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Latest Northern Railway Trackman Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : English, Reasoning, Civil, Quantitative Aptitude, General Awareness
Question Bank Northern Railway Trackman Exam - English
English
Q 1 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 2 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 3 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 4 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 5 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 6 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 7 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 8 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 9 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 10 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 11 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 12 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 13 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 14 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 15 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 16 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 17 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 18 :
One must keep one’s promises.
A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
B.One’s promises had to be kept.
C.Promises must be kept.
D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 19 :
I read the story in one night.
A.The story had been read by me in one night.
B.The story has been read by me in one night
C.n one night the story has been read by me.
D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 20 :
We must take care of the old.
A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B.The old must be taken care of by us.
C.Those who are old need care by us
D.The old should be taken care of by us.
Reasoning
Q 21 :
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A.Area
B.Volume
C.Length
D.Sound
E.Energy
Q 22 :
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 23 :
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A.Water : Drink
B.Light : Night
C.Teach : Student
D.Air : Breathe
E.Food : Hunger
Q 24 :
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 25 :
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A.Omnivorous
B.Carnivorous
C.Herbivorous
D.Multivorous
E.None of these
Q 26 :
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A.Party : Dance
B.Study : Book
C.Lecture : Study
D.Enjoy : Journey
E.None of these
Q 27 :
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A.Pity : Kindness
B.Cruel : Anger
C.Wise : Education
D.Pride : Humility
E.None of these
Q 28 :
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A.Memory
B.Highness
C.Tongue
D.Speak
E.Voice
Q 29 :
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A.Integrity
B.Honesty
C.Guide
D.Competition
E.None of these
Q 30 :
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A.20
B.14
C.56
D.26
E.None of these
Q 31 :
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A.GIJK
B.DFGH
C.CEFG
D.ABCD
E.None of these
Q 32 :
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A.71
B.73
C.77
D.67
E.None of these
Q 33 :
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A.UMRSME
B.EIWNTR
C.PIGRSN
D.LCUOD
E.None of these
Q 34 :
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A.4
B.2
C.6
D.8
E.5
Q 35 :
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A.UW483
B.ZA26
C.TU420
D.ST380
E.None of these
Q 36 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A.U
B.T
C.A
D.G
E.None of these
Q 37 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
A.E
B.G
C.F
D.B
E.None of these
Q 38 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
A.M
B.K
C.H
D.J
E.None of these
Q 39 :
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.None of these
Q 40 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
A.P
B.K
C.J
D.I
E.None of these
Civil
Q 41 :
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
A.30 l
B.35 l
C.40 l
D.45 l
Q 42 :
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
A.1 : 1 : 1
B.1 : 2 : 3
C.1 : 2 : 4
D.1 : 3 : 4
Q 43 :
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 3 and 5
C.2, 3 and 4
D.2, 4 and 5
Q 44 :
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
A.10
B.20
C.25
D.30
Q 45 :
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
A.11.8
B.12.4
C.14.2
D.14.8
Q 46 :
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1, 2 and 4
C.2, 3 and 4
D.1, 3 and 4
Q 47 :
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.2 and 3
D.3 and 4
Q 48 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 49 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 5 only
C.1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q 50 :
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
A.165 l
B.205 l
C.245 l
D.285 l
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Northern Railway Trackman Exam Question Bank Book - English
Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?
A.IS : 4970-1973
B.IS : 1708-1969
C.IS : 1141-1958
D.IS : 399-1963
Q 52 :
Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.2 and 4 only
C.1 and 4 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 53 :
The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
A.Parallel to each other
B.At right angle to one another
C.45° oblique to adjacent grain
D.Not constrained by any consideration
Q 54 :
Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?
A.It must be free from lumps of lime
B.It should not be mixed with salty water
C.It must be non-homogeneous
D.It should not contain vegetable and organic matter
Q 55 :
The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than
A.440 kg/cm2
B.175 kg/cm2
C.100kg/cm2
D.75kg/cm2
Q 56 :
Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.3 and 4
C.2 and 3
D.1 and 4
Q 57 :
Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3
C.1, 2 and 4
D.2, 3 and 4
Q 58 :
Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?
A.Magnesium oxide
B.Silica
C.Alumina
D.Calcium sulphate
Q 59 :
Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?
A.Ordinary Portland
B.High Alumina
C.Low-heat Portland
D.Portland Cement
Q 60 :
Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.2, 3 and 4
C.3, 4 and 5
D.2, 3 and 5
Q 61 :
Consider the following statements regarding ‘strength of cement’:
1.Strength test on cement is made on cubes of cement-sand mix.
2.Water to be used for the paste is 0.25 P, where P is the water needed for normal consistency.
3.The normal consistency is determined on Le Chatelier’s principle.
4.Cubes are cast in two layers in leak-proof moulds further compacted in each layer by vibration on a machine.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 4
D.3 and 4
Q 62 :
Which of the following ingredients refer to binding material of mortar?
1.Cement
2.Lime
3.Sand
4.Ashes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A.1 and 4
B.3 and 4
C.1 and 2
D.2 and 3
Q 63 :
Consider the following statements:
1.Bricks in masonry are bound by mortar.
