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Latest NHPC Trade Apprentice Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Mechanical, Reasoning, Numerical Ability, English, General Awareness
Question Bank NHPC Trade Apprentice Exam (Mechanical) - English
Mechanical
Q 1 :
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
A.Greater than 1
B.Equal to 1
C.Between 1 and 3
4 4
D.Less than 1
Q 2 :
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Q 3 :
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
A.Newtonian fluid
B.Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C.Pseudo-plastic fluids
D.Dilatent fluids
Q 4 :
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
A.8
B.6
C.4
D.2
Q 5 :
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
A.0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B.4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C.0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D.4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Q 6 :
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.Both 1 and 2
B.1 only
C.2 only
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 7 :
State whether following flow field is physically possible?
A.Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B.Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C.Possible for steady, compressible flow
D.Not Possible
Q 8 :
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
A.0.25
B.0.26
C.2
D.4
Q 9 :
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A.10 kW
B.20 kW
C.30 kW
D.50 kW
Q 10 :
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
A.man power
B.profit
C.inventory
D.manufacturing
Q 11 :
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
A.3 m/s2
B.6 m/s2
C.9 m/s2
D.15 m/s2
Q 12 :
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
A.9
B.-6
C.117
D.10.8
Q 13 :
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
A.More for lighter fluid
B.More for denser fluid
C.Less for denser fluid
D.Less for lighter fluid
Q 14 :
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
A.Linearly with fluid density
B.Inversely with pressure drop
C.Directly as square of pipe radius
D.Inversely with fluid velocity
Q 15 :
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
A.1.5mm
B.2.5mm
C.4.0mm
D.5.0mm
Q 16 :
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
A.0.05m
B.0.07m
C.0.08m
D.0.09m
Q 17 :
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
A.8 kW
B.4 kW
C.2 kW
D. 1 kW
Q 18 :
In a hydraulic coupling
A.The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
B.The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
C.The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
D.The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque
Q 19 :
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
A.1,2 and 3 only
B.1,2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1,2, 3 and 4
Q 20 :
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
A.150 N
B.1470 N
C.340 N
D.900 N
Q 21 :
Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n2.
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.1,2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 22 :
Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?
A.Energy
B.Mass
C.Momentum
D.Angle
Q 23 :
Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in
A.Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
B.Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
C.Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
D.Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid
Q 24 :
Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 105. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be
A.2Q
B.A little more than 2Q
C.A little less than 2Q
D.4Q
Q 25 :
Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
A. 7.5 W/m2K
B.15 W/m2K
C.25 W/m2K
D. 35 W/m2K
Q 26 :
For laminar flow through a round pipe, the shear stress
A.Remains constant over the cross-section
B.Varies linearly with the radial distance
C.Must be zero at all point
D.Varies parabolically with radial distance
Q 27 :
Percentage clongation during tensile test is indicative of
A.Creep
B.Malleability
C.Ductility
D.Elasticity in the metal
Q 28 :
Which of the above statements is not correct in the context of laminar flow through a pipeline?
A.Shear stress is zero at the center and varies linearly with pipe radius
B.Head loss is proportional to square of the average flow velocity
C.The friction factor varies inversely with flow Reynolds number
D.No dispersion of die injected into the flow stream
Q 29 :
Laminar flow between closely spaced parallel plates is governed by the consideration of which one of the following pair of forces?
