Question for NIFT PG M.F.Tech 2027 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest NIFT PG M.F.Tech Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Communication Ability and English Comprehension, Case Study Ability and English Comprehension, Quantitative Ability, Analytical and Logical Ability, General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Question Bank NIFT PG Master of Fashion Technology Exam - English

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Communication Ability and English Comprehension

Question 1Single Answer

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the

Question 2Single Answer

Have the car stolen!

A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car

Question 3Single Answer

The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.

A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.

Question 4Single Answer

I had to stop all my work to complete this project.

A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me

Question 5Single Answer

They have published the names of all the successful candidates.

A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.

Question 6Single Answer

The online shopping site lowered the prices.

A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site

Question 7Single Answer

Who taught you to drive a truck ?

A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?

Question 8Single Answer

We shall invite Suresh.

A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us

Question 9Single Answer

Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.

A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.

Question 10Single Answer

The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.

A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow

Question 11Single Answer

Why did break the vase?

A
why is the vase broken by him
B
why was the vase broken by him
C
why had been the vase broken by him
D
why has been the vase broken by him

Question 12Single Answer

Mariam was writing a note to her boss.

A
A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B
A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C
A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D
A note was written by Mariam to her boss

Question 13Single Answer

The baby really enjoys that music.

A
That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B
That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C
That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D
This music was really enjoyed by the baby.

Question 14Single Answer

The weather disrupted the final match.

A
The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B
The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C
The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D
The final match was being disrupted by the weather.

Question 15Single Answer

The management committee is required to publish a report every year.

A
report would be published by the management committee every year.
B
A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C
A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D
Every year the report would be published by the management committee.

Question 16Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold

Question 17Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.

Assets

A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits

Question 18Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Affidavit

A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony

Question 19Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Hollow

A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid

Question 20Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Cosset

A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle

Question 21Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Ogle

A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk

Question 22Single Answer

Passage :

Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Intrinsic

A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired

Question 23Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Coalesce

A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate

Question 24Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Loiter

A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii

Question 25Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.

A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing

Question 26Single Answer

Passage :

Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Deep-seated

A
Chronic
B
Temporary
C
inbred
D
Subconscious

Question 27Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Vibrant

A
Drab
B
Gaudy
C
Jazzy
D
Vivid

Question 28Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

To scowl

A
To glower
B
To smirk
C
To Grimace
D
To grin

Question 29Single Answer

Passage :

In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error .

I used (A)/ a pair of black trousers (B) / for a week (C)/ No error (D)

Question 30Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Atheist

A
Skeptic
B
Pagan
C
Disciple
D
Agnostic

Question 31Single Answer

What is the central idea of the passage?

A
Digital records can replace physical samples.
B
Physical samples are useful only to archivists.
C
Digitisation helps researchers find samples they may still need to inspect.
D
Catalogue searches make research visits less productive.

Question 32Single Answer

What can be inferred from the rise in requests to examine samples?

A
The archive removed most images from its catalogue.
B
Researchers stopped using the catalogue.
C
The reading room extended its opening hours.
D
Online discovery can generate interest in physical materials.

Question 33Single Answer

Which features were difficult to judge from images?

A
Size and origin
B
Colour and date
C
Texture and weight
D
Pattern and shape

Question 34Single Answer

What does “locate” mean in the passage?

A
Find
B
Classify
C
Replace
D
Preserve

Question 35Single Answer

Which description best fits the tone of the passage?

A
Sarcastic
B
Explanatory
C
Alarmed
D
Nostalgic

Question 36Single Answer

What problem remained after the workshop moved to the evening?

A
Longer projects became unavailable.
B
Students could no longer borrow tools.
C
The workshop attracted fewer participants.
D
Many students left without completing their repairs.

Question 37Single Answer

Why were short repair tasks introduced?

A
The organisers wanted to teach only one skill.
B
Many students had limited time to participate.
C
Students asked for more advanced projects.
D
The workshop had run out of fabric.

Question 38Single Answer

What does “spare” mean in the passage?

A
Recover
B
Measure
C
Make available
D
Waste

Question 39Single Answer

Which title best captures the passage?

A
The History of Garment Repair
B
Adapting Repair Workshops to Students’ Time
C
Why Students Prefer Evening Classes
D
Choosing the Best Tools for Campus Workshops

Question 40Single Answer

Which conclusion is supported by the passage?

A
Higher attendance alone did not ensure more students finished their repairs.
B
Every newcomer preferred replacing buttons.
C
Evening sessions reduced workshop attendance.
D
Short tasks improved students’ performance in class.

Question 41Single Answer

Choose the correct verb. “Each of the samples ___ labelled.”

