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Latest NLC GET Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Quantitative Aptitude, Logical Reasoning, General Awareness, Mechanical Engineering
Question Bank NLC Graduate Executive Trainee (Mechanical ) Exam - English
Quantitative Aptitude
Q 1 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 2 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 3 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 4 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 5 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 6 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 7 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 8 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 9 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 10 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 11 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 12 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 13 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 14 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 15 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Logical Reasoning
Q 16 :
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A.Area
B.Volume
C.Length
D.Sound
E.Energy
Q 17 :
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 18 :
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A.Water : Drink
B.Light : Night
C.Teach : Student
D.Air : Breathe
E.Food : Hunger
Q 19 :
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 20 :
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A.Omnivorous
B.Carnivorous
C.Herbivorous
D.Multivorous
E.None of these
Q 21 :
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A.Party : Dance
B.Study : Book
C.Lecture : Study
D.Enjoy : Journey
E.None of these
Q 22 :
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A.Pity : Kindness
B.Cruel : Anger
C.Wise : Education
D.Pride : Humility
E.None of these
Q 23 :
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A.Memory
B.Highness
C.Tongue
D.Speak
E.Voice
Q 24 :
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A.Integrity
B.Honesty
C.Guide
D.Competition
E.None of these
Q 25 :
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A.20
B.14
C.56
D.26
E.None of these
Q 26 :
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A.GIJK
B.DFGH
C.CEFG
D.ABCD
E.None of these
Q 27 :
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A.71
B.73
C.77
D.67
E.None of these
Q 28 :
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A.UMRSME
B.EIWNTR
C.PIGRSN
D.LCUOD
E.None of these
Q 29 :
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A.4
B.2
C.6
D.8
E.5
Q 30 :
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A.UW483
B.ZA26
C.TU420
D.ST380
E.None of these
General Awareness
Q 31 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 32 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 33 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 34 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 35 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 36 :
‘Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance’ (RAMP) is supported by which global institution ?
A.International Monetary Fund
B.World Bank
C.UNICEF
D.World Economic Forum
Q 37 :
Which section of Railways has completed 100 per cent electrification across the Zone ?
A.Konkan Railway
B.North East Frontier Railway
C.East Coast Railway
D.South Central Railway
Q 38 :
Kaziranga National Park is located along which Indian River ?
A.Ganga
B.Yamuna
C.Brahmaputra
D.Sutlej
Q 39 :
Which bank acquired the Indian consumer banking business of City Bank ?
A.HDFC Bank
B.Axis Bank
C.ICICI Bank
D.Yes Bank
Q 40 :
The Lok Sabha passed a bill to merge three municipal corporations of which city into a single entity ?
A.Mumbai
B.Delhi
C.Kolkata
D.Chennai
Mechanical Engineering
Q 41 :
A spherical waterdrop of 1 mm in diameter splits up in air into 64 smaller drops of equal size. The surface tension coefficient of water in air is 0.073 N/m. The work required in splitting up the drop is
A.0.96 × 10–6 J
B.0.69 × 10–6 J
C.0.32 × 10–6 J
D.0.23 × 10–6 J
Q 42 :
Consider the following statements pertaining to stability of floating bodies:
1. A floating body will be stable when the centre of gravity is above the centre of buoyancy.
2. The position of metacentres corresponding to different axes of rotation are generally different for the same floating object.
3. For cargo ships, the metacentric height varies with loading.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 43 :
Water is coming out from a tap and falls vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Assuming steady inviscid flow, constant pressure atmosphere everywhere, and neglecting curvature and surface tension effects, the diameter of the stream 0.5 m below the tap opening is nearly
A.11.7 mm
B.14.6 mm
C.17.5 mm
D.20.4 mm
Q 44 :
Consider the following statements:
1. At low Reynolds numbers of any flow, viscous forces dominate over inertial forces.
2. Transition from laminar to turbulent flow occurs over a range of Reynolds numbers depending on the surface presented to the flow.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 45 :
In a steady laminar flow of a given discharge through a circular pipe of diameter D, the head loss is proportional to
A.D–1
B.D–2
C.D–3
D.D–4
Q 46 :
The centre-line velocity in a pipe flow is 2m/s. What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if the Reynolds number of the flow is 800?