A.Pressure and inertial forces
B.Gravity and inertial forces
C.Viscous and inertial forces
D.Pressure and inertial forces
Q 30 :
Formation and collapse of vapour bubbles are believed to be the root cause for cavitation in hydraulic turbines. Most favorable condition for the formation of bubbles is set in the turbine at
A.Penstock/nozzl
B.Guide vanes/Inlet of the runner
C.Vanes receiving impact of jet
D.Outlet of the runner/Entrance of the draft tube
Q 31 :
For fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe with Reynolds number Rethe friction factor is
A.Inversely proportional to Re
B.Proportional to Re
C.Proportional to square of Re
D.Independent of Re
Q 32 :
The ratio of power outlet of the pump to the power input to the pump is known as
A.Mechanical efficiency
B.Static efficiency
C.Overall efficiency
D.Manometric efficiency
Q 33 :
A pump is defined as a device which converts
A.Hydraulic energy into Mechanical energy
B.Mechanical energy into Hydraulic energy
C.Kinetic energy into Mechanical energy
D.None of the above
Q 34 :
The specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of the unit of such a size that is
A.Delivers the unit discharge at unit head
B.Requires unit power to develop unit head
C.Delivers the unit discharge at unit power
D.Produces unit power with unit head available
Q 35 :
Negative slip occurs in reciprocating pumps, when delivery pipe is
A.Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running atlow speed
B.Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running at high speed
C.Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at low speed
D.Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at high speed
Q 36 :
The pressure inside a soap bubble of 50 mm diameter is 25 N/m2 above the atmospheric pressure. The surface tension in soap film would be
A.0.156 N/m
B.0.313 N/m
C.0.624 N/m
D.0.078 N/m
Q 37 :
A Newtonian fluid is one which
A.Is viscous but incompressible
B.Has a linear relationship between the shear stress and the rate of angular deflection
C.Exhibits an increase in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
D.Exhibits a decrease in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
Q 38 :
Unlike the viscosity of fluids, the viscosity of gases increases with increasing temperature. This is due to
A.Increased cohesive force between the molecule
B.Increased momentum transfer in the molecules
C.Decreased momentum transfer in the molecules
D.Increase in both cohesive force and momentum transfer
Q 39 :
Manometer is a device used for measuring
A.Velocity at a point in a fluid
B.Pressure at a point in a fluid
C.Discharge of a fluid
D.None of the above
Q 40 :
When a dolphin glides through air, it experiences an external pressure of 0.75 m of mercury. The absolute pressure on dolphin when it is 5m below the free surface of the water is
A.0.10 N/m2
B.0.5 N/m2
C.1.0 N/m2
D.0.15 N/m2
Q 41 :
Which of the above statements is correct?
A.For a floating body, the stable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
B.For a floating body, the stable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains lower than the center of gravity of the body
C.For a floating body, the neutral equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
D.For a floating body, the unstable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
Q 42 :
A wall of 0.6m thickness has normal area of 1.5 m2 and is made up of material of thermal conductivity 0.4 W/mK. If the temperature on the two sides of the wall are 800°C and 1000°C, the thermal resistance of the wall is
A. 1.8 K/W
B. 1.8 W/K
C.1 K/W
D. 1 W/K
Q 43 :
A flownet is a graphical representation of streamlines and euqipotnetial lines such as these lines
A.Intersect each other at various different angles forming irregular shaped nets
B.Intersect each other orthogonally forming curvilinearsquares
C.Indicate the direction but not magnitude of vector
D.Indicate the direction and magnitude of vector
Q 44 :
Which of the above statements is correct for the velocity of potential?
A.Existence of velocity potential is an indication of irrotational nature of the flow
B.The velocity potential automatically satisfies the continuity equation
C.Velocity potential can be defined only for 2-dimensional flow
D.All of the above
Q 45 :
Angle of diverging portion of the venturimeter is limited to 7°, because:
1.Flow decelerates in the diverging portion and pressure increases in the downstream direction. Hence, the fluid experience an adverse pressure gradient, if the divergence angle is large.
2 .Flow separation takes place due to adverse pressure gradient when divergence angle is large.
3 .If the divergence angle is large, a negative pressure is created at the throat which obstructs the flow of fluid.
Which of the above reasons are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 46 :
A gas is flowing through an insulated nozzle. If the inlet velocity of gas is negligible and there is an enthalpy drop of 45kJ/kg, the velocity of gas leaving the nozzle is
A.100m/s
B.200m/s
C.300m/s
D.350m/s
Q 47 :
Which of the above statements are correct for turbo-prop powered aircrafts?
1 .The propulsion efficiency of turbo-prop is higher than that of turbo-jet and rockets for low speeds up to about 800km/hr.
2.For the same thrust the turbine in the turbo prop aircraft is smaller than in the turbo-jet aircraft.
3.For the turbo-prop the flight velocity cannot exceed the jet velocity.
A.1,2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 48 :
If absolute jet exit velocity from a jet engine is 2800m/s and forward flight velocity is 1400m/s then propulsive efficiency is
A.33.33%
B.40%
C.66.66%
D.90%
Q 49 :
An air-breathing aircraft is flying at an altitude where the air density is half the value at ground level. With reference to the ground level, the air fuel ratio at this altitude will be
A.1
2
B.1
C.2
D.4
Q 50 :
Which of the above statements are correct for rockets?
1.Unlike the turbo-jet aircraft, in rockets the flight velocity can exceed the jet velocity.
2.In rockets gases having lower molecular weight increase the specific thrust.
3.In rockets the gases are expanded in the nozzle up to the atmospheric pressure.
