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Latest NPCIL Deputy Manager Human Resource Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Management Aptitude, Human Resource

Question Bank NPCIL Deputy Manager (Human Resource) Exam - English
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Management Aptitude

Question 1Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A
    Ministry of Finance        
  2. B
    Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C
    Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D
    Planning Commission
Question 2Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A
    Ministry of Finance 
  2. B
    Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C
    Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D
    Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A
    Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B
    Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C
    Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D
    Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A
    Two
  2. B
    Three
  3. C
    Five
  4. D
    Four
  5. E
    None of these
Question 5Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A
    True
  2. B
    False
  3. C
    Uncertain
  4. D
    None
Question 6Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A
    A
  2. B
    E
  3. C
    T
  4. D
    X
  5. E
    Y
Question 7Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A
    None            
  2. B
    One         
  3. C
    Two       
  4. D
    Three        
  5. E
    More than three
Question 8Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A
    None
  2. B
    One
  3. C
    Two
  4. D
    Three
  5. E
    More than three
Question 9Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A
    None
  2. B
    One
  3. C
    Two
  4. D
    Three
  5. E
    More than three
Question 10Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A
    T
  2. B
    L
  3. C
    E
  4. D
    Y
  5. E
    X
Question 11Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A
    51:52
  2. B
    52:53
  3. C
    51:53
  4. D
    52:55
Question 12Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A
    √49
  2. B
    0.125
  3. C
    √2
  4. D
    22/7
Question 13Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A
    35600  
  2. B
    34500
  3. C
    9630
  4. D
    93600
Question 14Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
  1. A
    3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
  2. B
    7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
  3. C
    3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
  4. D
    5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 15Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
  1. A
    36
  2. B
    38
  3. C
    310
  4. D
    96
     
Question 16Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
  1. A
    4     
  2. B
    3
  3. C
    2 
  4. D
    5
Question 17Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
  1. A
    3/5
  2. B
    2/3
  3. C
    4/5
Question 18Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A
    He was in the temper
  2. B
    and refused
  3. C
    discuss the matter again
  4. D
    No error
Question 19Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A
    A flower makes no garland
  2. B
    so we must do a thing together
  3. C
    in a unit for a good result
  4. D
    No error
Question 20Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A
    My friend is a software engineer
  2. B
    and his wife is doctor
  3. C
    so they don’t have enough time for each other
  4. D
    No error
Question 21Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A
    I don’t have much time that
  2. B
    I hear you in detail with verbosity
  3. C
    tell everything in nutshell
  4. D
    No error
Question 22Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A
    The atmosphere is changing
  2. B
    so I have severe pain in my body
  3. C
    if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
  4. D
    No error
Question 23Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A
    No one is without fault
  2. B
    because no one is God
  3. C
    and only God is fault free
  4. D
    No error
Question 24Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A
    Your
  2. B
    clock is
  3. C
    one hour fast
  4. D
    No error
Question 25Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A
    The lose of jobs
  2. B
    is regarded by some as an necessary evil
  3. C
    in the fight against infliation
  4. D
    No error
Question 26Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A
    In science, the credit goes to a man
  2. B
    who convinces the world
  3. C
    not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
  4. D
    No error
Question 27Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A
    It is only after
  2. B
    the match is over
  3. C
    that people realize how exciting it is
  4. D
    No error
Question 28Single Answer
What is the primary goal of ethical conduct for Chandigarh Police ASIs ?
  1. A
    Enforcing the law at all costs
  2. B
    Upholding the principles of justice and fairness
  3. C
    Achieving high arrest rates
  4. D
    Maximizing personal gain
Question 29Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a fundamental ethical principle for Chandigarh Police ASIs ?
  1. A
    Honesty
  2. B
    Integrity
  3. C
    Prejudice
  4. D
    Accountability
Question 30Single Answer
Chandigarh Police ASIs should treat all individuals with ___________ .
  1. A
    Respect and dignity
  2. B
    Suspicion and hostility
  3. C
    Disregard and negligence
  4. D
    Fear and intimidation
Question 31Single Answer
What should Chandigarh Police ASIs prioritize when dealing with sensitive information ?
  1. A
    Keeping it secret from all colleagues
  2. B
    Sharing it openly with the public
  3. C
    Maintaining confidentiality and discretion
  4. D
    Selling it for personal gain
Question 32Single Answer
Which of the following is a violation of ethical standards for Chandigarh Police ASIs ?
  1. A
    Treating all citizens equally
  2. B
    Accepting bribes
  3. C
    Following departmental procedures
  4. D
    Reporting misconduct by colleagues
Question 33Single Answer
What is the role of empathy in Chandigarh Police ASIs ethics ?
  1. A
    It is not relevant to police work
  2. B
    It helps officers understand and connect with the community
  3. C
    It makes officers appear weak and ineffective
  4. D
    It is used to manipulate suspects
Question 34Single Answer
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
  1. A
    Assam
  2. B
    Himachal Pradesh
  3. C
    Punjab
  4. D
    Tamil Nadu
Question 35Single Answer