A.2 m/s
B.1.5 m/s
C.1 m/s
D.0.5 m/s
Q 47 :
During a constant pressure expansion of a gas, 33.3% heat is converted into work while the temperature rises by 20 K. The specific heat of the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of work, W is
A.8%
B.10%
C.12%
D.15%
Q 48 :
A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/kg K to 75 kJ/kg K. The process is
A.reversible and isothermal
B.irreversible
C.reversible only
D.isothermal only
Q 49 :
A reversible heat engine rejects 80% of the heat supplied during a cycle of operation. If the engine is reversed and operates as a refrigerator, then its coefficient of performance shall be
A.6
B.5
C.4
D.3
Q 50 :
For the same efficiency of the Brayton cycle and the Carnot cycle working between temperature limits of Tmax and Tmin, the power contribution of the Brayton cycle will be
A.zero
B.maximum
C.minimum
D.50% of the Carnot cycle
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Mechanical Engineering
Q 51 :
A heat engine working on the Carnot cycle receives heat at the rate of 50 kW from a source at 1300 K and rejects it to a sink at 400 K. The heat rejected is
A.20.3 kW
B.15.4 kW
C.12.4 kW
D.10.8 kW
Q 52 :
An ideal gas is flowing through an insulated pipe at the rate of 3.3 kg. There is a pressure drop of 15% from the inlet to the outlet of the pipe. What is the rate of energy loss because of this pressure drop due to friction, given that Rgas= 0.287 kJ/kg K and the reference temperature T0 is 300 K?
A.42.62 kW
B.40.26 kW
C.38.14 kW
D.35.13 kW
Q 53 :
A furnace is provided with an insulating refractory lining. The overall thermal conductivity of the material is 0.03 W/mK. The thickness of the lining is 100 mm. The inner and outer temperatures are 250°C and 50°C, respectively. The heat loss to the surroundings will be
A.30 J/m2/s
B.60 J/m2/s
C.60 J/s
D.30 J/s
Q 54 :
A wall of 0.6m thickness has normal area of 1.5 m2 and is made up of material of thermal conductivity 0.4 W/mK. If the temperature on the two sides of the wall are 800°C and 1000°C, the thermal resistance of the wall is
A.1.8 K/W
B.1.8 W/K
C.1 K/W
D.1 W/K
Q 55 :
Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
A.7.5 W/m2K
B.15 W/m2K
C.25 W/m2K
D.35 W/m2K
Q 56 :
Knocking in a spark ignition engine can be reduced by
1. retarding the spark
2. supercharging
3. increasing the engine speed
4. using a fuel of long straight chain structure Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A.1 and 4
B.1 and 3
C.2 and 3
D.2 and 4
Q 57 :
A 4-cylinder diesel running at 1200 r.p.m. developed 18.6 kW. The average torque when one cylinder was cut out was 105 N m. If the calorific value of the fuel was 42000 kJ/kg and the engine used 0.34 kg of diesel/kW hr, the indicated thermal efficiency was nearly
A.29%
B.26%
C.31%
D.23%
Q 58 :
In a Morse test on a 2-cylinder, 2-stroke SI engine, the brake power is 9 kW and the BHP of individual cylinders with spark cutoff are 4.25 kW and 3.75 kW, respectively. The mechanical efficiency of the engine is
A.90%
B.80%
C.52.5%
D.45.5%
Q 59 :
Consider the following statements for refrigeration and air-conditioning:
1. In a refrigerating machine, the heat exchanger that absorbs heat is connected to a conditioned space.
2. A refrigerating cycle operating reversibly between two heat reservoirs has the highest coefficient of performance.
3. The lower the refrigeration required and the higher the temperature of heat rejection to the surroundings, the larger the power consumption.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 60 :
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
A.8 kW
B.4 kW
C.2 kW
D.1 kW
Q 61 :
Consider the following statements: The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating compressor can be improved by
1. decreasing the clearance volume
2. cooling the intake air
3. heating the intake air
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.2 only
B.3 only
C.1 and 2
D.1 and 3
Q 62 :
Consider the following statements :
The presence of air inside condensers
1. remains as a non-condensable gas
2. reduces the condensing coefficient
3. tends to cling to the surface
4. introduces large thermal resistance
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only
Q 63 :
The refrigeration system of an ice plant working between temperatures of –5°C and 25°C produces 20 kg of ice per minute from water at 20°C. The specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg and latent heat of ice is 335 kJ/kg. The refrigeration capacity of the refrigeration plant is
A.9040 kJ/min
B.8750 kJ/min
C.8380 kJ/min
D.8010 kJ/min
Q 64 :
Consider the following statements in respect of a vapour-absorption refrigeration cycle :
1. The absorption refrigeration cycle is generally used when waste heat is available from an existing source or when free energy like solar energy is to be used.
