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Question Bank

NTA UGC NET Economic Exam - English

Duration: 180 · Questions: 150 · Max Marks: 150 · Language: 1

View NTA UGC NET Economics 2026 Exam Page

Teaching and research aptitude

1
Which of the following statements is true?
  1. A.Computer aided education can replace a teacher
  2. B.Computer aided education can assist a teacher
  3. C.On-line teaching and face-to-face teaching both are effective
  4. D.Face-to-face teaching is less effective than online teaching
2
In order to solve the problem of aimlessness in education, we should develop -
  1. A.democratic citizenship   
  2. B.centralized education
  3. C.education
  4. D.reform the administrative set-up
3
If a student misbehaves with other students in the class, the teacher should -
  1. A.report the matter to the parents
  2. B.punish him at the time of the morning assembly in the school
  3. C.deal with him with sympathetic understanding
  4. D.treat him with sympathy and understanding
4
How can a failed student be encouraged to study sincerely in the same class?
  1. A. by teacher’s counseling
  2. B.by psychological counseling
  3. C.by guardian’s counseling
  4. D.by Students’ Association
5
Our examination system is -
  1. A.defective                                               
  2. B.without any defect
  3. C.in the interest of the students           
  4. D. well-planned
6
Which Article in the Constitution deals with elementary education ?
  1. A.Article 45
  2. B.Article 370
  3. C.Article 19
  4. D. Article 226
7
For physically handicapped student of the school, there should be
  1. A.proper facility for entering the class-room and toilet
  2. B.proper arrangement for his food and lodging
  3. C.arrangement for his free education
  4. D.an arrangement for necessary equipments
8
A naughty student in the class is
  1. A.foolish and dull
  2. B.active and intelligent
  3. C.unadjusted and unappreciated
  4. D.rich and careless
9
Why is syllabus necessary in school ?
  1. A.It helps in the proper functioning of the school
  2. B.It makes the classroom education under control
  3. C.A teacher can rule every work outside the class in a proper manner
  4. D.All of the above are possible
10
Which of the following is/are the basic paradigms in classroom teaching?
  1. A.Learning paradigm                               
  2. B.Instructional paradigm
  3. C.Both (a) and (b)   
  4. D.None of the above
11
Research is - 
  1. A.A purposeful, systematic activity
  2. B.Conducted for purely academic purposes.
  3. C.Conducted to answer questions about practical issues.
  4. D.A random, unplanned process of discovery
12
When we say that communication is intentional, it means that -
  1. A.Sender consciously intends to affect the behaviour of receiver of the message
  2. B.Effective communication is a process of acting on information
  3. C.Through speech communication, people make sense of the world
  4. D.None of the above
13
Find the missing number in the following series.
8, 24, 12, ?, 18, 54
  1. A.26
  2. B.24
  3. C.36
  4. D.32
14
The main governing body at the tertiary level of education in India is -
  1. A.NCERT 
  2. B.CBSE  
  3. C.AICTE
  4. D. UGC         
15
The term ecosystem was coined by - 
  1. A.Arthur Tansley
  2. B.Al Gore
  3. C.Mobius 
  4. D.Mobius 
16
ICT stands for -
  1. A.Information and communication technology
  2. B.Information controlled technology
  3. C.Information capable technology
  4. D.None of the above         
17
What is the average of marks obtained by Aman for all subjects?
  1. A. 72 
  2. B.75
  3. C.80
  4. D.85
18
Which is the main objective of research?
