Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 8Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 9Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 11Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 12Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 13Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 14Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 15Single Answer
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine
Question 16Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 17Single Answer
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
A
water polo
B
Rugby
C
Polo
D
baseball
Question 18Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 19Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 20Single Answer
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi
Question 21Single Answer
What is the lithosphere composed of ?
A
Water and gases
B
Rocks and minerals
C
Living organisms
D
Air and gases
Question 22Single Answer
The lithosphere includes :
A
Only the Earth's crust
B
The Earth's crust and upper mantle
C
Only the Earth's mantle
D
The Earth's crust, mantle, and core
Question 23Single Answer
The process of soil formation is called :
A
Erosion
B
Weathering
C
Deposition
D
Lithification
Question 24Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 25Single Answer
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A
BARC
B
ISRO
C
DRDO
D
HAL
Question 26Single Answer
Which Indian state launched the ‘Green Energy Villages’ initiative in 2025 to promote renewable energy?
A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Rajasthan
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Gujarat
Question 27Single Answer
Which organization developed the K-6 hypersonic Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM) tested in 2025?
A
ISRO
B
HAL
C
Bharat Dynamics Limited
D
DRDO
Question 28Single Answer
Which ministry established the Passport Seva Portal to streamline passport services in 2025?
A
Ministry of Home Affairs
B
Ministry of Corporate Affairs
C
Ministry of External Affairs
D
Ministry of Electronics and IT
Question 29Single Answer
What is the primary goal of the Digital Payment Intelligence Platform (DPIP) launched by the RBI in 2025?
A
Promote cash transactions
B
Enhance cybersecurity in digital payments
C
Reduce ATM usage
D
Increase bank branch networks
Question 30Single Answer
Which Indian state topped the vulture population census in 2025?
A
Rajasthan
B
Gujarat
C
Madhya Pradesh
D
Maharashtra
Reasoning
Question 31Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 32Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 33Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 34Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 35Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 36Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 37Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 38Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 39Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 40Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 41Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 42Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 43Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 44Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 45Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 46Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 47Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 48Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 49Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 50Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
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Reasoning
Question 51Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 52Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 53Single Answer
Passage :
Find the missing number in the following series ?
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A
71
B
61
C
79
D
69
Question 54Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A
HID
B
SON
C
Both LAP and BUT
D
CAR
E
Both CAR and LAP
Question 55Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A
LAP
B
BUT
C
CAR
D
SON
E
HID
Question 56Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 57Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 58Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 59Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN
(Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word), how many words will remain unchanged?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
More than three
E
None
Question 60Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN (Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
According to the English alphabetical series how many letters are there between the first letter of the third word and the first letter of the fifth word?
A
Two
B
One
C
None
D
Three
E
More than three
Concerned Subject (Mechanical)
Question 61Single Answer
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
A
Greater than 1
B
Equal to 1
C
Between 1 and 3
4 4
D
Less than 1
Question 62Single Answer
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 63Single Answer
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
A
Newtonian fluid
B
Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C
Pseudo-plastic fluids
D
Dilatent fluids
Question 64Single Answer
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
A
8
B
6
C
4
D
2
Question 65Single Answer
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
A
0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B
4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C
0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D
4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Question 66Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
Both 1 and 2
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 67Single Answer
State whether following flow field is physically possible?
A
Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B
Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C
Possible for steady, compressible flow
D
Not Possible
Question 68Single Answer
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
A
0.25
B
0.26
C
2
D
4
Question 69Single Answer
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW
Question 70Single Answer
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
A
man power
B
profit
C
inventory
D
manufacturing
Question 71Single Answer
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
A
3 m/s2
B
6 m/s2
C
9 m/s2
D
15 m/s2
Question 72Single Answer
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
A
9
B
-6
C
117
D
10.8
Question 73Single Answer
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
A
More for lighter fluid
B
More for denser fluid
C
Less for denser fluid
D
Less for lighter fluid
Question 74Single Answer
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
A
Linearly with fluid density
B
Inversely with pressure drop
C
Directly as square of pipe radius
D
Inversely with fluid velocity
Question 75Single Answer
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
A
1.5mm
B
2.5mm
C
4.0mm
D
5.0mm
Question 76Single Answer
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
A
0.05m
B
0.07m
C
0.08m
D
0.09m
Question 77Single Answer
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
A
8 kW
B
4 kW
C
2 kW
D
1 kW
Question 78Single Answer
In a hydraulic coupling
A
The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
B
The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
C
The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
D
The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque
Question 79Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
A
1,2 and 3 only
B
1,2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1,2, 3 and 4
Question 80Single Answer
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
A
150 N
B
1470 N
C
340 N
D
900 N
Question 81Single Answer
Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n2.