2. There are no moving parts in the absorption refrigeration plant except a small liquid pump.
3. The value of the coefficient of performance is nearly the same in both vapour-absorption and vapour- compression refrigeration plants.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 65 :
Air at 30°C and 1 bar has a specific humidity of 0.016 kg/kg of dry air. By considering the saturation pressure of water vapour at 30°C as 4.246 kPa, the relative humidity of the air will be
A.66.1%
B.60.2%
C.58.8%
D.56.8%
Q 66 :
Consider the following statements in respect of an evaporative cooling process :
1. The wet-bulb temperature remains constant.
2. The dew-point temperature remains constant.
3. The enthalpy remains constant.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 67 :
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The specific speed of a turbine is the speed at which a homologous turbine develops 1 mhp under unit heat at its maximum efficiency.
2. The specific speed is a dimensionless parameter used for the selection of turbines.
3.The function of guide vanes in reaction turbines is to minimize shock at entry of the fluid onto the runner blades.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A.1, 2 and 3
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 2 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 68 :
A centrifugal pump lifts 0.0125m3/sof water from a well with a static lift of 30 m. If the brake power of the driving electric motor is 5 kW, what is the overall efficiency of the pump-set?
A.57.6%
B.63.9%
C.65.3%
D.73.6%
Q 69 :
Consider the following statements in respect of ideal and practical gas turbine cycles:
1. In the ideal cycle case, the cycle efficiency depends on the pressure ratio only.
2. In the practical cycle case (with irreversibilities in the compression and expansion processes), The cycle efficiency depends on the maximum temperature as well as on the pressure ratio.
3. In the practical cycle case, at a given maximum temperature, the maximum efficiency and the maximum work done occur at a same pressure ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 70 :
A jet of water issues from a sharp-edged vertical orifice under a constant heat of 0.51 m. At a certain point of the issuing jet, the horizontal and vertical coordinates measured from vena contracta are 0.406 m and 0.085 m, respectively. What is the value of the coefficient of velocity?
A.0.975
B.0.925
C.0.875
D.0.825
Q 71 :
Consider the following statements for single stage reciprocating compressors :
1. Isothermal process is the most desirable process for compression.
2. The size of clearance volume provided in the compressor has no effect on work done per kg of air delivered.
3. The volumetric efficiency of the compressor decreases with increasing pressure.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 72 :
Consider the following statements in respect of regenerative Rankine cycle:
1. Regeneration increases the efficiency of the cycle.
2. The boiler capacity is increased for a given output.
3. The capacity of the condenser is reduced.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 73 :
Volumetric analysis of a certain flue gas gave CO2 15%, O2 5% and rest as N2. The gas was at a temperature of 200°C and a pressure of 5 bar. The partial pressure of N2 in the flue gas is
A.250kN/m2
B.300kN/m2
C.350kN/m2
D.400kN/m2
Q 74 :
Consider the following statements:
1. The efficiency of heat transfer in a condenser will improve by increase of the overall heat transfer coefficient.
2. The efficiency of heat transfer in a condenser will improve by increase of the velocity of flow of water in the tube.
3. The difference between the temperature of steam entering the condenser and the inlet water temperature should be maximum for maximum efficiency.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 75 :
The total power developed by a three stage velocity compounded impulse steam turbine is 900 kW. The power magnitudes developed in the first and the second stages are, respectively
A.500 kW and 300 kW
B.100 kW and 300 kW
C.500 kW and 100 kW
D.100 kW and 100 kW
Q 76 :
Consider the following statements in respect of natural-draft cooling towers :
1. Theoretically the water can be cooled to even below the dry-bulb temperature of the induced air flow.
2. Natural draft cooling towers are 100 m or more in height.
3. The inner and outer surfaces are surfaces of revolution of a segment of a hyperbola about the vertical axis-affording improved strength rather than any thermodynamic augmentation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 77 :
Consider the following statements :
1. Wind velocity at about 20 m height above the ground is taken as the rated velocity for design of windmills.
2. The total power of a wind stream is directly proportional to the cube of average velocity.
3. Wind turbine operates with variable load over a narrow range between cut-in and cut-out velocities.
4. Vertical wind machine operates in all wind directions, but it needs yaw adjustment.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 4
C.3 and 4
D.2 and 3
Q 78 :
Which fuel cell is suitable for spacecraft applications?
