How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 2Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 3Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 4Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 5Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 6Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 7Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 8Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 9Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 10Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 11Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 12Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 13Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 14Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 15Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
General Awareness
Question 16Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 17Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 18Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 19Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 20Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 21Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 22Single Answer
Which landmark space telescope recently celebrated its first anniversary in operation ?
A
James Webb Space Telescope
B
Hubble Space Telescope
C
Kepler Space Telescope
D
TESS (Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite)
Question 23Single Answer
Who was recently recognized as Time Person of the Year 2023 for their leadership during the ongoing war in Ukraine ?
A
Volodymyr Zelenskyy, President of Ukraine
B
António Guterres, Secretary - General of the United Nations
C
Xi Jinping, President of China
D
Elon Musk, CEO of Tesla and SpaceX
Question 24Single Answer
In a historic milestone, which country successfully launched its first domestically built aircraft carrier ?
A
South Korea
B
India
C
Japan
D
Vietnam
Question 25Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 26Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 27Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 28Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 29Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 30Single Answer
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A
BARC
B
ISRO
C
DRDO
D
HAL
General English & General Hindi
Question 31Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
अधम्र
B
अध्रम
C
अधर्म
D
अध्रिम
Question 32Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
स्थायि
B
स्थायी
C
स्थाई
D
स्थाइ
Question 33Single Answer
वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?
A
महत्व
B
महतव
C
महत्तव
D
महतत्व
Question 34Single Answer
निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध छांटिए?
A
आयुष्मान
B
आयुश्मान
C
आयुशमान
D
आयुश्यमान
Question 35Single Answer
शुद्ध शब्द नहीं हैं?
A
कवियत्री
B
कौसल्या
C
एश्वर्य
D
श्रृंगार
Question 36Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
पूज
B
पुजय
C
पूज्य
D
पुज्य
Question 37Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
अनुसरण
B
अनूशरणन
C
अनुशरण
D
अणुशर
Question 38Single Answer
किस क्रमांक में सभी शुद्ध हैं?
A
एक्य,साप्ताहिक
B
आजीविका,आशीर्वाद
C
आर्शिवाद ,अनूकूल
D
निरिक्षण ,कृपालु
Question 39Single Answer
'उज्वल' शब्द का शुद्ध रूप है ?
A
उज्जव
B
उज्ज्ल
C
उज्ज्वल
D
उजवल
Question 40Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
जागृत
B
जाग्रति
C
जाग्रित
D
जाग्रत
Question 41Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
उन्नति
B
उनति
C
उन्ती
D
उनती
Question 42Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न मे चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
अनुशहरण
B
अनोसरण
C
अनुसरन
D
अनुसरण
Question 43Single Answer
'पृथ्वीराज रासो' किस काल की रचना है ?
A
आदिकाल
B
रीतिकाल
C
भक्तिकाल
D
आधुनिक काल
Question 44Single Answer
हिन्दी की उत्पत्ति किस भाषा से हुई है?
A
प्राकृत
B
संस्कृत
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी
Question 45Single Answer
राजभाषा आयोग के प्रथम अध्यक्ष थे ?
A
बी. जी. खरे
B
राजा लक्ष्मण सिंह
C
प्रताप नारायण मिश्र
D
इंशाअल्ला खा
Question 46Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 47Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 48Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 49Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 50Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
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General English & General Hindi
Question 51Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 52Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 53Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 54Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 55Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 56Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 57Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 58Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 59Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 60Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Quantitative Aptitude
Question 61Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 62Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 63Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 64Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 65Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 66Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 67Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 68Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 69Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 70Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 71Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 72Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 73Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 74Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 75Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 76Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 77Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 78Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 79Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 80Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Law
Question 81Single Answer
Which Act deals with the protection of children from sexual offenses in India ?
A
Juvenile Justice Act
B
POCSO Act
C
Child Labour Act
D
Child Marriage Act
Question 82Single Answer
What does "POCSO" stand for in the context of Indian law ?
A
Protection of Child Safety and Offenses Act
B
Prevention of Child Sexual Offenses Act
C
Prohibition of Child Safety and Offenses Act
D
Protection of Children from Sexual Offenses Act
Question 83Single Answer
Which government body is responsible for enforcing the POCSO Act ?
A
Ministry of Women and Child Development
B
National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
C
Central Bureau of Investigation
D
Local Police Department
Question 84Single Answer
What is the age of consent under the POCSO Act ?
A
16 years
B
18 years
C
21 years
D
14 years
Question 85Single Answer
In which year was the POCSO Act enacted in India ?
A
2005
B
2012
C
2019
D
2011
Question 86Single Answer
Apart from the POCSO Act, which other Act safeguards children's rights and welfare in India ?
A
Right to Education Act
B
Child Labour Act
C
Juvenile Justice Act
D
All of the above
Question 87Single Answer
The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act was enacted in which year ?