"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?

  1. A
    Malik Muhammad Joyce
  2. B
    Raskhan
  3. C
    Rich Khusrow
  4. D
    Rich Hasan
Question 36Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
  1. A
    1946
  2. B
    1947
  3. C
    1948
  4. D
    1950
Question 37Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
  1. A
    Raja Ram Mohan Roy
  2. B
    Swami Vivekananda
  3. C
    Rabindranath Tagore
  4. D
    Mahatma Gandhi
Question 38Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
  1. A
    Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
  2. B
    Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
  3. C
    Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
  4. D
    Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 39Single Answer
Which day is observed on October 1, 2025 to promote elderly care and respect?
  1. A
    World Heart Day
  2. B
    International Day of Older Persons
  3. C
    World Habitat Day
  4. D
    International Coffee Day
Question 40Single Answer
Which international day is observed on October 1, 2025 to raise awareness about habitat and urban issues?
  1. A
    World Habitat Day
  2. B
    World Animal Day
  3. C
    International Day of Non-Violence
  4. D
    World Teachers' Day
Question 41Single Answer
The RTI Act, 2005 came into force on:
  1. A
    15th June 2005
  2. B
    12th October 2005
  3. C
    15th August 2005
  4. D
    2nd October 2005
Question 42Single Answer
"Public Authority" is defined under:
  1. A
    Section 2(e)
  2. B
    Section 2(f)
  3. C
    Section 2(i)
  4. D
    Section 2(h)
Question 43Single Answer
A Public Authority includes any body:
  1. A
    Only owned by government
  2. B
    Only controlled by government
  3. C
    Owned, controlled or substantially financed by government
  4. D
    Only financed by government
Question 44Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a criterion for Public Authority?
  1. A
    Owned by government
  2. B
    Controlled by government
  3. C
    Substantially financed
  4. D
    Registered under Companies Act
Question 45Single Answer
"Substantially financed" means:
  1. A
    Funding > 50% of budget
  2. B
    Only euity shares
  3. C
    Only direct grants
  4. D
    Direct or indirect funding significant in nature
Question 46Single Answer
A cooperative society receiving government grants is:
  1. A
    Not a Public Authority
  2. B
    Public Authority
  3. C
    Public Authority only for grant-related info
  4. D
    Exempt
Question 47Single Answer
NGOs substantially financed by government are:
  1. A
    Exempt from RTI
  2. B
    Public Authorities
  3. C
    Only for project info
  4. D
    Private bodies
Question 48Single Answer
A private school receiving 90% government aid is:
  1. A
    Public Authority
  2. B
    Not a Public Authority
  3. C
    Only for aided section
  4. D
    Exempt
Question 49Single Answer
Public Authority includes bodies established by:
  1. A
    Only Parliament
  2. B
    Only State Legislature
  3. C
    Constitution or by law of Parliament/State
  4. D
    Only notification
Question 50Single Answer
Suo motu disclosure is mandated under:
  1. A
    Section 3
  2. B
    Section 4
  3. C
    Section 5
  4. D
    Section 6
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