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Latest NRHM Assam Medical Officer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Mental ability, General Knowledge, Concerned Subject
Question Bank NRHM Assam Medical Officer Exam - English
Mental ability
Q 1 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 2 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 3 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 4 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 5 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 6 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 7 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 8 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 9 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 10 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 11 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 12 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 13 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 14 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 15 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 16 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 17 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 18 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 19 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 20 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 21 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 22 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 23 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 24 :
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A.P
B.Q
C.B
D.K
E.None of these
Q 25 :
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A.None
B.One
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than Four
General Knowledge
Q 26 :
With reference to Medical College Admission, “All India Quota” scheme was introduced in which year?
A.1975
B.1980
C.1986
D.1990
Q 27 :
How many Tiger reserves of India have received accreditation of the Global Conservation Assured Tiger Standards (CA|TS)?
A.5
B.3
C.11
D.14
Q 28 :
AS per ICMR’s 4th Serology Survey released in July 2021, which state has the highest Covid-19 Sero-prevalence?
A.Bihar
B.Madhya Pradesh
C.Uttar Pradesh
D.Kerala
Q 29 :
Who won the Maharashtra Bhushan Awards 2021?
A.Asha Bhosle
B.Sachin Tendulkar
C.Lata Mangeshkar
D.Ratan Tata
Q 30 :
Which Company collaborated with CBSE and Ministry of Education for “AI For All” initiative?
A.Intel
B.Microsoft
C.Wipro
D.Dell
Q 31 :
In July 2021, NABARD sanctioned Rs 445 crore loan under its Rural Infrastructure Development Fund to support drinking water projects in which state?
A.Karnataka
B.Madhya Pradesh
C.Odisha
D.Punjab
Q 32 :
Which bank partnered with LIC Cards Services to launch 2 Credit Cards – ‘Lumine’ Platinum Credit Card & ‘Eclat’ Select Credit Card?
A.IDBI Bank
B.ICICI Bank
C.Canara Bank
D.Axis Bank
Q 33 :
In July 2021, NASSCOM partnered with the Department for International Trade (DIT) of _____ to address its Digital Skill Gap
A.Afghanistan
B.United Kingdom
C.Bangladesh
D.Brazil
Q 34 :
Which Indian state partnered (in July’21) with Afghanistan Chamber of Commerce and Investment (ACCI) to boost trade with the country?
A.West Bengal
B.Karnataka
C.Telangana
D.Gujarat
Q 35 :
As per the Banking Regulation Act – 1949, All Banks in India shall maintain a Reserve Fund/Statutory Reserve equivalent to _______ of their annual net profit.
A.5%
B.25%
C.10%
D.20%
Q 36 :
As a boost to the disinvestment of _______, Central government (in July’21) allowed 100% FDI under automatic route in _______ PSUs.
A.Cement Corporation of India; Construction Sector
B.Indian Oil Corporation; Oil Refinery Sector
C.General Insurance Corporation of India; Insurance Sector
D.Bharat Petroleum; Oil Refinery Sector
Q 37 :
In July 2021, Union Cabinet approved the amendment of General Insurance Business Nationalisation Act (GIBNA), 1972, to facilitate privatization of ____ General Insurance Company from the total _____ in public sector.
A.2;4
B.1;4
C.2;6
D.1;5
Q 38 :
In July 2021, India & Russia conducted the 12th edition of Naval exercise ‘INDRA’ in _____, where Indian side was represented by ______.
A.Baltic Sea; INS Tabar
B.Baltic Sea; INS Trishul
C.Andaman Sea; INS Tabar
D.Andaman Sea; INS Trishul
Q 39 :
AS per the “Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)” report released by ________ unemployment rate among Indian Women is at ____ in 2019-20
A.NITI Aayog; 5.1%
B.National Statistical Office; 5.1%
C.NITI Aayog; 4.2%
D.National Statistical Office; 4.2%
Q 40 :
In July 2021, Ministry of Ports set-up a committee to plan on the proposed ferry service between India’s _____ and Kankesanthurai Port in _______.