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 82Single Answer
Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?
A
Energy
B
Mass
C
Momentum
D
Angle
Question 83Single Answer
Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in
A
Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
B
Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
C
Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
D
Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid
Question 84Single Answer
Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 105. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be
A
2Q
B
A little more than 2Q
C
A little less than 2Q
D
4Q
Question 85Single Answer
Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
A
7.5 W/m2K
B
15 W/m2K
C
25 W/m2K
D
35 W/m2K
Question 86Single Answer
For laminar flow through a round pipe, the shear stress
A
Remains constant over the cross-section
B
Varies linearly with the radial distance
C
Must be zero at all point
D
Varies parabolically with radial distance
Question 87Single Answer
Percentage clongation during tensile test is indicative of
A
Creep
B
Malleability
C
Ductility
D
Elasticity in the metal
Question 88Single Answer
Which of the above statements is not correct in the context of laminar flow through a pipeline?
A
Shear stress is zero at the center and varies linearly with pipe radius
B
Head loss is proportional to square of the average flow velocity
C
The friction factor varies inversely with flow Reynolds number
D
No dispersion of die injected into the flow stream
Question 89Single Answer
Laminar flow between closely spaced parallel plates is governed by the consideration of which one of the following pair of forces?
A
Pressure and inertial forces
B
Gravity and inertial forces
C
Viscous and inertial forces
D
Pressure and inertial forces
Question 90Single Answer
Formation and collapse of vapour bubbles are believed to be the root cause for cavitation in hydraulic turbines. Most favorable condition for the formation of bubbles is set in the turbine at
A
Penstock/nozzl
B
Guide vanes/Inlet of the runner
C
Vanes receiving impact of jet
D
Outlet of the runner/Entrance of the draft tube
Question 91Single Answer
For fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe with Reynolds number Rethe friction factor is
A
Inversely proportional to Re
B
Proportional to Re
C
Proportional to square of Re
D
Independent of Re
Question 92Single Answer
The ratio of power outlet of the pump to the power input to the pump is known as
A
Mechanical efficiency
B
Static efficiency
C
Overall efficiency
D
Manometric efficiency
Question 93Single Answer
A pump is defined as a device which converts
A
Hydraulic energy into Mechanical energy
B
Mechanical energy into Hydraulic energy
C
Kinetic energy into Mechanical energy
D
None of the above
Question 94Single Answer
The specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of the unit of such a size that is
A
Delivers the unit discharge at unit head
B
Requires unit power to develop unit head
C
Delivers the unit discharge at unit power
D
Produces unit power with unit head available
Question 95Single Answer
Negative slip occurs in reciprocating pumps, when delivery pipe is
A
Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running atlow speed
B
Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running at high speed
C
Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at low speed
D
Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at high speed
Question 96Single Answer
The pressure inside a soap bubble of 50 mm diameter is 25 N/m2 above the atmospheric pressure. The surface tension in soap film would be
A
0.156 N/m
B
0.313 N/m
C
0.624 N/m
D
0.078 N/m
Question 97Single Answer
A Newtonian fluid is one which
A
Is viscous but incompressible
B
Has a linear relationship between the shear stress and the rate of angular deflection
C
Exhibits an increase in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
D
Exhibits a decrease in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
Question 98Single Answer
Unlike the viscosity of fluids, the viscosity of gases increases with increasing temperature. This is due to
A
Increased cohesive force between the molecule