A
have been
B
are
C
has been
D
were

Question 42Single Answer

Identify the part containing the error. “The quality / of the fabrics / were assessed / before cutting.”

A
were assessed
B
of the fabrics
C
The quality
D
before cutting

Question 43Single Answer

Choose the correct verb form. “By the time the visitors arrived, the team ___ the display.”

A
will assemble
B
had assembled
C
has assembled
D
assembles

Question 44Single Answer

Which sentence places the opening modifier correctly?

A
Reviewing the sketches, the final scores were announced.
B
Reviewing the sketches, a recurring motif became visible.
C
Reviewing the sketches, the portfolio impressed the jury.
D
Reviewing the sketches, the jury noticed a recurring motif.

Question 45Single Answer

Choose the correct preposition. “The team complied ___ the safety instructions.”

A
at
B
by
C
with
D
for

Case Study Ability and English Comprehension

Question 46Single Answer

A polo-shirt line has 420 net production minutes to complete 560 garments. What target pitch should the supervisor use?

A
36 seconds per garment
B
45 seconds per garment
C
56 seconds per garment
D
80 seconds per garment

Question 47Single Answer

A jacket line has four consecutive operations with capacities of 68, 72, 51, and 64 garments per hour. After the third operation improves to 69 garments per hour, what limits steady-state output?

A
The first operation at 68 garments per hour
B
The second operation at 72 garments per hour
C
The third operation at 69 garments per hour
D
The fourth operation at 64 garments per hour

Question 48Single Answer

A line with 20 operators works for 450 net minutes per operator. It completes 400 accepted garments with a garment SAM of 18 minutes. What is its efficiency based on accepted output?

A
90%
B
72%
C
85%
D
80%

Question 49Single Answer

A sweatshirt requires 315 seconds of total work, and the target pitch is 48 seconds. Ignoring precedence and equipment constraints, what is the theoretical minimum number of stations?

Question 50Single Answer

An indivisible buttonhole operation takes 80 seconds per garment. The line requires 75 garments per hour. Two identical machines can run independently with one operator each. What is their combined theoretical capacity?

A
45 garments per hour
B
75 garments per hour
C
80 garments per hour
D
90 garments per hour

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Case Study Ability and English Comprehension

Question 51Single Answer

During a time study, an operator averages 50 seconds per cycle and is rated at 108% of standard pace. The allowance is 15% of normal time. What standard time should be recorded?

A
57.5 seconds
B
61.5 seconds
C
62.1 seconds
D
63.5 seconds

Question 52Single Answer

An engineer observes a 40-second sewing cycle at a performance rating of 90%. The factory defines allowances as 10% of standard time. What is the standard time?

A
36.0 seconds
B
39.6 seconds
C
40.0 seconds
D
44.4 seconds

Question 53Single Answer

A sleeve-setting operator lifts a shoulder repeatedly to pick up bundles from a high rack. Which adjustment most directly reduces that movement?

A
Keep the rack height and place larger bundles on it
B
Lower the rack and position the bundles within easy reach
C
Move the rack behind the operator at the same height
D
Raise the rack so it holds fewer layers of bundles

Question 54Single Answer

A supervisor suspects that operators spend too much time holding components with one hand while the other hand searches for matching pieces. Which study best captures what each hand does throughout one work cycle?

A
From-to chart
B
Two-handed process chart
C
Route diagram
D
Machine utilisation chart

Question 55Single Answer

A factory introduces a new pocket guide. The first operator tested is still learning the method, and cycle times decrease steadily during the trial. What should the work-study engineer do before setting the production standard?

A
Use the shortest observed cycle as the standard
B
Allow the method to stabilise and then time representative cycles
C
Average the first three cycles before the operator speeds up
D
Retain the original standard because the machine is unchanged

Question 56Single Answer

A fusing trial meets bond-strength requirements immediately after production, but the collars delaminate after the buyer’s prescribed wash cycles. What evidence should QA require before approving a revised fusing recipe?

A
Higher initial bond strength alone
B
Acceptable bond strength and appearance after the prescribed wash cycles
C
A faster cycle at the same belt setting
D
A lower interlining purchase cost

Question 57Single Answer

A knitwear unit needs a bottom hem with two parallel rows on the face and a looper formation on the underside. The hem must stretch with the fabric. Which machine is the best fit?

A
Bartack machine
B
Single-needle lockstitch machine
C
Blindstitch machine
D
Coverstitch machine

Question 58Single Answer

In an automated cutting trial, the upper plies match the pattern, but the lowest plies show distortion around tight curves. Which experiment best isolates whether lay height contributes to the problem?