A.Karaikal; Sri Lanka
B.Kolkata; Bangladesh
C.Visakhapatnam; Bangladesh
D.Karaikal; Myanmar
Q 41 :
Mike Hendrick passed away in July 2021. He was related to which of the following fields?
A.Acting
B.Medicine
C.Cricket
D.Politics
Q 42 :
When is World Ranger Day celebrated every year?
A.28 July
B.29 July
C.30 July
D.31 July
Q 43 :
Which of the following will set up 10 mobile refueling units (MRUs) in 2022?
A.Adani Gas Ltd
B.Mahanagar Gas Ltd
C.Sabarmati Gas Limited
D.Gail Gas Limited
Q 44 :
In July 2021, which of the following has entered into an agreement with the Serum Institute of India?
A.NASSCOM
B.ASSOCHAM
C.CII
D.FICCI
Q 45 :
Who chaired a review meeting with the National Medical Commission, NMC, in July 2021?
A.Narendra Modi
B.Amit Shah
C.Mansukh Mandaviya
D.Kiren Rijiju
Q 46 :
Who is the national record holder in the men’s 3000m steeplechase?
A.Gulzara Singh Mann
B.Avinash Sable
C.Gopak Saini
D.Madan Singh
Q 47 :
On which date, “International Friendship Day” is celebrated by the United Nations?
A.August 8
B.August 1
C.July 30
D.July 28
Q 48 :
What was the theme of the “World Day against Trafficking 2021”?
A.Save lives
B.The future we want, the UN we need
C.Human Trafficking: Call Your Government to Action
D.Victims voices lead the way
Q 49 :
Which two space agencies collaborated to launch the mission called “NISAR”?
A.ISRO and NASA
B.ISRO and ROSCOSMOS
C.NASA and CNSA
D.ROSCOSMOS and NASA
Q 50 :
What is the venue of INDRA-21, the Joint Military Exercise of Indian Army and Russian Army?
A.New Delhi
B.Moscow
C.Volgograd
D.Ghaziabad
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NRHM Assam Medical Officer Exam Question Bank Book - English
A patient with a diagnosis of end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is admitted to ICU. All of the following is the appropriate nursing diagnoses for this patient, except :
A.Fluid volume excess
B.Decreased RBC
C.Electrolyte imbalance
D.Impaired immune function
Q 57 :
Engulfing of the liquid substance by cell is called
A.Phagocytosis
B.Pinocytosis
C.Osmosis
D.​None of them
Q 58 :
Which of the following cell organ contains hydrolytic gland?
A.Nucleus
B.Lysosome
C.Mitochondria
D.​Endoplasmic reticulum
Q 59 :
The secretion of goblet cell is known as-
A.Hormone
B.Mucous
C.Enzymes
D.​Digestive juices
Q 60 :
Which of the following glands is an example of hollocrine gland ?
A.Sweat gland
B.Sebaceous gland
C.Pancreatic
D.Salivary gland
Q 61 :
In the state infection which tissue are more active-
A.Reticular tissue
B.Adipose tissue
C.Elastic tissue
D.​Collagenase tissue
Q 62 :
Brown adipose tissue is mostly found is-
A.Adult male
B.Adult female
C.New born
D.​Old age persons
Q 63 :
Largest gland of the body is-
A.Pituitary
B.Adrenal
C.Liver
D.​Pancreas
Q 64 :
The potential reason of alopecia is-
A.Protein deficiency
B.Malnutrition
C.Genetic
D.Vitamin deficiency
Q 65 :
Nodes of ranvier is found in which cell –
A.Epithelial cell
B.Muscles cell
C.Nerve cell
D.​Red cell
Q 66 :
The total number of bones found in human body is-
A.206
B.306
C.205
D.​210
Q 67 :
Lambdoid suture runs between these two bones-
A.Parietal and frontal bone
B.Parietal and parietal bone
C.Parietal and occipital
D.​In both temporal bone
Q 68 :
In children fusion of anterior fontanel takes place during-
A.18 months
B.2 months
C.6 months
D.12 months
Q 69 :
Coronal sutures are found in-
A.Parietal and formal bone
B.Parietal and parietal bone
C.Parietal and occipital
D.In both temporal bone
Q 70 :
Which part of the temporal bone is related with hearing and balancing ?