  1. A.To review the literature
  2. B.To summarize what is already known
  3. C.To get an academic degree
  4. D.To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
19
Sampling error decreases with the
  1. A.decrease in sample size
  2. B.increase in sample size
  3. C.process of randomization
  4. D.process of analysis
20
The principles of fundamental research are used in
  1. A.action research
  2. B.applied research
  3. C.philosophical research
  4. D.historical research
21
Users who use media for their own ends are indentified as
  1. A.Passive audience
  2. B.Active audience
  3. C.Positive audience
  4. D.Negative audience
22
Classroom communication can be described as
  1. A.Exploration
  2. B.Institutionalisation
  3. C.Unsignified narration
  4. D.Discourse
23
Ideological codes shape our collective
  1. A.Productions
  2. B.Perceptions
  3. C.Consumptions
  4. D.Creations
24
In communication, myths have power, but are
  1. A.Uncultural.
  2. B.Insignificant.
  3. C.imprecise.
  4. D.Unpreferred.
25
The first multi-lingual news agency of India was
  1. A.Samachar
  2. B.API
  3. C.Hindustan Samachar
  4. D.Samachar Bharati
26
Organisational communication can also be equated with
  1. A.intra-personal communication
  2. B.inter-personal communication
  3. C.group communication
  4. D.mass communication
27
If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called
  1. A.Contradictory
  2. B.Contrary
  3. C.Sub-contrary
  4. D.Sub-alternation
28
What is the main idea of this passage?
  1. A.The benefits of social media for global communication
  2. B.The challenges posed by the rapid advancement of technology on communication
  3. C.The importance of social media platforms in connecting people
  4. D.The necessity of critical thinking and media literacy in the digital age
29
According to the passage, what is a challenge of increased technological interconnectedness?
  1. A.Slower rates of communication
  2. B.Difficulty in sharing information
  3. C.The rapid spread of misinformation
  4. D.A decrease in global interaction
30
The word "discern" in the passage most closely means:
  1. A.Ignore
  2. B.Understand
  3. C.Distribute
  4. D.Create
31
What can be inferred about the impact of misinformation?
  1. A.It has no effect on public opinion
  2. B.Its impact is limited to online discussions
  3. C.It can influence public opinion and real-world events
  4. D.It is easily controlled by social media platforms
32
The author's tone in this passage can be best described as:
  1. A.Optimistic
  2. B.Neutral and informative
  3. C.Highly critical
  4. D.Humorous
33
Identify the fallacy in the following argument: "Alan is tall, dark and handsome and has blue eyes. Bill is also tall, dark and handsome".
  1. A.Inconsistency
  2. B.Weak analogy
  3. C.Slippery slope
  4. D.Hasty generalisation
34
Identify the number that occurs in the series 2, 10, 30, 68, 130, ....
(A)738
(B) 349
(C) 520
(D) 222
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  1. A.A, B and C only
  2. B.B, C and D only
  3. C.A, C and D only
  4. D.A, B and D only
35
Which of the following are essential requirements for the formation of photochemical SMOG?
(A) Carbon monooxide (CO)
(B) Nitrogen dioxide (NO2)
(C) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
(D) Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)
(E) Sunlight
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
  1. A.A, B and D only
  2. B.A, C and E only
  3. C.B, C, D and E only
  4. D.B, D and E only
36
Which of the following Indian universities were modelled on the lines of University of London?
(A) Calcutta
(B) Bombay
(C) Madras
(D) Andhra
(E) Mysore
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  1. A.A, B & C only
  2. B.B, C & D only
  3. C.C, D & E only
  4. D.A, B & D only
37
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Internet is commonly used service on the World Wide Web
Statement II: HTTP is the protocol that web browsers and web servers use to communicate with each other over the Internet
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  1. A.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  2. B.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  3. C.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. D.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
38
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion (A): Teachers must encourage students to ask questions.
Reason (R): Asking questions can create curiosity and develop passion for learning
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Choose the correct answer from below:
  1. A.Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. B.Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. C.(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  4. D.(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
39
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Exploration is particularly useful when researchers lack a clear idea of the problems they will meet during the study
Statement II: Through exploration, researchers develop concepts more clearly, establish priorities, develop operational definitions, and improve the final research design
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  1. A.Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  2. B.Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  3. C.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  4. D.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
40
Which of the given learner characteristics are associated with field dependent (holistic/visual) learning style?