A.Direct methanol fuel cell
B.Proton exchange membrane fuel cell
C.Alkaline fuel cell
D.Phosphoric acid fuel cell
Q 79 :
A flywheel on a motor speeds up from rest to 1000 r.p.m. in 6 seconds. The number of revolutions made thereby is nearly :
A.200
B.100
C.50
D.20
Q 80 :
Two steel balls of 2 kg and 4 kg mass, respectively are pressed on the two ends of a spring, all pre-placed on a smooth surface. When released, the smaller ball moves with an acceleration of 2m/s2.The simultaneous acceleration of the bigger ball will be :
A.0.5 m/s2
B.1m/s2
C.2 m/s2
D.4 m/s2
Q 81 :
A bullet of mass 0.03 kg moving with a speed of 400 m/s penetrates 12 cm into a fixed block of wood. The average force exerted by the wood on the bullet will be:
A.30 kN
B.20 kN
C.15 kN
D.10 kN
Q 82 :
In the design of beams for a given strength, consider that the conditions of economy of use of the material would avail as follows:
1.Rectangular cross-section is more economical than square section area of the beam.
2. Circular section is more economical than square section.
3. I-section is more economical than a rectangular section of the same depth.
Which of the above are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 83 :
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A.The strain produced per unit volume is called resilience.
B.The maximum strain produced per unit volume is called proof resilience.
C.The least strain energy stored in a unit volume is called proof resilience.
D.The greatest strain energy stores in a unit volume of a material without permanent deformation is called proof resilience.
Q 84 :
A beam of rectangular section (12 cm wide × 20 cm deep) is simply supported over a span of 12 m. It is acted upon by a concentrated load of 80 kN at the midspan. The maximum bending stress induced is:
A.400 MPa
B.300 MPa
C.200 MPa
D.100 MPa
Q 85 :
A uniform bar, simply supported at the ends, carries a concentrated load P at mid-span. If the same load be, alternatively, uniformly distributed over the full length of the bar, the maximum deflection of the bar will decrease by
A.25.5%
B.31.5%
C.37.5%
D.50.0%
Q 86 :
A thin cylindrical pressure vessel and a thin spherical pressure vessel have the same mean radius, same wall thickness and are subjected to same internal pressure. The hoop stresses set up in these vessels cylinder in relation to sphere) will be in the ratio
A.1 : 2
B.1: 1
C.2 : 1
D.4 : 1
Q 87 :
A boy walks up a stalled escalator in 90 seconds. When the same escalator moves, he is carried up in 60 seconds. How much time would it take him to walk up the moving escalator?
A.48 seconds
B.36 seconds
C.30 seconds
D.24 seconds
Q 88 :
On completion of heat treatment, the austenite structure would be retained if:
A.the rate of cooling is greater than the critical cooling rate
B.the rate of cooling is less than the critical cooling rate
C.the initiating temperature of martensite formation is above the room temperature
D.the finishing temperature of martensite formation is below the room temperature
Q 89 :
Which of the following statements is correct?
A.Iron-carbon and TTT diagrams are both equilibrium diagrams.
B.Iron-carbon and TTT diagrams are both non-equilibrium diagrams.
C.Iron-carbon diagram is an equilibrium diagram but TTT diagram is a non-equilibrium diagram
D.Iron carbon diagram is a non-equilibrium diagram but TTT diagram is an equilibrium diagram.
Q 90 :
The correct order of increasing resistivity among the following materials is :
A.nickel, doped silicon, sodium silicate, pure silica
B.doped silicon, nickel, pure silica, sodium silicate
C.Nickel, pure silica, sodium silicate, doped silicon
D.Sodium silicate, nickel, pure silica, doped silicon
Q 91 :
Consider the following statements:
On heating an elastomer under tensile load, its shrinkage
1. maximizes the enthalpy
2. maximizes the entropy
3. minimizes the free energy
4. avoids breaking
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.1 and 4
Q 92 :
Which of the following properties will be the meaningful indicator/indicators of uniform rate of elongation of a test piece of a structural material before necking happens in the test piece?