A.Squamous part
B.Mastoid part
C.Tympanic part
D.​Petrous part
Q 71 :
Smallest bone of human body is -
A.Stapes
B.Fibula
C.Tarsel
D.Carpel
Q 72 :
Digestion begins in our body from -
A.Small intestine
B.Large intestine
C.Mouth
D.Stomach
Q 73 :
Fetal heart can be felt on which day of embroyonic life -
A.After 6.5-7 Weeks
B.At 5 days
C.At 10 days
D.At 40 days
Q 74 :
The average time of cardiac cycle is-
A.6 sec.
B.0.8 sec
C.1 min
D.​1 sec
Q 75 :
The contraction wave of heart starts from -
A.S.A node
B.A.V node
C.Bundle of his
D.​Purkinje fiber
Q 76 :
The formula to measure the cardiac output is -
A.Stroke volume / heart rate
B.Stroke volume * heart rate
C.Stroke volume – heart rate
D.​Stroke volume + heart rate
Q 77 :
Most of digestion occurs in which part of alimentary canal of man ?
A.Small intestine
B.Large intestine
C.Mouth
D.​Stomach
Q 78 :
Function of pacemaker is -
A.To initiate heart beat
B.To regulate beat
C.To regulate blood pressure
D.​To regulate brain waves
Q 79 :
During sleep blood pressure -
A.Increase
B.Decreases
C.Does not change
D.First decrease than change
Q 80 :
To complete one heart beat the time taken is -
A.0.8 second
B.1 second
C.72 second
D.​1.8 second
Q 81 :
Longest artery found in the body of human is -
A.Aorta
B.Venacava
C.Capillaries
D.​Vesicles
Q 82 :
Blood bank of human body is -
A.Spleen
B.Liver
C.Bone
D.​Kidney
Q 83 :
Red blood corpuscles is also known as -
A.Erythrocytes
B.Leucocytes
C.Monocytes
D.Oligodendrocytes
Q 84 :
Graveyard of red blood cell is -
A.Spleen
B.Liver
C.Bone
D.​Kidney
Q 85 :
Number of which type of WBC is greatest in blood of human?
A.Neutrophils
B.Basophils
C.Monocytes
D.​Basophila
Q 86 :
A person with AB blood group is some times called a universal recipient because of the –
A.Lack of antigen in his blood
B.Lack of antibodies in his blood
C.Lack of both antigen and antibodies in his blood
D.​Presence of antibodies in his blood
Q 87 :
In which organ of the human body are the lymphocytes cells formed ?
A.Long bones
B.Spleen
C.Kidney
D.​Heart
Q 88 :
Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called -
A.Coronary artery
B.Pulmonary artery
C.Femoral artery
D.​Radial artery
Q 89 :
Which of the following chemical can be used in anti – coagulant?
A.Sodium citrate
B.Calcium
C.Sodium nitrate
D.Heparin
Q 90 :
The cells which have least regeneration capacity -
A.Cells of brain
B.Cells of bone
C.Cells of heart
D.Cells of kidney
Q 91 :
Largest part of human brain is-
A.Cerebrum
B.Cerebellum
C.Pons
D.Oblongata
Q 92 :
Centre of reflex action-
A.Spinal cord
B.Pons
C.Cerebellum
D.​Cerebrum
Q 93 :
In a cell, process of respiration takes place in -
A.Mitochondria
B.Golgi apparatus
C.Ribosome
D.​Lysosomes
Q 94 :
Percentage of oxygen found in exhaled air is -
A.12%
B.14%
C.16%
D.​18%
Q 95 :
Saliva secreted from mouth digest -
A.Starch
B.Fat
C.Protein
D.​Alcohol
Q 96 :
Tear gland is not found in-
A.Dog
B.Man
C.Pig
D.Crocodile
Q 97 :
Estrogen is secreted by -
A.Corpus luteum
B.Deciduas
C.Graffian follicels
D.​None of them
Q 98 :
Which of the following hormone is called emergency hormone ?