1. A.Frontal
     
  2. B.Parietal
     
  3. C.Temporal
     
  4. D.Occipital
     
Q 24 :
The branch of facial nerve that conveys the secret motor impulse involved in lacrimation is
 
  1. A.Chorda tympani nerve
     
  2. B.Deep pertosal nerve
     
  3. C.Greater petrosal nerve
     
  4. D.Lesser petrosal nerve
Q 25 :
Structure related to the medial surface of the hyoglossus muscle include the following except
 
  1. A.Glossopharyngeal nerve
     
  2. B.Stylohyoid ligament
     
  3. C.Lingual artert
     
  4. D.Hypoglossal nerve
Q 26 :
Which of the following nerves is not encountered during submandibular gland resection ?
 
  1. A.Lingual nerve                                                    
     
  2. B.Hypoglossal nerve
     
  3. C.Accessory nerve
     
  4. D.Marginal mandibular nerve
     
Q 27 :
Which of the following os called counter current exchanger ?
 
  1. A.Loop of Henle
     
  2. B.Vasa  recta
     
  3. C.collecting duct
     
  4. D.Proximal convoluted tubule
     
Q 28 :
Acute pyogenic infection produces .
 
  1. A.Leucopenia
     
  2. B.Liukocytosis
     
  3. C.Neutropenia
     
  4. D.Lymphopenia
     
Q 29 :
The receptor cells of the olfactory epithelium are
 
  1. A.Bipolar neurons
     
  2. B.Unipolar neurons
     
  3. C.Multipolar neurons
     
  4. D.stellate cells 
Q 30 :
According to US FDA, the machine used for taking intraoral radiographs is classified as :
  1. A.Class I
  2. B.Class II
     
  3. C.Classs III
  4. D.Class IV
Q 31 :
Activity of osteoclasts can be modified and regulated by which hormone
 
  1. A.Calcitonin
     
  2. B.Thyroid
     
  3. C.Insulin
     
  4. D.Pituitary 
Q 32 :
Is volumetric relaxation ends immediately after
 
  1. A.A V valve closes
     
  2. B.When ventricular pressure falls below aortic pressure
     
  3. C.when ventricular pressure falls below atrial pressure
     
  4. D.None of the above 
Q 33 :
Which of the following is a regulatory protein of the muscle
 
  1. A.Troponin
     
  2. B.Myosin
     
  3. C.Actin
     
  4. D.Protein C 
Q 34 :
Intrinsic factor in the stomach is secreted by
 
  1. A.Oxyntic cells
     
  2. B.Chief cells
     
  3. C.Mast like cells
     
  4. D.D –cells of antrum 
Q 35 :
Kussmaul’s respiration occurs in response to
 
  1. A.Decrease in PH of blood
     
  2. B.Increase in PH of blood
     
  3. C.Obstructive pulmonary disease
     
  4. D.Carbon monoxide poisoning 
Q 36 :
The main component of hyperlipidemia constituting a major risk factor for atherosclerosis is
 
  1. A.High density lipoprotein (HDL)cholesterol
     
  2. B.Intermediate density lipoprotein (IDL) cholesterol
     
  3. C.Low density lipoprotein (LDL ) cholesterol
     
  4. D.Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) cholesterol 
Q 37 :
Metal oxides are added in porcelain provide all EXCEPT :
  1. A.Strength
  2. B.Improve bonding
  3. C.Cosmetic
  4. D.Impart color
Q 38 :
The enzyme phosphofructokinase 1 is strongly activated by
 
  1. A.Cyclic AMP
     
  2. B.Adenosine triphosphate
     
  3. C.Citrate
     
  4. D.Fructose 2 ,6 bis phosphate 
Q 39 :
Transcription is the synthesis of
 
  1. A.Single stranded complimentary  copy of DNA
     
  2. B.Double stranded complimentaty copy of DNA
     
  3. C.Complimentary copy of RNA
     
  4. D.complimentary copy of r RNA
Q 40 :
Non  polar lipid act as
 
  1. A.Electrical insulators
     
  2. B.Ions
     
  3. C.Non electrical insulators
     
  4. D.Electrolytes
     
Q 41 :
Cofactor required for lipoprotein lipase activity is
 
  1. A.Apo A-II
     
  2. B.Apo C-II
     
  3. C.Apo CIII
     
  4. D.Apo B –II
     
Q 42 :
The first plasma protein to be generated after severe protein deficiency 
  1. A.Albumin
     
  2. B.Globulin
     
  3. C.Fibrinogen
     
  4. D.Thrombin
     
Q 43 :
Hemochromatosis presents with all except
 
  1. A.Micro modular
     
  2. B.Diabetes  mellitus
     
  3. C.Skin pigmentation
     
  4. D.Hepatitis 
Q 44 :
coating of bacteria particles with host protein to facilitate phagocytosis is known as
 
  1. A.Chemotaxis
     
  2. B.Chemokine
     
  3. C.Opsonization
     
  4. D.Membrane attack complex 
Q 45 :
Caseation necrosis is see in
 
  1. A.Tuberculosis
     
  2. B.Sarcoidosis
     
  3. C.In both tuberculosis and sarcoidosis
     
  4. D.Leprosy 
Q 46 :
Saddle embolus causes sudden death by blocking 
  1. A.Coronary arteries
     
  2. B.Cerebral arteries
     
  3. C.Pulmonary arteries
     
  4. D.Renal arteries 
Q 47 :
Phagocytes kill bacteria through which mechanism
 
  1. A.Membrane attack complex killing
     
  2. B.Oxidative and non oxidative killing 
     
  3. C.Zipper killing
     
  4. D.Chemotoxis 
Q 48 :
Shock lung is seen in
 
  1. A.Hypovolemic Shock
     
  2. B.Septic shock
     
  3. C.Anaphylactic  shock
     
  4. D.Neurogenic shock
Q 49 :
which one given below is a DNA virus ?
 
  1. A.Polio virus
     
  2. B.Adenovirus
     
  3. C.Astroviridae
     
  4. D.Hepatitis –A virus
     
Q 50 :
The antibody produced during primary immune response is
 
  1. A.IgM
     
  2. B.IgG
     
  3. C.IgA
     
  4. D.IgE

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