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Latest NMMC Staff Nurse Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Marathi, English, General Knowledge, Intelligence Test, Staff Nurse
Question Bank NMMC Staff Nurse Exam - English
Marathi
Q 1 :
'अच्छा' शब्दाचा विरुद्धार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. खराब
B. सुंदर
C. प्रेम
D. धन्यवाद
Q 2 :
'सुन्दर' शब्दाचा समानार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. बुद्धिमता
B. खराब
C. प्रसन्न
D. भयानक
Q 3 :
'स्नेह' शब्दाचा विरुद्धार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. द्वेष
B. आक्रोश
C. असहमत
D. समझौता
Q 4 :
'उदास' शब्दाचा समानार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. आनंदी
B. निराश
C. प्रसन्न
D. उत्साही
Q 5 :
'अद्य' शब्दाचा समानार्थी कोणता शब्द आहे ?
A. कल
B. पुन्हा
C. आज
D. अब
Q 6 :
पुढील शब्दाच्या कोणत्या भागाने "नामपद" शब्द सांगा?
A. प्रयोगपद
B. सर्वनाम
C. क्रियापद
D. विशेषण
Q 7 :
"आपल्या शिक्षकाने आमच्या विद्यालयातील पुस्तकांना सुंदर नाम" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "नाम" असा अर्थ आहे?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 8 :
"रामला आपलं पुस्तकाचं अंगूठ नकलायला आहे" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "पुस्तकाचं" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 9 :
"तुम्ही आपल्या मित्राला काय प्रेम करता?" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "मित्राला" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
Q 10 :
"सर्व विद्यार्थ्यांना आवश्यक गोड अभ्यास करावा" - या वाक्यात, कोणत्या शब्दाच्या भागाने "विद्यार्थ्यांना" असा अर्थ आहे ?
A. सर्वनाम
B. क्रियापद
C. विशेषण
D. नामपद
English
Q 11 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 12 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 13 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 14 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 15 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 16 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 17 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 18 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 19 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 20 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
General Knowledge
Q 21 :
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A.Window
B.Pop-up menu
C.Message box
D.Taskbar
Q 22 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 23 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 24 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 25 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 26 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 27 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 28 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 29 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 30 :
Which country adopted the euro as its official currency on January 1, 2026, becoming the 21st member of the eurozone?
A.Romania
B.Bulgaria
C.Croatia
D.Sweden
Intelligence Test
Q 31 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 32 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 33 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 34 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 35 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 36 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 37 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 38 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 39 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 40 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Staff Nurse
Q 41 :
Virus of bird flu is also known as-
A.NH51
B.HN61
C.H5N1
D.NH15
Q 42 :
White lung disease is prevalent among the worker of-
A.Floor industries
B.cotton industries
C.Paper industries
D.Salt industries
Q 43 :
Edward Jenner is related with which of the following disease-
A.Chicken pox
B.small pox
C.Typhoid
D.tuberculosis
Q 44 :
Who discovered vaccine of rabies?
A.Pasture
B.Jenner
C.Alexander Fleming
D.Aristotle
Q 45 :
Communication ties people to their-
A.Social surrounding
B.Physical surrounding
C.Materialistic surrounding
D.Environmental surrounding
Q 46 :
World Red Cross day falls on-
A.8 May
B.22 April
C.19 March
D.1 December
Q 47 :
The family is the most important in the emotional development because it-
A.provide support for the young
B.gives reward and punishment
C.reflects more of the larger society
D.helps one to learn identify and roles
Q 48 :
A tendency to behave in a consistent manner in variable situation is known as-
A.Personality
B.habit
C.Trait
D.behavior
Q 49 :
The ability to see meaningful relationship between things is known as-
A.Intelligence
B.character
C.Perception
D.behavior
Q 50 :
Basic unit in all societies is-
A.Individual
B.group
C.Family
D.none of the above
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NMMC Staff Nurse Exam Question Bank Book - English
For giving CPCR, after ascertaining unresponsiveness one should :
A.Call for help
B.Establish an airway
C.Check the carotid pulse
D.Give chest compression
Q 53 :
Local cold application transfer heat from the body by :
A.Radiation
B.Evaporation
C.Convection
D.Conduction
Q 54 :
Autoclaving a means of sterilization will destroy
A.All microorganisms
B.Pathogenic microorganisms
C.Non pathogenic microorganisms
D.Just yeasts and molds
Q 55 :
​Position in which the patient is to be cared after lower extremity amputation is :
A.Left lateral
B.Supme with head turned to one side
C.Side lying with amputated side up
D.Prone
Q 56 :
When giving a patient intramuscular preoperative medications, the practical nurse must remember to inject into site no more than ?