B
Increased momentum transfer in the molecules
C
Decreased momentum transfer in the molecules
D
Increase in both cohesive force and momentum transfer
Question 99Single Answer
Manometer is a device used for measuring
A
Velocity at a point in a fluid
B
Pressure at a point in a fluid
C
Discharge of a fluid
D
None of the above
Question 100Single Answer
When a dolphin glides through air, it experiences an external pressure of 0.75 m of mercury. The absolute pressure on dolphin when it is 5m below the free surface of the water is
A
0.10 N/m2
B
0.5 N/m2
C
1.0 N/m2
D
0.15 N/m2
Question 101Single Answer
A spherical waterdrop of 1 mm in diameter splits up in air into 64 smaller drops of equal size. The surface tension coefficient of water in air is 0.073 N/m. The work required in splitting up the drop is
A
0.96 × 10–6 J
B
0.69 × 10–6 J
C
0.32 × 10–6 J
D
0.23 × 10–6 J
Question 102Single Answer
Consider the following statements pertaining to stability of floating bodies:
1. A floating body will be stable when the centre of gravity is above the centre of buoyancy.
2. The position of metacentres corresponding to different axes of rotation are generally different for the same floating object.
3. For cargo ships, the metacentric height varies with loading.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 103Single Answer
Water is coming out from a tap and falls vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Assuming steady inviscid flow, constant pressure atmosphere everywhere, and neglecting curvature and surface tension effects, the diameter of the stream 0.5 m below the tap opening is nearly
A
11.7 mm
B
14.6 mm
C
17.5 mm
D
20.4 mm
Question 104Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. At low Reynolds numbers of any flow, viscous forces dominate over inertial forces.
2. Transition from laminar to turbulent flow occurs over a range of Reynolds numbers depending on the surface presented to the flow.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 105Single Answer
In a steady laminar flow of a given discharge through a circular pipe of diameter D, the head loss is proportional to
A
D–1
B
D–2
C
D–3
D
D–4
Question 106Single Answer
The centre-line velocity in a pipe flow is 2m/s. What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if the Reynolds number of the flow is 800?
A
2 m/s
B
1.5 m/s
C
1 m/s
D
0.5 m/s
Question 107Single Answer
During a constant pressure expansion of a gas, 33.3% heat is converted into work while the temperature rises by 20 K. The specific heat of the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of work, W is
A
8%
B
10%
C
12%
D
15%
Question 108Single Answer
A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/kg K to 75 kJ/kg K. The process is
A
reversible and isothermal
B
irreversible
C
reversible only
D
isothermal only
Question 109Single Answer
A reversible heat engine rejects 80% of the heat supplied during a cycle of operation. If the engine is reversed and operates as a refrigerator, then its coefficient of performance shall be
A
6
B
5
C
4
D
3
Question 110Single Answer
For the same efficiency of the Brayton cycle and the Carnot cycle working between temperature limits of Tmax and Tmin, the power contribution of the Brayton cycle will be
A
zero
B
maximum
C
minimum
D
50% of the Carnot cycle
Question 111Single Answer
Consider the following motions :
1. Piston reciprocating inside an engine cylinder
2. Motion of a shaft between foot-step bearings
Which of the above can rightly be considered as successfully constrained motion?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 112Single Answer
A rotor weighing 2 kN is supported on bearings A and B which are 1 m apart. The centre of mass of the rotor is at a distance 0.4 m from bearing A. It is observed that there is an unbalanced couple of magnitude 300 N-m which leaves the shaft balanced statically.The dynamic reactions at the supports will be
A
800 N and 800 N
B
300 N and 800 N
C
800 N and – 300 N
D
300 N and – 300 N
Question 113Single Answer
A cam is a mechanical member used to impart a desired motion to a follower by direct contact. Which one of the under-listed follower motion types will produce the least jerk to the system?