A
Change the blade speed and vacuum level together
B
Replace the fabric and rotate the marker at the same time
C
Cut the same fabric at a lower lay height while holding other settings constant
D
Compare top plies from two different fabric constructions

Question 59Single Answer

A critical sewing motor’s vibration has risen consistently over six weekly readings, though the motor still runs. The maintenance team uses the trend to schedule an inspection during a planned stoppage. What maintenance approach is this?

A
Condition-based maintenance
B
Fixed-calendar replacement
C
Breakdown maintenance
D
Run-to-failure maintenance

Question 60Single Answer

A finishing department is choosing between two pressing machines. Both meet the output target on light cotton, but the new order includes heavy wool styles. Which information is most useful before purchasing?

A
Each machine’s maximum theoretical output without garments
B
The highest advertised output on light cotton
C
The number of accessories shown in each catalogue
D
Trial results for finish quality and cycle time on the actual wool styles

Question 61Single Answer

A woven roll shows a thin gap across the width at one point. The inspector confirms that a crosswise yarn is missing. How should the defect be classified?

A
Missing warp end
B
Bowed weft
C
Missing weft pick
D
Reed mark

Question 62Single Answer

Two panels look matched under the factory’s store lighting but visibly differ under the buyer’s specified daylight and retail light sources. What is the best next step?

A
Compare the panels under both specified sources and record the mismatch
B
Approve the pair under the factory lighting where it matches
C
Measure the panels’ dimensions to confirm their shade group
D
Place the darker panel inside the garment without reviewing the design

Question 63Single Answer

A fabric inspection records 24 defect points over 80 linear metres of fabric with an inspected width of 1.5 metres. What is the score per 100 square metres?

A
30 points
B
24 points
C
20 points
D
36 points

Question 64Single Answer

A buyer’s sampling plan gives an acceptance number of 5 and a rejection number of 6 for major defective garments. It rejects the lot if any critical defective garment is found. The sample contains four major defective garments and one critical defective garment. What is the lot decision?

A
Reject because the critical-defect criterion is met
B
Accept because the combined count is five
C
Hold until a second sample replaces the first result
D
Accept because the major count is within its limit

Question 65Single Answer

A checker records three skipped stitches and one open seam on the same sampled shirt. The buyer’s plan counts defective garments, and all four findings are major. What should be entered in the major defective garment count for this shirt?

A
Four major defective garments
B
One major defective garment
C
Two major defective garments
D
Three major defective garments

Question 66Single Answer

A new seam puckers after two plies are stitched. After the thread is removed, the formerly matched alignment marks show that one ply advanced farther than the other. Which trial directly addresses the observed mismatch?

A
Use a finer thread while retaining the feeding setup
B
Increase thread tension to pull the marks together
C
Adjust the feeding system to equalise ply advance
D
Use a hotter iron to flatten the seam after sewing

Question 67Single Answer

During a trial on a densely knitted fabric, the lab finds severed yarns precisely at the needle penetrations. The current needle has a sharp point. Which controlled trial is the most relevant?

A
Increase presser-foot pressure and recheck the hem length
B
Increase the stitch density while retaining the sharp needle
C
Trial a suitable ballpoint needle and recheck fabric damage
D
Change the thread colour and recheck the puncture sites

Question 68Single Answer

A jacket fabric ruptures under a straight pulling load even when the specimen has no initial cut. The buyer wants to quantify the force needed to break an intact specimen. Which test fits that purpose?

A
Tensile strength
B
Tear propagation resistance
C
Pilling resistance
D
Seam slippage resistance

Question 69Single Answer

A washed specimen changes from 400 mm to 388 mm in length and from 300 mm to 306 mm in width. How should QA report the result?

A
3% length growth and 2% width shrinkage
B
2% length shrinkage and 3% width growth
C
3% length shrinkage and 2% width shrinkage
D
3% length shrinkage and 2% width growth

Question 70Single Answer

A fabric’s colour remains nearly unchanged during a laundering test, but the adjacent white test fabric picks up visible dye. Which result should QA flag?

A
Resistance to light-induced fading
B
Colour change of the original specimen
C
Colour fastness to dry rubbing
D
Staining of adjacent fabric during washing

Quantitative Ability

Question 71Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 72Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 73Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 74Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 75Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 76Single Answer

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Question 77Single Answer

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5

Question 78Single Answer

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say

Question 79Single Answer

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30

Question 80Single Answer

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121

Question 81Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 82Single Answer

If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.

Question 83Single Answer

Write the 44000 in Roman numerals

A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC

Question 84Single Answer

Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?

A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10

Question 85Single Answer

What is (98 times 102) ?

A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196

Question 86Single Answer

Which is smaller ?

A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 87Single Answer

Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?

A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9

Question 88Single Answer

Convert 0.81 into fraction ?