A.1 ml
B.2ml
C.3ml
D.4ml
Q 57 :
The safest position for a lady with cord prolapse in labor is :
A.Fowler's position
B.Prone
C.Supine
D.Trendelenburg
Q 58 :
The percentage of water in human body is :
A.60%
B.80%
C.35
D.None of these
Q 59 :
Daily care of patient's room would consist of
A.Disinfecting and sterilizing items in his immediate area
B.Providing fresh water for his flowers
C.Scrubbing and waxing the floor
D.Damp dusting and straightening
Q 60 :
The most important electrolyte of intracellular fluid is :
A.Potassium
B.Calcium
C.Sodium
D.Chloride
Q 61 :
During the bath observation of skin include ?
A.Temperature integrity and condition
B.Colour, warmth and bruising
C.Markings made by wrinkles in the sheet or crumbs
D.Distribution and colour of hair
Q 62 :
Patient recovering from general anaesthesia should be positioned in :
A.Supine position
B.Fowler's position
C.Trendelenburg position
D.Side lying position
Q 63 :
Included as a part of charting is the recording of observations and assessment of the patient. Basic skills used by the nurse in assessment are ?
A.Subjective and objective observation
B.Communications of the patient
C.Laboratory data and patient's response to tests
D.Recording of all data in a legal manner
Q 64 :
Lugol's solution contains :
A.Potassium iodide
B.Sodium bromide
C.Ammonium chloride
D.Calcium chloride
Q 65 :
Which of the following feature is not related to Gushing's triad ?
A.Systolic BP
B.Hypothermia
C.Bradycardia
D.Widening pulse pressure
Q 66 :
Signs of a local infection include
A.Redness,, pain, swelling and decreased temperature
B.Increase and decreased blood pressure
C.Redness, pain and swelling of the area
D.Increased temperature, pain, redness and decreased urine output
Q 67 :
The mount of bleaching powder for disinfection of 1000 gallons of water is :
A.oz
B.loz
C.50 gm
D.10 gm
Q 68 :
The physician writes the following order, "Obtain a sterile urine specimen for C & S". Which of the following is true concerning a sterile urine specimen ?
A.May be obtained from the catheter bag if the patient has a Foley catheter
B.May be obtained using the "clean catch" or "mid stream" method as long as you use a sterile container
C.Must be obtained either by catheterizing the patient or from the catheter itself if the patient has a Foley catheter
D.May be obtained only by clamping off a Foley catheter for 15 minutes and then taking the specimen from the catheter tubing
Q 69 :
Best method of oxygen administration to a 2 month old baby is :
A.Oxyhood
B.Face mask
C.Nasal cannula
D.Oxygen tent
Q 70 :
Best method of oxygen administration to a Burn patient is :
A.Oxyhood
B.Nasal cannula
C.Face mask
D.Oxygen tent
Q 71 :
What is the study of disease processes at the cellular and molecular level called?
A.Histology
B.Pathophysiology
C.Pathology
D.Epidemiology
Q 72 :
Which term refers to the death of cells or tissues due to lack of blood supply?
A.Apoptosis
B. Necrosis
C.Inflammation
D.Fibrosis
Q 73 :
Which term refers to the death of cells or tissues due to lack of blood supply?
A. Apoptosis
B.Necrosis
C.Inflammation
D.Fibrosis
Q 74 :
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of inflammation?
A. Decreased blood flow
B.Increased vascular permeability
C. Tissue regeneration
D.Reduced leukocyte migration
Q 75 :
What is the primary function of leukocytes in inflammation?