A
Simple harmonic
B
Constant acceleration and deceleration
C
Constant velocity
D
Cycloidal
Question 114Single Answer
In a circular are cam with a roller follower, acceleration of the follower depends on
1. cam speed and location of centre of circular arc
2. roller diameter and radius of circular arc
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 115Single Answer
A manufacturing company is selling a product for 15 per unit with variable cost of 10 per unit. The fixed cost of the asset is 50,000. How many units should be produced to breakeven?
A
2000
B
5000
C
8000
D
10000
Question 116Single Answer
Hot wire anemometer is used to measure_______________?
A
discharge
B
velocity of gas
C
pressure intensity of gas
D
pressure intensity of liquid
Question 117Single Answer
A gear of 28 cm pitch circle diameter has 40 teeth. The circular pitch will nearly be
A
11 mm/tooth
B
22 mm/tooth
C
33 mm/tooth
D
44 mm/tooth
Question 118Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding gear tooth designing for gear drive :
1. Tooth profiles not designed as per ‘law of gearing’ will cause vibration and impact problems even at low speed.
2. As the gears go through their mesh, the pitch point must remain stationary on the line of centres.
3. In a correctly designed tooth profile, the line of action of successive instantaneous points of contact will pass through the stationary pitch point.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 119Single Answer
The flywheel of a steam engine has a radius of gyration of 1 m and mass 2000 kg. The starting torque of the engine is 2000 N-m. The kinetic energy of the flywheel after 10 seconds from start is
A
75 kN-m
B
100 kN-m
C
125 kN-m
D
150 kN-m
Question 120Single Answer
Consider two shafts connected with two gears as per the following options :
1. One on each shaft.
2. Through an intermediate gear mounted on an intermediate shaft, and every shaft having one gear only.
3. Through an intermediate gear mounted on an intermediate shaft having two gears, whereas the other shafts have one gear each
Which of the above represent(s) a simple gear train?
A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 121Single Answer
Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity _________________?
A
Pascal
B
Poise
C
Stoke
D
Faraday
E
None of the above
Question 122Single Answer
Consider the following processes:
1. Extension of a spring
2. Plastic deformation of a material
3. Magnetization of a material exhibiting hysteresis
Which of the above process are irreversible?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 123Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct for a throttling process?
1. It is an adiabatic steady flow process
2. The enthalpy before and after throttling is same
3. In the processes, due to fall in pressure, the fluid velocity at outlet is always more than inlet velocity
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 124Single Answer
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW
Question 125Single Answer
A heat engine receives heat at the rate of 2500 kJ/min and gives an output of 12.4 kW. Its thermal efficiency is, nearly
A
18%
B
23%
C
26%
D
30%
Question 126Single Answer
One reversible heat engine operates between 1000 K and T2 K and another reversible heat engine operates between T2K and 400 K. If both the engines have the same heat input and output, then the temperature T2 must be equal to
A
582.7 K
B
632.5 K
C
682.8 K
D
732.5 K
Question 127Single Answer
Consider the following statements for isothermal process:
1. Change in internal energy is zero
2. Heat transfer is zero
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 128Single Answer
A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/K to 75 kJ/K. The process is:
A
Reversible and isothermal
B
Irreversible
C
Reversible only
D
Isothermal only
Question 129Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is correct during adiabatic charging of an ideal gas into an empty cylinder from a supply main?
A
The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
B
The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
C
The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
D
The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
Question 130Single Answer
Consider the following systems :
1. An electric heater
2. A gas turbine
3. A reciprocating compressor
The steady flow energy equation can be applied to which of the above systems?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 and 3 only
Question 131Single Answer
If a submerged body displaced from its equilibrium position, returns to its original position, it is called __________.
A
thermal equilibrium
B
neutral equilibrium
C
unstable equilibrium
D
stable equilibrium
Question 132Single Answer
In a flow measurement, a venturi meter is preferred over an orifice plate because _____.