2.Mortars make brick damp-proof.
3.Strength of brick in masonry is improved by plastering.
4.Addition of lime improves workability.
5.Marine construction needs sulphate-resistant cement mortar.
Which of the above statements are relevant for ‘cement mortar’?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.2, 3 and 4
C.1, 4 and 5
D.3, 4 and 5
Q 64 :
Consider the following parameters of concrete:
1.Impermeability
2.Compactness
3.Durability
4.Desired consistency
5.Workability
Which of the above parameters are relevant for ‘water-cement ratio’?
A.4 and 5
B.1 and 2
C.2 and 4
D.3 and 5
Q 65 :
Consider the following statements:Presence of Na2O and K2O in concrete leads to
1.Expansive reaction in concrete
2.Cracking of concrete
3.Disruption of concrete
4.Shrinkage of concrete
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1, 2 and 3
D.3 and 4
Q 66 :
The maximum total quantity of dry aggregate by mass per 50 kg of cement, to be taken as the sum of the individual masses of fine and coarse aggregates (kg), for M20 grade of concrete is
A.625
B.480
C.330
D.250
Q 67 :
Absorption capacity of an aggregate refers to the difference expresses in appropriate proportion in water content between
A.A wet aggregate and a dry aggregate
B.A dry aggregate and a wet aggregate
C.A saturated surface-dry aggregate and a dry aggregate
D.A saturated surface-dry aggregate and an over dry aggregate
Q 68 :
Consider the following statements concerning ‘elasticity of concrete’:
1.Stress-strain behavior of concrete is a straight line up to 10% ultimate stress.
2.Strain determination is obtained from tangent modulus.
3.Modulus of elasticity of concrete is also called as secant modulus.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 3 only
C.1 and 2 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 69 :
Consider the following statements :The addition of CaCl2 in concrete results in
1.Increased shrinkage
2.Decreased setting time
3.Decreased shrinkage
4.Increased setting time
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.1 and 2
Q 70 :
Which of the following statements are correct ?
1.Knots in a tree affect the continuity of fibres.
2.Nail knots do not influence the strength of timber.
3.Druxiness of wood is not a defect.
4.Tall trees with twisted fibers give good timber for poles.
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.1, 2 and 3 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Q 71 :
Excrescences in wood are
1.Defects found in trees
2.Formed due to injuries inflicted on trees when they are growing
3.Defects which render wood suitable as firewood only
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 72 :
What treatment is adopted for making timber fire-resistant?
A.ASCU treatment
B.Abel’s process
C.Creosoting
D.Tarring
Q 73 :
Deterioration of structure of timber due to dry rot is:
1.Caused by fungi
2.Due to dry-spell after heavy rains
3.Due to attack of termites
4.ndicated by surface stripes on scantlings
A.1 and 2
B.3 and 4
C.2 and 3
D.1 and 4
Q 74 :
Alternate wetting and drying of timber :
1.Results in shrinkage and swelling
2.Brings about wet rot onset
3.Increases the durability
4.Causes transmission of spores from germination
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.1, 2 and 3 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Q 75 :
As per I.S. classification, the minimum compressive strength of a first class brick should be
A.75 kg/cm3
B.100kg/cm3
C.125 kg/cm3
D.150 kg/cm3
Q 76 :
When provided with alternating courses of (a) all headers and (b) all stretchers, the front elevation of such brick masonry is designated as
A.English bond
B.Single Flemish bond
C.Double Flemish bond
D.Rat-trap bond
Q 77 :
I.S. code specifies that the compressive strength of brick shall be determined by keeping the brick:
1.On edge
2.On bed
3.After soaking in water for 2 hrs
4.After soaking in water for 24 hrs
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.2 and 4
Q 78 :
Soundness test of cement is carried out to determine its
A.Alumina content
B.Iron oxide content
C.Free lime content
D.Durability under sea water
Q 79 :
The objectives of producing cement include:
1.Incorporating industrial wastes
2.Increasing free lime
3.Increasing fineness
4.Saving energy needed in the process
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Q 80 :
A mild steel rod tapers uniformly from 24 mm mm dia. over its length of 400 mm. The rod when held vertical is subjected to an axial tensile load of 12 kN. E = 2 × 105 N/mm2. The extension of the rod in mm would be:
A.3
2
B.2
3
C.3
D.1
3
Quantitative Aptitude
Q 81 :
If A exceeds B by 40%, B is less than C by 20%, then A C is,:
A.28 : 25
B.26 : 25
C.3 : 2
D.3 : 1
Q 82 :
What is the sum of 130+125+191 ?
A.335
B.456
C.446
D.426
Q 83 :
If , then x is equal to
A.5
B.3
C.2
D.4
Q 84 :
A sum of money doubles itself at compound interest in 15 years. In how many years it will become eight times ?
A.30
B.45
C.50
D.60
Q 85 :
Compound interest (compounded annually) on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Rs. 102. The simple interest on the same sum for the same rate and for the same period will be
A.Rs. 99
B.Rs. 101
C.Rs. 100
D.Rs. 98
Q 86 :
There are 5 red balls, 4 yellow balls and 3 green balls in a basket. If 3 ball are drawn at random. What is the probability that at least 2 of them are green in colour?