A.1,2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Important Questions Package
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Reasoning
Q 51 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 52 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 53 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 54 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 55 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 56 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 57 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 58 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 59 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 60 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 61 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 62 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 63 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 64 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 65 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 66 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 67 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 68 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 69 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 70 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 71 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 72 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 73 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 74 :
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A.P
B.Q
C.B
D.K
E.None of these
Q 75 :
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A.None
B.One
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than Four
Numerical Ability
Q 76 :
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
A.2 hours
B.3 hours
C.4 hours
D.5 hours
Q 77 :
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
A.69
B.96
C.78
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 78 :
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
A.12
B.13
C.14
D.10
E.None of these
Q 79 :
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
Q 80 :
The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
A.42
B.38
C.32
D.72
E.None of these
Q 81 :
Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
A.18
B.16
C.19
D.17
E.None of these
Q 82 :
The difference between th of th of a number and of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
A.45
B.35
C.40
D.30
E.None of these
Q 83 :
If is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
A.2024
B.2104
C.2004
D.2014
E.None of these
Q 84 :
‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
A.38
B.42
C.44
D.34
E.None of these
Q 85 :
The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
A.20
B.22
C.21
D.23
E.None of these
Q 86 :
If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
A.50
B.75
C.57
D.60
E.None of these
Q 87 :
IF the sum of four consecutive even number is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
A.52
B.54
C.56
D.48
E.None of these
Q 88 :
If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
Q 89 :
What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
A.118
B.95
C.110
D.100
E.None of these
Q 90 :
What is 234 time 167 ?
A.48768
B.41184
C.40581
D.39078
E.None of these
Q 91 :
The product of two consecutive even number is 4488. Which is the smaller number ?
A.62
B.71
C.66
D.65
E.None of these
Q 92 :
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
Q 93 :
What is the least number to be added to 1416 to make it perfect square ?
A.47
B.38
C.28
D.25
E.None of these
Q 94 :
What is 147 times 329 ?
A.48069
B.48363
C.49021
D.48723
E.None of these
Q 95 :
The sum of 5 consecutive even number A, B, C, D and E is 410. What is the product of A and E ?
A.6708
B.6880
C.6552
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 96 :
The product of two consecutive odd number is 6399. What is the smaller number ?
A.83
B.79
C.81
D.77
E.None of these
Q 97 :
If the fractions are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
E.None of these
Q 98 :
What is 394 times 113 ?
A.44402
B.44632
C.44802
D.44522
E.None of these
Q 99 :
What is the least number to be added to 7700 to make it a perfect square ?
A.131
B.221
C.77
D.98
E.None of these
Q 100 :
What least number should be added to 8602 to make if a perfect square ?
A.234
B.47
C.128
D.36
E.None of these
English
Q 101 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 102 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 103 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 104 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 105 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 106 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 107 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 108 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 109 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 110 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 111 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 112 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 113 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 114 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 115 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 116 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 117 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 118 :
One must keep one’s promises.
A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
B.One’s promises had to be kept.
C.Promises must be kept.
D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 119 :
I read the story in one night.
A.The story had been read by me in one night.
B.The story has been read by me in one night
C.n one night the story has been read by me.
D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 120 :
We must take care of the old.
A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B.The old must be taken care of by us.
C.Those who are old need care by us
D.The old should be taken care of by us.
Q 121 :
My father generously donated money to the church.
A.Money is generously being donated to te church by my father.
B.Money has been generously donated to the church by my father.
C.Money had been generously donated to the church by my father.
D.Money was generously donated to the church by my father.
Q 122 :
We will send you your laboratory reports as soon as they are ready
A.you would be sent your laboratory reports as soon as they will be ready.
B.Your laboratory reports will be sent to you as soon as they are ready.
C.You would be send your laboratory reports as soon as they will be ready.
D.Your laboratory reports should be sent to you as soon as they will be ready.
Q 123 :
I saw the master conducting the orchestra.
A.I saw that the orchestra was being conducted by the master.
B.I saw the orchestra being conducted by te master
C.The master was seen conducting the orchestra by me.
D.The master was conducting the orchestra and I saw that.
Q 124 :
The dog is being fed by us.
A.We fed the dog.
B.We have had been feeding the dog.
C.We are feeding the dog
D.We had been feeding the dog
Q 125 :
When did Rohit return my bike?
A.When was my bike returned by Rohit?
B.When was it that Rohit returned my bike?
C.Rohit returned my bike when?