A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11

Question 89Single Answer

(63)² – (12)² =?

A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825

Question 90Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 91Single Answer

16.928 + 24.7582

5.015 =?

A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26

Question 92Single Answer

Convert 0.75 into fraction ?

A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8

Question 93Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 94Single Answer

Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?

A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime

Question 95Single Answer

Product of all factors of 10 is ?

A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000

Question 96Single Answer

How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?

A
1
B
10
C
Infinite
D
None

Question 97Single Answer

Which number is divisible by 11 ?

A
12345
B
1331
C
1234
D
1213

Question 98Single Answer

What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?

Question 99Single Answer

What is (64^{^}{2/3}) ?

A
4
B
8
C
16
D
32

Question 100Single Answer

What is (125^{^}{1/3}) ?

Analytical and Logical Ability

Question 101Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 102Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 103Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 104Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 105Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 106Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 107Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 108Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 109Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 110Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 111Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 112Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

Question 113Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 114Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 115Single Answer

Passage :

If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG

Question 116Single Answer

What is the next number in the series: 2, 4, 6, 8, ?

A
9
B
11
C
10
D
12

Question 117Single Answer

What comes next in the series: A, B, C, D, ?

Question 118Single Answer

What is the missing number in the series: 1, 4, 9, 16, ?

A
20
B
36
C
30
D
25

Question 119Single Answer

What follows in the series: 3, 6, 9, 12, ?

A
13
B
15
C
14
D
16

Question 120Single Answer

What is the next term in the series: J, F, M, A, ?

Question 121Single Answer

What comes next: 5, 10, 15, 20, ?

A
25
B
30
C
35
D
40

Question 122Single Answer

What is the missing letter: A, C, E, G, ?

Question 123Single Answer

What follows: 1, 8, 27, 64, ?

A
81
B
100
C
125
D
144

Question 124Single Answer

What is next in the series: 10, 20, 30, 40, ?

A
45
B
55
C
50
D
60

Question 125Single Answer

What comes after: Z, Y, X, W, ?

General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Question 126Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 127Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 128Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 129Single Answer

In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3

Question 130Single Answer

Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women

A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna

Question 131Single Answer

What is Net National Product

A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy

Question 132Single Answer

National income is the

A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost

Question 133Single Answer

Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our

A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings

Question 134Single Answer

During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest

A
2^nd plan
B
3^rd plan
C
5^th plan
D
6^th plan

Question 135Single Answer

Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax

A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax

Question 136Single Answer

"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?

A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan

Question 137Single Answer

What was the real name of Amir Khusro?

A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine

Question 138Single Answer

Which is the national game of Bhutan ?

A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery

Question 139Single Answer

When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?

A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950

Question 140Single Answer

Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Question 141Single Answer

Which day is observed on 1 October every year as declared by the United Nations?

A
World Teachers’ Day
B
International Day of Non-Violence
C
World Food Day
D
International Day of Older Persons

Question 142Single Answer

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) completed 100 years of its establishment on which date in 2026?

A
26 January 2026
B
1 October 2026
C
15 August 2026
D
26 November 2026

Question 143Single Answer

The Union Cabinet raised the Minimum Support Price (MSP) of wheat for the 2027-28 Rabi season by how much?

A
₹25 per quintal
B
₹15 per quintal
C
₹50 per quintal
D
₹75 per quintal

Question 144Single Answer

The Cabinet approved an Intelligent Traffic Management System (ITMS) for Delhi at an approximate cost of:

A
₹790 crore
B
₹2,790 crore
C
₹1,790 crore
D
₹3,790 crore

Question 145Single Answer

Which initiative was launched under Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban 2.0 to develop 50 model cities?

A
PRAGATI-50
B
Smart City Mission
C
AMRUT 2.0
D
Clean India Mission

Question 146Single Answer

The Indian Navy plans to induct how many warships in 2026 according to Defence Minister Rajnath Singh?

A
10
B
12
C
18
D
15

Question 147Single Answer

The Central Government banned which highly toxic herbicide citing risks to human and animal life?

A
Glyphosate
B
2,4-D
C
Atrazine
D
Paraquat Dichloride

Question 148Single Answer

US forces completed their withdrawal from Iraq after approximately how many years of presence?

A
10 years
B
20+ years (since 2003)
C
15 years
D
30 years

Question 149Single Answer

Which airline flight experienced a cockpit stabbing incident involving the co-pilot attempting to crash the plane while en route to Israel?

A
Emirates
B
Flydubai
C
Qatar Airways
D
Etihad

Question 150Single Answer

India’s women’s compound archery team won gold at the Asian Games 2026 by defeating which country?

A
South Korea
B
Japan
C
China
D
Chinese Taipei

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