A
energy of head loss is less
B
It is cheaper
C
pressure drop is more
D
space is limited
Question 133Single Answer
Pitot tube measures ______.
A
dynamic pressure of a moving stream
B
guage pressure
C
temperature of moving water
D
pressure difference between two fluids
Question 134Single Answer
Which of the following is not a property of an ideal fluid ?
A
flow is irrotational
B
it has no viscosity
C
it has viscosity
D
it is incompressible
Question 135Single Answer
Nozzle used in steam turbines convert ________.
A
enthalpy of steam into work
B
enthalpy of steam into kinetic energy
C
enthalpy of steam into pressure energy
D
pressure energy into work
Question 136Single Answer
Which of the following assumptions is the most relevant in air-standard cycle analysis ?
A
All the processes within the cycle are irreversible
B
Working fluid is a fixed mass
C
Specific heat of air changes during the cycle
D
Cycle is assumed to be an open cycle
Question 137Single Answer
The modern Francis turbine is a ___________flow turbine .
A
tangential
B
axial
C
radial
D
mixed
Question 138Single Answer
Variation of stress with strain rate for a Newtonian fluid is ______ .
A
hyperbolic
B
linear
C
elliptical
D
parabolic
Question 139Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a part of refrigeration systems ?
A
Turbine
B
Evaporator
C
Compressor
D
Condenser
Question 140Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT an intensive property ?
A
Temperature
B
Total volume
C
Pressure
D
Density
Question 141Single Answer
Which of the following does NOT represent a unit of viscosity ?
A
Stoke
B
Poise
C
m²/sec
D
N-m/sec
Question 142Single Answer
__________ in the fuel is oxidised during knocking .
A
Hydrocarbon
B
Phosphorous
C
Water
D
Coal
Question 143Single Answer
_________ is defined as the ability of a material to resist deformation under action of an external load .
A
Stiffness
B
Resilience
C
Brittleness
D
Toughness
Question 144Single Answer
Draught is produced in locomotive boilers by which of the following components ?
A
Locomotive
B
Steam jet
C
Centrifugal fan
D
Chimney
Question 145Single Answer
For a steady flow, the value of all fluid properties at any fixed point _________ .
A
do not change with location
B
change with time
C
change with location
D
do not change with time
Question 146Single Answer
For a floating body, if the metacentre is below the centre of gravity, then the body is said to be __________ equilibrium .
A
thermal
B
stable
C
unstable
D
neutral
Question 147Single Answer
________ is useful for measuring flow of a conducting fluid .
A
Orifice meter
B
Rotameter
C
Vane meter
D
Electro-magnetic flow meter
Question 148Single Answer
A two- stroke engine consists of ________ port (s)
A
Three
B
Four
C
One
D
Two
Question 149Single Answer
Air Cooling is mostly preferred for _________ .
A
heavy truck
B
buses
C
moto cycles
D
multi-utility vehicles
Question 150Single Answer
_______ valves are provided in reciprocating compressors .
A
Simply supported
B
Solenoid
C
Plate
D
Poppet
Question 151Single Answer
Benson boiler have ______ water drum (s)
A
One
B
Zero
C
Three
D
Two
Question 152Single Answer
_________ is used for pumping water into a boilers .
A
Economiser
B
Duplex pump
C
Feed pump
D
Rotor
Question 153Single Answer
The function of a carburetor in internal combustion engines is :
A
to control fuel alone
B
to cool exhaust gases
C
to maintain air-fuel ratio
D
to control air alone
Question 154Single Answer
The device which transfers energy from the ______ to _____ the is known as hydraulic turbine .
A
atmosphere; fluid
B
rotor; fluid
C
fluid; rotor
D
fluid; atmosphere
Question 155Single Answer
The flash chamber in the single stage VCR cycle serves to ________ .
A
decrease the compression ratio
B
increase the refrigerating effect
C
increase the compression ratio
D
decrease the refrigerating effect
Question 156Single Answer
Define thermodynamics .