A.Phagocytosis
B. Antibody production
C.Clot formation
D.Oxygen transport
Q 76 :
Which type of necrosis is often seen in tuberculosis infections?
A.Caseous necrosis
B.Liquefactive necrosis
C.Coagulative necrosis
D.Fibrinoid necrosis
Q 77 :
What is the term for the abnormal proliferation of cells?
A.Hypertrophy
B.Hyperplasia
C.Atrophy
D.Metaplasia
Q 78 :
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of chronic inflammation?
A.Rapid onset
B.Neutrophil infiltration
C.Tissue destruction and repair
D.Increased vascular permeability
Q 79 :
What is the primary function of the complement system in the immune response?
A.Phagocytosis
B.Cytotoxicity
C.Opsonization
D.Antibody production
Q 80 :
Which term describes the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another?
A.Hypertrophy
B.Hyperplasia
C.Atrophy
D.Metaplasia
Q 81 :
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is classified as a:
A.Communicable disease
B. Non-communicable disease
C. Autoimmune disease
D.Blood disorder
Q 82 :
The main function of the kidneys is to:
A.Produce red blood cells
B. Filter waste products from the blood
C. Fight infection
D.Regulate body temperature
Q 83 :
The primary mechanism of bone loss in osteoporosis is:
A.Increased bone mineralization
B.Enhanced bone density
C.Imbalance between bone formation and resorption
D.Reduced calcium absorption
Q 84 :
The leading causes of chronic kidney disease globally are:
A.Bacterial infections
B.Diabetes and high blood pressure
C.Viral infections
D.Parasites
Q 85 :
Which of the following is a common risk factor for osteoporosis?
A.High calcium intake
B.Regular weight-bearing exercise
C.Smoking
D.Adequate vitamin D levels
Q 86 :
Which part of the cell controls its activities and contains genetic material?
A.Cytoplasm
B.Nucleus
C.Mitochondria
D.Golgi apparatus
Q 87 :
Which organelle is known as the "powerhouse of the cell"?
A.Ribosome
B.Nucleus
C.Mitochondria
D.Lysosome
Q 88 :
What is the primary function of ribosomes in a cell?
A.Energy production
B.Protein synthesis
C.Lipid storage
D.Waste elimination
Q 89 :
What structure separates the interior of the cell from its external environment?
A.Cytoplasm
B.Cell membrane
C.Nucleus
D.Endoplasmic reticulum
Q 90 :
What is the function of lysosomes in a cell?
A.Protein synthesis
B.Cellular digestion
C.Energy production
D.Cell division
Q 91 :
Which cellular process involves the division of a single cell into two identical daughter cells?
A.Meiosis
B.Mitosis
C.Osmosis
D.Diffusion
Q 92 :
Which phase of mitosis is characterized by chromosomes aligning at the center of the cell?
A.Prophase
B.Metaphase
C.Anaphase
D.Telophase
Q 93 :
In meiosis, how many daughter cells are produced?
A.2
B.4
C.6
D.8
Q 94 :
Which organelle contains digestive enzymes that break down waste in the cell?
A.Ribosome
B.Lysosome
C.Endoplasmic reticulum
D.Centriole
Q 95 :
Which part of the cell is responsible for making ribosomes?
A.Mitochondria
B.Nucleolus
C.Golgi apparatus
D.Endoplasmic reticulum
Q 96 :
What is the first priority in any first aid situation?
A.Treating minor injuries
B.Ensuring your own safety
C.Calling emergency services
D.Comforting the victim
Q 97 :
The acronym "ABC" in first aid stands for:
A.Airway, Blood, Circulation
B.Airway, Breathing, Circulation
C.Action, Breathing, Compression
D.Alert, Bleeding, Cure
Q 98 :
When dealing with severe bleeding, what is the first action you should take?
A.Apply antiseptic
B.Apply direct pressure
C.Clean the wound
D.Elevate the wound
Q 99 :
What is the primary treatment for a first-degree burn?
A.Apply ice
B.Apply butter
C.Cool running water
D.Apply an ointment
Q 100 :
What is the recovery position used for?
A.Treating fractures
B.Maintaining an open airway in an unconscious person