1. Ductility
2. Toughness
3. Hardness
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 93 :
Which one of the following alloying elements increases the corrosion resistance of steel?
A.Vanadium
B.Chromium
C.Nickel
D.Copper
Q 94 :
Which of the following mechanisms are examples of forced closed kinematic pairs?
1. Cam and roller mechanism
2. Door-closing mechanism
3. Slider-crank mechanism
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 95 :
A planer mechanism has 10 links and 12 rotary joints. Using Grubler’s criterion, the number of degrees of freedom of the mechanism is
A.1
B.3
C.2
D.4
Q 96 :
The number of instantaneous centres of rotation in a slider-crank quick return mechanism is
A.10
B.8
C.6
D.4
Q 97 :
A simple spring-mass vibrating system has a natural frequency of N. If the spring stiffness is halved and the mass doubled, then the natural frequency will be
A.0.5 N
B.N
C.2N
D.4N
Q 98 :
A car of mass 1450 kg is constructed on a chassis supported by four springs. Each spring has a force constant of 40000 N/m. The combined mass of the two people occupying the car is 150 kg. What is the period of execution of two complete vibrations?
A.0.63 s
B.1.59 s
C.4.96 s
D.1.26 s
Q 99 :
Consider the following statements: Arterfacts to prevent harmful effects resulting from vibrations of an unbalanced machine fixed on its foundation include
1. mounting the machine on springs thereby minimizing the transmission of forces
2. using vibration isolating materials to prevent or reduce the transmission of forces
3. moving the foundation so as to have only degree of freedom towards reducing the transmission of forces
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 100 :
Two heavy rotors are mounted on a single shaft. Considering each of the rotors separately, the transverse natural frequencies are 100 cycles/ s and 200 cycles/s, respectively. The lower critical speed will be
A.12000 r.p.m.
B.9360 r.p.m.
C.8465 r.p.m.
D.5367 r.p.m
Q 101 :
Considering the following statements: In the case of gears of involute profiles, increase in the centre to centre distance between the mounting shafts
1. increases the pressure angle
2. will not affect the law of gearing
3. shortens the path of contact
4. increases the contact ratio
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3
C.1, 3 and 4
D.2, 3 and 4
Q 102 :
An epicyclic gear train has 3 shafts A, B and C, A is the input shaft running at 100 r.p.m. clockwise. B is the output shaft running at 250 r.p.m. clockwise. The torque on A is 50 kN m (clockwise), C is a fixed shaft. The torque needed to fix C is
A.20 kN m (anti-clockwise)
B.20 kN m (clockwise)
C.30 kN m (anti-clockwise)
D.30 kN m (clockwise)
Q 103 :
A fixed gear having 200 teeth is meshed with a smaller gear having 50 teeth. The two gears are connected by an arm. The number of turns made by the smaller gear for one revolution of the arm about the centre of the bigger gear is
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.5
Q 104 :
Consider the following statements:
1. Balancing of several masses rotating in the same plane can be effected by a single mass.
2. Balancing of several masses in different planes can be done by 2 masses in 2 planes on either side of the reference plane or on the same side.
3. Reciprocating masses cannot be completely balanced by rotating masses.
4. Secondary unbalanced forces will be negligible compared to primary imbalance forces.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only
Q 105 :
A body of mass 10 kg with its CG 200 mm from the axis of rotation is to be completely balanced by another mass B of 5 kg placed in the same plane. The radius at which the CG of mass B should be is
A.500 mm
B.400 mm
C.300 mm
D.200 mm
Q 106 :
Consider the following statements:
1. In stationary constant speed engines, the spring-loaded governor mechanism is fitted on the cam-shaft of the engine.
2. Hunting occurs when the governor is not sensitive.
3. Isochronous governors have the same speed over a wide range of governor action.
4. A governor is said to be unstable if the radius of rotation falls as the speed increases. Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 107 :
An aircraft cruising at 360 kmph takes a right turn on an arc of 100 m radius. The turbines and propellers have a total mass of 500 kg with radius of gyration of 25 cm. The engine rotates at 2000 r.p.m. The magnitude of the gyroscopic couple generated is
A.6.55 kN m
B.7.65 kN m
C.9.81 kN m
D.13.1 kN m
Q 108 :
Consider the following statements: For a component made of ductile material, the failure criterion will be
1. endurance limit, if the external force is fluctuating
2. fatigue, if the external force is fluctuating
3. yield stress, if the external force is static
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 109 :
A machine component is subjected to a flexural stress, which fluctuates between 300 MN/m2 and –150 MN/m2. Taking the yield strength = 0.55 of the ultimate strength, endurance strength = 0.50 of the ultimate strength and factor of safety to be 2, the value of the minimum ultimate strength according to modified Goodman relation will be
A.1100 MN/m2
B.1075 MN/m2
C.1050 MN/m2
D.1025 MN/m2
Q 110 :
In a Hartnell governor, the mass of each ball is 4 kg. The maximum and minimum centrifugal forces on the balls are 1800 N and 100 N at radii 25 cm and 20 cm, respectively. The lengths of vertical and horizontal arms of the bell-crank levers are the same. What is the spring stiffness?
A.780 N/cm
B.740 N/cm
C.720 N/cm
D.680 N/cm
Q 111 :
Consider the following statements regarding the ends of the pressure vessels flanged by pre-tensioned bolts:
1. Pre-tensioning helps to seal the pressure vessel.
2. Pre-tensioning reduces the maximum tensile stress in the bolts.
3. Pre-tensioning countermands the fatigue life of the bolts.
4. Pre-tensioning helps to reduce the deleterious effect of pressure pulsations in the pressure vessel.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.2 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 112 :
Two shafts, one solid and the other hollow, made of the same material, will have the same strength and stiffness, if both are of the same
A.length as well as weight
B.length as well as polar modulus
C.weight as well as polar modulus
D.length, weight as well as polar modulus
Q 113 :
A solid shaft is to transmit 20 kW at 200 r.p.m. The ultimate shear stress for the shaft material is 360 MPa and the factor of safety is 8. The diameter of the solid shaft shall be
A.42 mm
B.45 mm
C.48 mm
D.51 mm
Q 114 :
The rim of a flywheel is subjected to
A.direct tensile stress and bending stress
B.torsional shear stress and bending stress
C.direct shear stress and bending stress
D.compressive stress and bending stress
Q 115 :
A stockist has to supply 400 units of a product every Monday to his customers. He gets the product at 50 per unit from the manufacturer. The cost of ordering and transportation from the manufacturer to the stockist’s premises is 75 per order. The cost of carrying inventory is 7.5% per year of the cost of the product. What are the economic lot size and the total optimal cost (including capital cost) for the stockist?
A.989 units/order and 20,065.80/week
B.912 units/order and 20.065.80/week
C.989 units/order and 18,574.50/week
D.912 units/order and 18,574.50/week
Q 116 :
Consider just only the following parameters:
1. Grinding wheel diameter
2. Regulating wheel diameter
3. Speed of grinding wheel
4. Speed of regulating wheel
Which of the above parameters will influence the axial feed rate in centreless grinding?
A.2 and 4
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 3
D.1 and 4
Q 117 :
A metric thread of pitch 2 mm and thread angle 60° is inspected for its pitch diameter using the 3-wire method. The indicated diameter of the wire will be nearly
A.0.85 mm
B.1.05 mm
C.1.15 mm
D.2.05 mm
Q 118 :
Consider the following statements with reference to NC machines:
1. Both closed-loop and open-loop systems are used.
2. Papers, tapes, floppy tapes and cassettes are used for data storage.
3. Digitizers may be used as interactive input devices.
4. Post-processor is an item of hardware. Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 3 and 4
C.2, 3 and 4
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 119 :
Consider the following benefits of CIM: 1. Less direct labour
2. Less scrap and rework
3. Higher machine use
Which of the above are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 120 :
A firm’s inventory turnover of 8,00,000 is 5 times the cost of goods sold. If the inventory turnover is improved to 8 with the cost of goods sold remaining the same, a substantial amount of fund is either released from, or gets additionally invested in, inventory. Which one of the following statements is correct?