A
It is a science which deals with the relation between heat, work and properties of systems
B
It is a science which deals with work done
C
It deals with dynamics under thermal conditions
D
It is science which deals with the relation between work and properties
Question 157Single Answer
Which of the following statements is correct about a Benson boiler ?
A
Air is sent through the same direction
B
There is no recirculation of water
C
Steam is sent out in multiple directions
D
Flue gases pass only in one direction
Question 158Single Answer
Within a refrigeration system, the expansion valve is incorporated between the ________ .
A
Super-heater and sub-cooler
B
compressor and condenser
C
evaporator and compressor
D
condenser and evaporator
Question 159Single Answer
The reversed ______ cycle employed for passenger aircraft systems .
A
Carnot
B
Atkinson
C
Ericsson
D
Brayton
Question 160Single Answer
Fusible plug in a steam boiler is placed ______ .
A
below the water level indicator
B
at he crown of the furnace
C
at the fire grate of the boiler
D
near the manhole
Question 161Single Answer
Aqua ammonia solution used in a vapour absorption refrigeration system is a solution of ammonia in ________ .
A
CF3
B
LiBr
C
H2O2
D
H2O
Question 162Single Answer
Coated electrodes are used in ______ .
A
gas tungsten arc welding
B
submerged arc welding
C
tungsten insert gas welding
D
shielded metal arc welding
Question 163Single Answer
Where is air cycle refrigeration commonly used ?
A
Domestic refrigerator
B
Cold storage
C
Aircraft conditioning
D
Car air conditioning
Question 164Single Answer
________, is not a water tube boiler .
A
Benson boiler
B
Babcock-Wilcox boiler
C
Stirling boiler
D
Scotch marine
Question 165Single Answer
Stoke is another unit of -
A
kinematic viscosityy
B
velocity gradient
C
Shear stress
D
dynamic viscosit
Question 166Single Answer
For a refrigerating machine, capacity is expressed as ______ .
A
the lowest temperature attained
B
inside volume of the cabinet
C
gross weight of the machine
D
rate of heat extraction from the space being cooled
Question 167Single Answer
The value of quality or dryness fraction of a substance in saturated liquid-vapor mixture is ________ .
A
1
B
2
C
Zero
D
between Zero and 1
Question 168Single Answer
Uniform flow is the type of flow where in velocity at any given time ________- with respect to space .
A
Decreases
B
Does not change
C
Increases
D
Changes
Question 169Single Answer
______ falls under the category of a water tube boiler .
A
Locomotive boiler
B
Lancashire boiler
C
Cornish boiler
D
LaMont boiler
Question 170Single Answer
Chaplets are used in ________ .
A
forging
B
casting
C
welding
D
extrusion
Question 171Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a unit of pressure ?
A
Pa
B
Bar
C
N/m²
D
Joule
Question 172Single Answer
What was the first refrigerant used in continuous refrigeration system ?
A
Ammonia
B
Water
C
Air
D
Carbon dioxide
Question 173Single Answer
For a 2 m deep swimming pool, pressure difference between the top and the bottom of the pool is ________ kPa .
A
22
B
19.6
C
11
D
12
Question 174Single Answer
Pressure measurement is done by ____. by measuring heat loss from a heated wire .
A
A pirani gauge
B
a manometer
C
a barometer
D
an orifice meter
Question 175Single Answer
In the Rankine cycle, the fluid which enters the boiler is :
A
water
B
steam
C
mercury
D
oxygen
Question 176Single Answer
Percentage elongating measured during tensile testing indicates _____ .
A
malleability
B
fatigue strength
C
creep
D
ductility
Question 177Single Answer
For a given centrifugal pump, discharge varies _______ with speed .
A
fifth power of
B
linearly
C
inversely
D
square root of
Question 178Single Answer
Foaming is a phenomenon that occurs in the boiler feed water due to _____ .