(i) Focusing on facts and principles
(ii) Relating concepts to personal experience
(iii) Formal interaction with teacher related to tasks at hand
(iv) Preferring to compete rather than cooperate
(v) Preferring to cooperate rather than compete
(vi) Perceiving global aspects of concepts and materials
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  1. A.(i), (ii) and (iii)
  2. B.(ii), (iii) and (v)
  3. C.(ii), (v) and (vi)
  4. D.(iv), (v) and (vi)
41
Teaching is best defined as?
  1. A.Transmission of knowledge only
  2. B.Memorization of facts
  3. C.A process of facilitating learning
  4. D.Examination process
42
The main objective of teaching is?
  1. A.Controlling learners
  2. B.Promoting learning
  3. C.Increasing discipline only
  4. D.Completing syllabus only
43
Memory level teaching mainly emphasizes?
  1. A.Critical thinking
  2. B.Evaluation
  3. C.Creativity
  4. D.Rote learning
44
Understanding level teaching focuses on?
  1. A.Comprehension of ideas
  2. B.Recall only
  3. C.Guessing answers
  4. D.Memorization only
45
Reflective level teaching promotes?
  1. A.Copying answers
  2. B.Higher order thinking
  3. C.Simple recall
  4. D.Dictation
46
Teaching is a?
  1. A.Static process
  2. B.Dynamic process
  3. C.Mechanical process
  4. D.Random process
47
Effective teaching requires?
  1. A.Subject mastery and pedagogy
  2. B.Only discipline
  3. C.Only textbook knowledge
  4. D.Only exams
48
Teaching at memory level was proposed by?
  1. A.Herbart
  2. B.Bloom
  3. C.Skinner
  4. D.Piaget
49
Teaching is considered successful when?
  1. A.Students learn effectively
  2. B.Teacher speaks more
  3. C.Syllabus is completed
  4. D.Exams are conducted
50
Understanding level teaching is also called?
  1. A.Memory level
  2. B.Insightful level
  3. C.Reflective level
  4. D.Conditioning level

Domain knowledge (Economic)

1
In case of indifference curve of two goods X and Y, as consumption of X increases :
  1. A.MRSXY increases
  2. B.MRSXY decreases
  3. C.MRSXY remains the same
  4. D.MRSXY increases but later on MRSXY decreases
2
General Economic equilibrium is NOT related to which one of the following problems ?
  1. A.Uniqueness problem
  2. B.Existence problem
  3. C.Stability problem
  4. D.Moral hazard problem
3
In the shoft-run production function, which on eof the following is CORRECT ?
  1. A.Technology is assumed to change as labour input changes
  2. B.Technology is assumed to change as capital stock changes
  3. C.Technology is assumed to change positively until diminishing returns set in
  4. D.Technology is assumedto be constant for a given production function relationship
4
As output expands, LAC curve falls. This is due to :
  1. A.Law of variable proportions
  2. B.Law of diminishing returns
  3. C.Economies of scale
  4. D.Diseconomies of scale
5
In a situtation of decision under uncertainty, if a consumer faces equal expected income from two alternatives, then she will take decision on the basis of :
  1. A.Expected utility of both the alternatives
  2. B.Probability of risk attached with each alternatives
  3. C.Variation of risk attached with each alternatives
  4. D.Mean of risk of each alternatives
6
What type of relationship the Phillips curve postulates between the rae of unemployment and the rate of increase of money wages ?
  1. A.Inverse
  2. B.Direct
  3. C.Direct and proportional
  4. D.Inverse and proportional
7
The concept of 'money illusion' was first given by whom ?
  1. A.Milton Friedman
  2. B.Irving Fisher
  3. C.Robertson
  4. D.J. M. Keynes
8
Which one of the following correctly describes the concept of 'Super Multiplier' ?
