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Question Bank

Question for Noida Metro Maintainer - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 11, 2026

Duration: 90 · Questions: 90 · Max Marks: 90

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To boost your performance in Noida Metro Maintainer exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in Noida Metro Maintainer exams.

Latest Noida Metro Maintainer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Awareness, Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, Mechanical

Question Bank Noida Metro Maintainer Exam Paper I - English

General Awareness

Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
  1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
  2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the 
  1. A.net national product at market price
  2. B.net national product at factor cost
  3. C.net domestic product at market price
  4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
  1. A.financial system            
  2. B.tax system
  3. C.patents and copyrights  
  4. D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
  1. A.2nd plan
  2. B.3rd plan
  3. C.5th plan
  4. D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
  1. A.sales tax           
  2. B.custom tax
  3. C.excise tax         
  4. D.income tax
Q 11 :
What is the rank of India in the ‘WIPO Global Innovation Index 2022’ ?
  1. A.25
  2. B.40
  3. C.50
  4. D.75
Q 12 :
Who has been appointed as the new Attorney General for India ?
  1. A.R Venkataramani
  2. B.A.J. Sadashiva
  3. C.D Y Chandrachud
  4. D.Ranjan Gogoi
Q 13 :
Which city is the host of the ‘Conference on International Day for Universal Access to Information’ ?
  1. A.Tashkent
  2. B.Dhaka
  3. C.Nursultan   
  4. D.New Delhi
Q 14 :
Which state is the host of the National SC-ST hub conclave organised by the Union MSME Ministry ?
  1. A.Jharkhand
  2. B.Gujarat
  3. C.Maharashtra
  4. D.Tamil Nadu
Q 15 :
‘Operation Garuda’, which was seen in the news, is associated with which organization ?
  1. A.CVC
  2. B.CBI
  3. C.Indian Air Force
  4. D.Indian Navy
Q 16 :
Who has been named as the only Indian on “Time magazine’s list of 100 emerging leaders’ in September 2022 ?
  1. A.Yash Dahiya
  2. B.Rahul Bajaj
  3. C.Avanish Grover
  4. D.Akash Ambani
Q 17 :
At which place, Adani Green Energy Ltd (AGEL) commissioned the World’s largest Wind-solar power plant on 29 September 2022 ?
  1. A.Jaisalmer
  2. B.Gandhinagar
  3. C.Jaipur
  4. D.Jodhpur
Q 18 :
World Maritime Day was observed on 29 September 2022. What was the theme of World Maritime Day 2022 ?
  1. A.A World Without Barriers
  2. B.You Can : Attend the Innovation Forum
  3. C.Save Maritime Species
  4. D.New Technologies for greener Shipping
Q 19 :
Which state is hosting the 36th National Games from 29 September 2022 ?
  1. A.Punjab
  2. B.Meghalaya
  3. C.Odisha
  4. D.Gujarat
Q 20 :
Which country has struck a partnership agreement with Pacific island nations on 29 September 2022 ?
  1. A.Mexico
  2. B.United States
  3. C.New Zealand
  4. D.Australia

Reasoning

Q 21 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
Q 22 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
Q 23 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 24 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
Q 25 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 26 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 27 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
Q 28 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 29 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 30 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
Q 31 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
  1. A.N
  2. B.Q
  3. C.J
  4. D.M
  5. E.None of these
Q 32 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
Q 33 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
  1. A.The only argument I is strong
  2. B.Only argument II is strong
  3. C.Either I or II is strong
  4. D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 34 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’  and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
  1. A.P
  2. B.L
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 35 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 36 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.One
  2. B.Two
  3. C.Three
  4. D.Four
  5. E.More than four
Q 37 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can  be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
  1. A.I
  2. B.A
  3. C.L
  4. D.M
  5. E.N
Q 38 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 39 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
  1. A.26
  2. B.28
  3. C.30
  4. D.32
  5. E.None of these
Q 40 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three

Quantitative Aptitude

Q 41 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A.51:52
  2. B.52:53
  3. C.51:53
  4. D.52:55
Q 42 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A.√49
  2. B.0.125
  3. C.√2
  4. D.22/7
Q 43 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A.35600  
  2. B.34500
  3. C.9630
  4. D.93600
Q 44 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
  1. A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
  2. B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
  3. C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
  4. D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 45 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
  1. A.36
  2. B.38
  3. C.310
  4. D.96
     
Q 46 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
  1. A.4     
  2. B.3
  3. C.2 
  4. D.5
Q 47 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/5
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
Q 48 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
  1. A.169  
  2. B.36
  3. C.196 
  4. D.Can not say
Q 49 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
  1. A.16   
  2. B.25
  3. C.28  
  4. D.30
Q 50 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
  1. A.93     
  2. B.103
  3. C.60.5
  4. D.121

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