A
nitrogen peroxide
B
manganese
C
sodium chloride
D
oil
Question 179Single Answer
Compounding of a steam turbine is done to ______ .
A
balance the rotor
B
reduce the rotor speed
C
reduce the blade friction
D
connect the shaft
Question 180Single Answer
Any change in entropy could be achieved by changing______ .
A
velocity
B
heat
C
acceleration
D
mass
Question 181Single Answer
Smoke emitting from a lighted cigarette represents ________ .
A
point
B
pathline
C
streakline
D
streamline
Question 182Single Answer
The splash system is NOT used to lubricate _______ .
A
tappets
B
camshafts
C
gear teeth and roller bearings
D
piston rings
Question 183Single Answer
A dead weight tester is used widely for ______ .
A
producing high pressures
B
accurate measurement of loads
C
calibration of another equipment
D
testing magnitude of the given weight
Question 184Single Answer
_______ CANNOT be classified as inversion (s) of a single-slider crank mechanism .
A
Elliptical trammel
B
Whitworth quick-return mechanism
C
Oscillating cylinder engine
D
Crank and slotted-lever mechanism
Question 185Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a part of Rankine cycle ?
A
Pump
B
Compressor
C
Boiler
D
Turbine
Question 186Single Answer
A power plant that uses a gas turbine followed by a steam turbine for necessary power generation is known as __________ cycle power plant .
A
combined
B
bottom
C
generation
D
topping
Question 187Single Answer
In the context of properties of steel, which of the following statement is highly relevant ?
A
Presence of carbon contents imparts strength to iron
B
Presence of carbon does not influence the heat-treatment process
C
Presence of manganese decreases strength.
D
Presence of sulphide improves corrosion resistance
Question 188Single Answer
Those pumps employed for mud related work have ______ type of impeller .
A
an open
B
a two-side shrouded
C
a double-suction
D
a one-side shrouded
Question 189Single Answer
If the oil viscosity increased, then the wear loss _________ .
A
increases
B
becomes zero
C
decreases
D
remains the same
Question 190Single Answer
Impact load is an example of :
A
uniform load
B
static load
C
dynamic load
D
fatigue load
Question 191Single Answer
Internal energy associated with kinetic energy of molecules is ______ .
A
latent energy
B
nuclear energy
C
sensible energy
D
chemical energy
Question 192Single Answer
A capillary tube is employed in a refrigeration cycle to _______ .
A
produce a cooling effect
B
control temperature of the refrigerated space
C
reduce pressure of the refrigerant
D
control flow of the refrigerant
Question 193Single Answer
The Babcock-Wilcox boiler is classified as a water tube boiler because :
A
it has a large reservoir of water at the bottom
B
water passes around the tubes having hot gases
C
water heater is mounted on the boiler itself
D
water passes through the tube and hot gases around
Question 194Single Answer
Otto cycle of a car engine consists of :
A
two isochore and two reversible adiabatic cycles
B
four adiabatic cycles
C
one isochore cycle only
D
one adiabatic cycle only
Question 195Single Answer
When hot air exhausting from the turbine is used to heat up the compressor exit flow, it is knows as _______ .
A
regeneration
B
re-evaporating
C
intercooling
D
intracooling
Question 196Single Answer
If the specific gravity of oil is 0.7, then its density in kg/m³ will be _______ .
A
700
B
7
C
70
D
7000
Question 197Single Answer
viscous forces are NOT available in _______ .
A
laminar flow
B
irrational flow
C
rotational flow
D
transitional flow
Question 198Single Answer
Which of the following is the most widely used fuel in boilers ?
A
Pulverised coal
B
Wood
C
Oil
D
Anthracite coal
Question 199Single Answer
If the relationship between shear stress of a fluid is NOT linear to the velocity gradient, then the fluid is :
A
a compressible fluid
B
a Newtonian fluid
C
a non-Newtonian fluid
D
an ideal fluid
Question 200Single Answer
In a Pelton wheel, jet ratio values are ________ .