  1. A.Investment multiplier
  2. B.Money multiplier
  3. C.Interaction between multiplier and accelerator
  4. D.Employment multiplier
9
Given
I = 50 + 0.2Y
S = –150 + 0.4Y
G = 50
Where, I = Investment, S = Savings
G = Government Expenditure
Y = National Income
What is the equilibrium level of national income
  1. A.2500
  2. B.1250
  3. C.250
  4. D.1500
10
The independence of real variables from changes in money supply and nominal variables is called :
  1. A.Keynesian dichotomy
  2. B.Classical dichotomy
  3. C.Money illusion
  4. D.Money multiplier
11
Assuming the probability of a male birth as 0.5, find the chances that a family of 3 children will have two boys and one girl :
    12
    Which one of the following measures of central tendency will be the most appropriate to use if the data relates to rates, proportions and ratios ?
    1. A.Arithmetic mean
    2. B.M edian
    3. C.Harmonic Mean
    4. D.Geometric mean
    13
    The sampling distribution of mean based on a sample of 13 units selected without replacement shows a variance of 5 units. If the population consists of 49 units, estimate the variance of the population
    1. A.80.67
    2. B.84.87
    3. C.86.67
    4. D.86.87
    14
    In the classical linear regression model, Xi and Ui are assumed to be :
    1. A.highly correlated
    2. B.not correlated
    3. C.positively correlated
    4. D.negatively correlated
    15
    Identify which one of the following statements is INCORRECT ?
    1. A.Intersection of two disjoint sets is a null set
    2. B.Complement of a Universal set is a null set
    3. C.If X ∩ Y =Ï•, then X-Y ≠X
    16
    Given Y = X³ – 12X² + 36X + 8, identify which one of the following is CORRECT :
    1. A.Y is maximum at X = 6, and minimum at X = 2
    2. B.Y is minimum at X= 6, and maximum at X = 2
    3. C.Y has two inflexion points at X = 2 and X = 6
    4. D.Point of optimality is indeterminate
    17
    Identify which one of the following statements is CORRECT :
    1. A.A–1 is equal to Adj (A) if the value of the determinant A is unity
    2. B.If two columns of a determinant are interchanged, the sign of the determinant does not alter
    3. C.The value of a determinant changes if the rows and columns are interchanged
    4. D.Law of division is allowed in matrix operations      
    18
    Identify which of the following statements with respect to Linear Programming Problem (LPP) is CORRECT ?
    1. A.A solution is unbounded in an LPP if all the feasible solutions of the problem fall within the boundary created by its constraints
    2. B.If A is primal problem and B its dual, then dual of B is Not A
    3. C.The constraints of an LPP in standard form is always expressed in less than and equal to form
    4. D.If an LPP has two optimum solutions, then it has also infinite number of optimum solutions
    19
    The Net Barter terms of trade refer to :
    1. A.The excess of import expenditures over export earnings
    2. B.Trade agreements
    3. C.The ratio between export prices and import prices
    4. D.The terms and conditions on which a country is offered a loan in the event of balance of payments difficulties
    20
    The items on the capital account of Balance of Payments are :
    1. A.Flow variables
    2. B.Stock variables
    3. C.Changes in stock magnitudes
    4. D.Both Stock and Flow variables
    21
    Utility maximization under budget constraint is achieved when?
    1. A.MUx + MUy is maximum
    2. B.Px + Py = Income
    3. C.MUx/Px = MUy/Py
    4. D.MUx × MUy = 0
    22
    Indifference curve is convex to origin because of?
    1. A.Diminishing marginal rate of substitution
    2. B.Increasing marginal utility
    3. C.Law of demand
    4. D.Perfect substitution
    23
    Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS) is defined as?
    1. A.Amount of Y sacrificed for one more unit of X
    2. B.Slope of budget line
    3. C.Ratio of prices
    4. D.Total utility ratio
    24
    A Giffen good violates the?
    1. A.Law of diminishing utility
    2. B.Law of demand
    3. C.Law of supply
    4. D.Law of substitution
    25
    Budget line shifts outward when?
    1. A.Price of goods increases
    2. B.Demand decreases
    3. C.Utility increases
    4. D.Income increases
    26
    A consumer is in equilibrium when?