D.When did my bike come back from Rohit?
General Awareness
Q 126 :
As per the think tank IDEA’s “Global State of Democracy 2021”, which country was added to its annual list of “backsliding” democracies?
A.India
B.USA
C.Brazil
D.UK
Q 127 :
‘Matosinhos Manifesto’, which was seen in the news, is approved by which space agency?
A.ISRO
B.NASA
C.ESA
D.JAXA
Q 128 :
WMO Meeting on the Ganga-Brahmaputra Meghna (GBM) river basins is being held in which place?
A.Varanasi
B.New Delhi
C.Patna
D.Lucknow
Q 129 :
Tantya Mama, who was seen in the news, was a tribal leader of which state?
A.Karnataka
B.Maharashtra
C.Madhya Pradesh
D.Jharkhand
Q 130 :
‘FrogID’ is the national citizen science frog identification initiative of which country?
A.India
B.Australia
C.Japan
D.Germany
Q 131 :
Who is the Chairperson of the RBI Working Group on Digital Lending?
A.Usha Thorat
B.Urjit Patel
C.M D Patra
D.Jayant Kumar Dash
Q 132 :
What is the rank of India in the TRACE Global bribery risk index ?
A.82
B.92
C.102
D.162
Q 133 :
Which organization leads the World Philosophy Day every year ?
A.UNESCO
B.UNICEF
C.IMF
D.International Federation of Philosophical Societies
Q 134 :
Garbine Muguruza, who won her first WTA Finals title recently, if from which country ?
A.Spain
B.USA
C.France
D.Switzerland
Q 135 :
Which country inaugurated the first global innovation summit of the pharma sector ?
A.Australia
B.Denmark
C.Spain
D.India
Q 136 :
“Magdalena Andersson” was the first female prime minister of which country, who has resigned in less than 12 hours of office ?
A.Denmark
B.Australia
C.Sweden
D.Ireland
Q 137 :
What is the name of the scheme, which provides five kg grain per person per month free of cost to all NFSA beneficiaries?
A.PM – KVY
B.PM – JDY
C.PM – FBY
D.PM – GKAY
Q 138 :
As per the National Family and Health Survey (NFHS-5), there are how many women for 1000 men in the country in 2019-2021?
A.1000
B.941
C.1020
D.916
Q 139 :
Which is the fourth stealth Scorpene class submarine that was commissioned to the Indian Navy recently, under Project 75 ?
A.INS Chakra
B.INS Hamsa
C.INS Hamla
D.INS Vela
Q 140 :
Pakistan has permitted India to transport 50,000 tonnes of wheat and life-saving medicines to which country ?
A.Turkmenistan
B.Afghanistan
C.Iran
D.Tajikistan
Q 141 :
Delhi Government announced a six-point action plan to completely clean the Yamuna by which year ?
A.2022
B.2025
C.2030
D.2035
Q 142 :
Which Indian state has been ranked first in the Indian Police Foundation (IPF)’s Smart Policing Index ?
A.Telangana
B.Tamil Nadu
C.Andhra Pradesh
D.Gujarat
Q 143 :
Which country has invited ideas to establish a fission surface power system in the moon ?
A.USA
B.Russia
C.China
D.India
Q 144 :
Which Indian state has recently constituted a Fin-Tech Governing Council ?
A.Kerala
B.Tamil Nadu
C.Gujarat
D.Odisha
Q 145 :
Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT), which was seen in the news recently, is located in which Indian state ?
A.Maharashtra
B.Sikkim
C.Arunachal Pradesh
D.Uttarakhand
Q 146 :
In November 2021, Indian Air Force received 2 Mirage 2000 aircraft & inducted them to the Gwalior air base. The Aircrafts were bought from which country ?
A.Russia
B.France
C.USA
D.Japan
Q 147 :
Which was the “Collins Dictionary word” of the year 2021 ?
A.Lockdown
B.Crypto
C.Non-Fungible Token
D.Vax
Q 148 :
Who got elected as an Asian delegate to the Executive Committee of the Interpol in November 2021 ?
A.Alok Verma
B.Subodh Kumar Jaiswal
C.Rakesh Asthana
D.Praveen Sinha
Q 149 :
The Union Minister of Power & Renewable Energy laid the foundation stone (in Nov’21) for 1500 MW Capacity of Solar Power parks in which state ?
A.Rajasthan
B.Uttar Pradesh
C.Madhya Pradesh
D.Punjab
Q 150 :
‘Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement’ is associated with ?