Q 87 :
Which of the following fractions is in descending order ?
Q 88 :
The value of
A.9
B.7
C.11
Q 89 :
The square root of is
Q 90 :
If (1101)2 = 1212201 find the value at
A.110.1
B.11.01
C.1.101
D.11.001
Q 91 :
A discount of 15% on one article is the same as discount of 20% on a second article. The costs of the two articles can be
A.Rs. 85, Rs. 60
B.Rs. 60, Rs. 40
C.Rs. 40, Rs. 20
D.Rs. 80, Rs. 60
Q 92 :
is equal to
A.-2
B.2
C.0
D.1
Q 93 :
Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different.
A.28 : 163
B.16 : 91
C.27 : 82
D.22 : 127
Q 94 :
The simplified value of is
A.0.075
B.0.705
C.0.750
D.7.500
Q 95 :
The digit in unit's place of the number
(1570)2 + (1571)2 + (1572)2 + (1573)2 is
A.4
B.1
C.2
D.3
Q 96 :
Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
MEND, PHJZ, SKFV, VNBR, ?
A.YJYN
B.YQXN
C.YRXO
D.YQZM
Q 97 :
Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(12, 14, 143)
A.(12, 18, 246)
B.(17, 12, 134)
C.(16, 10, 235)
D.(15, 19, 252)
Q 98 :
=?
A.4
B.6
C.8
D.10
Q 99 :
Select the option in which the numbers are NOT related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(64, 91, 118)
A.(46, 73, 101)
B.(48, 75, 102)
C.(72, 99, 126)
D.(55, 82, 109)
Q 100 :
is equal to
A.12.0
B.11.5
C.11.0
D.10.5
General Awareness
Q 101 :
India’s retail inflation is primarily measured using which index?
A.CPI
B.WPI
C.GDP Deflator
D.IIP
Q 102 :
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act was originally enacted in which year?
A.2024
B.2023
C.2022
D.2025
Q 103 :
Which of the following is a key feature of DSV Nipun?
A.Aircraft carrier capability
B.Nuclear propulsion
C.Saturation diving and submarine rescue systems
D.Ballistic missile launch
Q 104 :
Which of the following is correct regarding India’s retail inflation measurement?
A.WPI is the primary retail measure
B.Inflation is not officially measured
C.Only food inflation is tracked
D.CPI is the primary retail measure used by RBI
Q 105 :
In the Commonwealth Games 2026 men’s javelin final, who won the bronze medal for India?
A.Yash Vir Singh
B.Neeraj Chopra
C.Kishore Jena
D.Rohit Yadav
Q 106 :
Who among the following was appointed as the new Director of the Financial Intelligence Unit–India (FIU-IND) recently?
A.Satya Pal Kumar
B.Pankaj Kumar Mishra
C.Anurag Jain
D.Raj Kumar Goyal
Q 107 :
The Public Examinations Amendment Bill 2026 increases the maximum imprisonment for individuals involved in paper leaks to:
A.3 years
B.5 years
C.10 years
D.7 years
Q 108 :
Approximate indigenous content in DSV Nipun is:
A.50%
B.60%
C.Over 80%
D.100%
Q 109 :
The second indigenous Diving Support Vessel ‘Nipun’ was delivered at which location?
A.Mumbai
B.Kochi
C.Visakhapatnam
D.Kolkata
Q 110 :
Which body decides the Repo Rate in India?
A.Finance Ministry
B.SEBI
C.RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)
D.NITI Aayog
Q 111 :
The Indian Navy recently received its second indigenous Diving Support Vessel (DSV). What is its name?
A.Nistar
B.Nipun
C.INS Vikrant
D.INS Arihant
Q 112 :
Which institution publishes the Global Innovation Index?
A.World Bank
B.IMF
C.WIPO
D.WTO
Q 113 :
In the Commonwealth Games 2026 javelin final, the gold medal was won by an athlete from:
A.Sri Lanka
B.Australia
C.India
D.England
Q 114 :
Exercise Tarang Shakti is associated with which arm of the Indian Armed Forces?
A.Indian Army
B.Indian Navy
C.Indian Coast Guard
D.Indian Air Force
Q 115 :
Which ministry implements the PM-KISAN Scheme?
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Rural Development
C.Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare
D.Ministry of Food Processing Industries
Q 116 :
The RBI continues to promote which system specifically for small-value digital transactions?
A.RTGS
B.NEFT
C.UPI Lite
D.IMPS
Q 117 :
Which organisation released the Global Tiger Recovery Report 2026?
A.UNEP
B.WWF
C.Global Tiger Forum
D.IUCN
Q 118 :
India became which numbered WTO member to accept the Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies (as per recent updates)?
A.120th
B.121st
C.123rd
D.125th
Q 119 :
Who won the silver medal in the men’s javelin throw at the Commonwealth Games 2026 held in Glasgow?
A.Yash Vir Singh
B.Neeraj Chopra
C.Kishore Jena
D.Rohit Yadav
Q 120 :
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, was passed by the Rajya Sabha on which date?
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