    1. A.Total utility is zero
    2. B.Marginal utility is maximum
    3. C.Price is zero
    4. D.Budget is exhausted with highest satisfaction
    27
    Law of diminishing marginal utility states that?
    1. A.Total utility falls immediately
    2. B.Marginal utility increases continuously
    3. C.Marginal utility declines with consumption
    4. D.Utility remains constant
    28
    Indifference curve cannot?
    1. A.Be downward sloping
    2. B.Be smooth
    3. C.Be convex
    4. D.Intersect each other
    29
    Perfect substitutes have indifference curves that are?
    1. A.L-shaped
    2. B.Straight lines
    3. C.Convex
    4. D.Circular
    30
    Perfect complements are represented by?
    1. A.Straight lines
    2. B.Parallel lines
    3. C.Upward sloping curves
    4. D.Right angle indifference curves
    31
    Consumer surplus is defined as?
    1. A.Difference between income and expenditure
    2. B.Total utility minus marginal utility
    3. C.Difference between willingness to pay and actual price
    4. D.Price minus cost
    32
    Engel curve shows relationship between?
    1. A.Income and quantity demanded
    2. B.Price and demand
    3. C.Supply and price
    4. D.Utility and cost
    33
    When income increases demand for inferior goods?
    1. A.Increases
    2. B.Decreases
    3. C.Remains constant
    4. D.Becomes zero
    34
    Substitution effect always leads to?
    1. A.Decrease in demand
    2. B.Fall in price only
    3. C.Increase in demand
    4. D.No change in demand
    35
    Income effect measures change in demand due to?
    1. A.Price change only
    2. B.Taste change
    3. C.Income change only
    4. D.Substitution effect
    36
    Slutsky equation decomposes price effect into?
    1. A.Income and demand effect
    2. B.Supply and demand effect
    3. C.Income and substitution effect
    4. D.Cost and revenue effect
    37
    A higher indifference curve indicates?
    1. A.Lower utility
    2. B.Same utility
    3. C.Higher utility
    4. D.Zero utility
    38
    The slope of budget line depends on?
    1. A.Income only
    2. B.Preferences
    3. C.Utility
    4. D.Price ratio
    39
    If price of X falls, budget line?
    1. A.Shifts inward
    2. B.Rotates outward
    3. C.Becomes steeper
    4. D.Disappears
    40
    Utility is best defined as?
    1. A.Money value
    2. B.Satisfaction from consumption
    3. C.Cost of production
    4. D.Market price
    41
    Cardinal utility approach assumes utility is?
    1. A.Ordinal only
    2. B.Constant
    3. C.Non-comparable
    4. D.Measurable numerically
    42
    Ordinal utility approach uses?
    1. A.Ranking of preferences
    2. B.Exact numbers
    3. C.Money value
    4. D.Cost values
    43
    Marginal utility becomes zero when?
    1. A.Consumption starts
    2. B.Demand falls
    3. C.Price increases
    4. D.Total utility is maximum
    44
    Demand curve derived from price consumption curve shows?
    1. A.Price-demand relationship
    2. B.Income effect
    3. C.Supply relation
    4. D.Cost relation
    45
    Inferior goods are those for which income elasticity is?
    1. A.Positive
    2. B.Zero
    3. C.Infinite
    4. D.Negative
    46
    A normal good has income elasticity?
    1. A.Negative
    2. B.Undefined
    3. C.Zero
    4. D.Positive
    47
    Consumer equilibrium under indifference curve theory requires?
    1. A.MUx = MUy
    2. B.MRS = price ratio
    3. C.Income = cost
    4. D.Demand = supply
    48
    Giffen goods are typically?
    1. A.Luxury goods
    2. B.Substitute goods
    3. C.Normal goods
    4. D.Inferior goods
    49
    Price effect is combination of?
    1. A.Supply and cost
    2. B.Income and substitution effects
    3. C.Demand and utility
    4. D.Revenue and profit
    50
    If two goods are independent, cross elasticity is?
