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Question for NPCIL Trade Apprentice - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 10, 2026

Duration: 120 ยท Questions: 150 ยท Max Marks: 150

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To boost your performance in NPCIL Trade Apprentice exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in NPCIL Trade Apprentice exams.

Latest NPCIL Trade Apprentice Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Mechanical Engineering, Logical Reasoning, Numerical Ability, English, General Awareness

Question Bank NPCIL Trade Apprentice Exam - English

Mechanical Engineering

Q 1 :
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
  1. A.Greater than 1
  2. B.Equal to 1
  3. C.Between 1 and 3
                   4        4
  4. D.Less than 1
Q 2 :
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
  1. A.1
  2. B.2
  3. C.3
  4. D.4
Q 3 :
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
  1. A.Newtonian fluid 
  2. B.Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
  3. C.Pseudo-plastic fluids
  4. D.Dilatent fluids
Q 4 :
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
  1. A.8
  2. B.6
  3. C.4
  4. D.2
Q 5 :
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
  1. A.0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
  2. B.4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
  3. C.0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
  4. D.4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Q 6 :
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force 
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
  1. A.Both 1 and 2
  2. B.1 only 
  3. C.2 only
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2 
Q 7 :
State whether following flow field is physically possible? 
  1. A.Possible for steady, incompressible flow
  2. B.Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
  3. C.Possible for steady, compressible flow 
  4. D.Not Possible 
Q 8 :
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
  1. A.0.25
  2. B.0.26
  3. C.2
  4. D.4
Q 9 :
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
  1. A.10 kW 
  2. B.20 kW
  3. C.30 kW
  4. D.50 kW
Q 10 :
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
  1. A.man power
  2. B.profit
  3. C.inventory
  4. D.manufacturing
Q 11 :
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
  1. A.3 m/s2
  2. B.6 m/s2
  3. C.9 m/s2
  4. D.15 m/s2
Q 12 :
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
  1. A.9
  2. B.-6
  3. C.117
  4. D.10.8
Q 13 :
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
  1. A.More for lighter fluid
  2. B.More for denser fluid
  3. C.Less for denser fluid
  4. D.Less for lighter fluid
Q 14 :
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
  1. A.Linearly with fluid density
  2. B.Inversely with pressure drop
  3. C.Directly as square of pipe radius
  4. D.Inversely with fluid velocity
Q 15 :
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
  1. A.1.5mm
  2. B.2.5mm
  3. C.4.0mm
  4. D.5.0mm
Q 16 :
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
  1. A.0.05m 
  2. B.0.07m
  3. C.0.08m
  4. D.0.09m
Q 17 :
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
 
  1. A.8 kW     
  2. B.4 kW
  3. C.2 kW    
  4. D. 1 kW
Q 18 :
In a hydraulic coupling
  1. A.The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
  2. B.The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
  3. C.The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
  4. D.The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque 
Q 19 :
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
  1. A.1,2 and 3 only
  2. B.1,2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1,2, 3 and 4 
Q 20 :
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
  1. A.150 N
  2. B.1470 N
  3. C.340 N
  4. D.900 N
Q 21 :
Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n2.
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
  1. A.1,2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
Q 22 :
Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?
  1. A.Energy 
  2. B.Mass
  3. C.Momentum
  4. D.Angle
Q 23 :
Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in
  1. A.Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
  2. B.Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
  3. C.Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
  4. D.Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid 
Q 24 :
Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 105. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be
  1. A.2Q
  2. B.A little more than 2Q
  3. C.A little less than 2Q
  4. D.4Q
Q 25 :
 Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
  1. A. 7.5 W/m2K      
  2. B.15 W/m2K
  3. C.25 W/m2K      
  4. D. 35 W/m2K

Logical Reasoning

Q 26 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
Q 27 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
Q 28 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 29 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
Q 30 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 31 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 32 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
Q 33 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 34 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 35 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
Q 36 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
  1. A.N
  2. B.Q
  3. C.J
  4. D.M
  5. E.None of these
Q 37 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
Q 38 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
  1. A.The only argument I is strong
  2. B.Only argument II is strong
  3. C.Either I or II is strong
  4. D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 39 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’  and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
  1. A.P
  2. B.L
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 40 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 41 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.One
  2. B.Two
  3. C.Three
  4. D.Four
  5. E.More than four
Q 42 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can  be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
  1. A.I
  2. B.A
  3. C.L
  4. D.M
  5. E.N
Q 43 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 44 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
  1. A.26
  2. B.28
  3. C.30
  4. D.32
  5. E.None of these
Q 45 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 46 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
  1. A.X
  2. B.W
  3. C.I
  4. D.H
Q 47 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 48 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 49 :
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet  following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
  1. A.P                 
  2. B.Q            
  3. C.B              
  4. D.K              
  5. E.None of these
Q 50 :
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Three
  4. D.Four
  5. E.More than Four

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