    1. A.Positive
    2. B.Zero
    3. C.Negative
    4. D.Infinite
    51
    Complementary goods have cross elasticity?
    1. A.Positive
    2. B.Zero
    3. C.Negative
    4. D.One
    52
    Substitutes have cross elasticity?
    1. A.Negative
    2. B.Positive
    3. C.Zero
    4. D.Undefined
    53
    The point where indifference curve touches budget line is?
    1. A.Inequality point
    2. B.Maximum cost point
    3. C.Disequilibrium
    4. D.Equilibrium point
    54
    A higher income shifts budget line?
    1. A.Leftward
    2. B.Becomes steeper
    3. C.Rightward parallel
    4. D.Horizontal
    55
    Consumer prefers combinations on?
    1. A.Higher IC
    2. B.Lower IC
    3. C.Budget line only
    4. D.Origin
    56
    Total utility is sum of?
    1. A.Income utilities
    2. B.Average utilities
    3. C.Price utilities
    4. D.Marginal utilities
    57
    Marginal utility curve is typically?
    1. A.Upward sloping
    2. B.Vertical
    3. C.Downward sloping
    4. D.Horizontal
    58
    Indifference curve analysis assumes utility is?
    1. A.Measurable
    2. B.Ordinal
    3. C.Observable
    4. D.Fixed
    59
    Demand curve is derived from?
    1. A.Supply curve
    2. B.Cost curve
    3. C.Utility maximization
    4. D.Production function
    60
    Consumer equilibrium condition fails when?
    1. A.MRS equals price ratio
    2. B.MRS does not equal price ratio
    3. C.Budget is fully spent
    4. D.Utility is maximized
    61
    Production function shows relationship between?
    1. A.Price and output
    2. B.Cost and revenue
    3. C.Inputs and output
    4. D.Demand and supply
    62
    Short run is a period when?
    1. A.All inputs are variable
    2. B.All inputs are fixed
    3. C.No production occurs
    4. D.At least one input is fixed
    63
    Long run production is characterized by?
    1. A.Fixed inputs
    2. B.Variable inputs
    3. C.At least one fixed input
    4. D.No input change
    64
    Law of variable proportions operates in?
    1. A.Long run
    2. B.Very long run
    3. C.Static period
    4. D.Short run
    65
    Marginal product is defined as?
    1. A.Total output per unit cost
    2. B.Total revenue
    3. C.Change in total product due to one more unit of input
    4. D.Average output
    66
    When marginal product is maximum, marginal cost is?
    1. A.Minimum
    2. B.Maximum
    3. C.Zero
    4. D.Constant
    67
    Law of diminishing returns implies?
    1. A.Decreasing marginal product after a point
    2. B.Increasing returns forever
    3. C.Constant output
    4. D.Zero production
    68
    Average product is?
    1. A.Total product / variable input
    2. B.Total product × input
    3. C.Marginal product / cost
    4. D.Output – input
    69
    Isoquant represents?
    1. A.Equal output combinations
    2. B.Equal cost combinations
    3. C.Equal price levels
    4. D.Equal revenue
    70
    Isoquant is similar to?
    1. A.Demand curve
    2. B.Indifference curve
    3. C.Supply curve
    4. D.Cost curve
    71
    Isocost line represents?
    1. A.Equal output combinations
    2. B.Equal demand
    3. C.Equal profit levels
    4. D.Equal cost combinations
    72
    Producer equilibrium occurs when?
    1. A.Isoquant is tangent to isocost line
    2. B.Isoquant is farthest from origin
    3. C.Cost is maximum
    4. D.Output is zero
    73
    MRTS refers to?
    1. A.Marginal revenue time series
    2. B.Market rate of substitution
    3. C.Marginal return to scale
    4. D.Marginal rate of technical substitution
    74
    MRTS is slope of?
    1. A.Isoquant
    2. B.Isocost
    3. C.Demand curve
    4. D.Supply curve
    75
    Returns to scale refers to?
    1. A.Long run output response to input changes
    2. B.Short run cost changes
    3. C.Price changes
    4. D.Demand shifts
    76
    Increasing returns to scale means output increases?
    1. A.More than proportionately
    2. B.Less than proportionately
    3. C.Equally
    4. D.Not at all
    77
    Constant returns to scale means output increases?
    1. A.More than proportionately
    2. B.Less than proportionately
    3. C.Not at all
    4. D.Proportionately
    78
    Decreasing returns to scale means output increases?
    1. A.More than proportionately
    2. B.Doubles always
    3. C.Equally
    4. D.Less than proportionately
    79
    Total cost equals?
    1. A.Marginal cost + revenue
    2. B.Revenue + profit
    3. C.Output × price
    4. D.Fixed cost + variable cost
    80
    Fixed cost is?
    1. A.Independent of output
    2. B.Varies with output
    3. C.Always zero
    4. D.Equal to variable cost
    81
    Variable cost changes with?
    1. A.Time only
    2. B.Demand only
    3. C.Price only
    4. D.Output level
    82
    Marginal cost is?
    1. A.Change in total cost due to one more unit of output
    2. B.Total cost / output
    3. C.Fixed cost / output
    4. D.Revenue change
    83
    Average cost is?
    1. A.Total cost × output
    2. B.Total cost / output
    3. C.Fixed cost only
    4. D.Variable cost only
    84
    U-shaped AC curve is due to?
    1. A.Constant returns only
    2. B.Diminishing returns
    3. C.Increasing demand
    4. D.Fixed price
    85
    MC intersects AC at?
    1. A.Maximum point of AC
    2. B.Minimum point of AC
    3. C.Zero point
    4. D.Infinity
    86
    When MC is below AC, AC is?
    1. A.Rising
    2. B.Zero
    3. C.Constant
    4. D.Falling
    87
    When MC is above AC, AC is?
    1. A.Falling
    2. B.Rising
    3. C.Constant
    4. D.Zero
    88
    Opportunity cost means?
    1. A.Best alternative forgone
    2. B.Accounting cost
    3. C.Fixed cost
    4. D.Sunk cost
    89
    Explicit cost refers to?
    1. A.Imputed cost
    2. B.Hidden cost
    3. C.Opportunity cost
    4. D.Direct monetary payment
    90
    Implicit cost refers to?
    1. A.Money paid
    2. B.Variable cost
    3. C.Fixed cost
    4. D.Non-monetary opportunity cost
    91
    Economies of scale lead to?
    1. A.Rising cost per unit
    2. B.No change in cost
    3. C.Falling cost per unit
    4. D.Zero output
    92
    Diseconomies of scale lead to?
    1. A.Rising cost
    2. B.Falling cost
    3. C.Constant cost
    4. D.Zero cost
    93
    Internal economies arise within?
    1. A.Industry
    2. B.Market
    3. C.Firm
    4. D.Economy
    94
    External economies arise due to?
    1. A.Firm size
    2. B.Price change
    3. C.Industry expansion
    4. D.Demand fall
    95
    Marginal product becomes zero when?
    1. A.Cost is zero
    2. B.Total product is maximum
    3. C.Demand is zero
    4. D.Input is zero
    96
    Isoquants never?
    1. A.Touch axes
    2. B.Show output
    3. C.Intersect
    4. D.Slope downward
    97
    Elasticity of substitution measures?
    1. A.Change in cost
    2. B.Ease of substituting inputs
    3. C.Change in price
    4. D.Change in demand
    98
    Cobb-Douglas production function assumes?
    1. A.Constant returns to scale (commonly)
    2. B.Variable returns
    3. C.Fixed proportions
    4. D.Zero output
    99
    Fixed factor example is?
    1. A.Labor in long run
    2. B.Output
    3. C.Capital in short run
    4. D.Demand
    100
    Variable factor example is?
    1. A.Labour in short run
    2. B.Buildings
    3. C.Machines in short run
    4. D.Land always fixed
    Question for NTA UGC NET Economics 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ - Toppersexam