A
2000
B
2015
C
2011
D
1986
Question 88Single Answer
What is the primary objective of the Juvenile Justice Act ?
A
Protection of children from sexual offenses
B
Prevention of child labor
C
Care and rehabilitation of children in need of care and protection
D
Prohibition of child marriage
Question 89Single Answer
Which authority is responsible for the implementation of the Juvenile Justice Act at the district level ?
A
Child Welfare Committee (CWC)
B
National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)
C
Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA)
D
National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
Question 90Single Answer
Which Act prohibits child marriages in India ?
A
POCSO Act
B
Juvenile Justice Act
C
Child Marriage Restraint Act
D
Right to Education Act
Question 91Single Answer
In the Constitution of India, the principle of rule of law is mainly embodied in
A
Article 14
B
Article 32
C
Article 226
D
Article 227
Question 92Single Answer
In case of theft under IPC, the following ingredients are necessary .
I. Dishonest intention to take the property
II. The property can be movable or immovable
III. Property should be taken without the consent of the person
IV. There must be some removal of the property
V. The property must be movable property
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
I, II, III and IV
B
II, III, IV and V
C
I, III, IV and V
D
I, II, III and V
Question 93Single Answer
Which of the following are true with regard to the desertion of spouse under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
I. Factum of separation
II. Animus deserendi
III. Prescribed period of two years must have passed before presentation of petition
IV. With reasonable cause
V. Without the consent of the petitioner
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
I, III, IV and V
B
II, III and IV
C
I, II, III and V
D
I, II and IV
Question 94Single Answer
Choose the correct chronological order of the jurists from the earliest to the latest .
I. Austin, Bentham, Pound, Holmes
II. Bentham, Holmes, Austin, Pound
III. Bentham, Austin, Pound, Holmes
IV. Holmes, Austin, Bentham, Pound
V. Bentham, Holmes, Pound, Austing
Codes :
A
Only II
B
Either I or II
C
Only III
D
Only V
Question 95Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : The power of legislation carries with it the power to delegate and unless the legislature has completely adbicated or effaced itself, there is no restriction on delegation of legislative powers .
Statement II : Paraliament can abdicate or efface itself by creating a parallel legislative body .
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
A
Both statement I and statement II are correct
B
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Question 96Single Answer
Consider the following statements .
I. An agreement without consideration is a void contract
II. An agreement in restraint of marriage is a voidable contract
III. An unmeaning agreement is a void contract
IV. An agreement to do imossible acts is a voidable contract
V. An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is a void contract
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
I and III
B
II and IV
C
I, III and V
D
Only V
Question 97Single Answer
Arrange the following cases chronologically (starting from the earliest to the latest) .
I. National Legal Service Authority v/s UOI
II. Naz Foundation v/s Govt of NCT
III. Navtej Singh Johar v/s UOI
IV. Suresh Kaushal v/s Naz foundation
V. The cases of Navtej Singh Johar and Suresh Kaushal were decided in the same year
Codes :
A
III, V, II, IV
B
IV, II, I, III
C
II, IV, I, III
D
V, IV, I, II
Question 98Single Answer
When an unmarried woman adopts a child and subsequently marries the person who she subsequently marries, shall be the
A
adoptive father of the child
B
stepfather of the child
C
natural father of the child
D
Either 1 or 2
Question 99Single Answer
Choose the correct chronological order of the emergence of the Schools of Jurisprudence (earliest to the latest) .
I. Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism, Realist
II. Historical, Natural, Realist, Analytical Positivism
III. Analytical Positivism, Historical, Realist, Natural
IV. Realist, Hostorical, Analytical positivism, Natural
V. Realist, Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Only I
B
Only II
C
Only III
D
Only IV
Question 100Single Answer
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 talks about direct selling, e-commerce and electronic service provider .
A
True
B
False
C
Consumer Protection Act, 1986 did not provide about this
D
Both (a) and (c)
Question 101Single Answer
'General principles of law' recognised by civilised states as a source of international law has been applied in following case .
A
Corfu Channel Case
B
Asylum Case
C
Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions Case
D
Reparations Case
Question 102Single Answer
Match List I with List II .
List – I List – II
(a) Theory of Justice (i) David Hume
(b) Idea of Justice (ii) John Rawls
(c) Nicomachean Ethics (iii) Amartya Sen
(d) An Enquiry Concerning the Principles of Morals (iv) Aristotle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
C
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
D
(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Question 103Single Answer
.......... has to provide by making regulations for any class of class of companies which may file a shelf-prospectus with the Registrar at the stage of first offer of securities .
A
NCLT
B
SEBI
C
IBBI
D
Director of a company
Question 104Single Answer
The following is/are the exceptions to the principle of strict liability .
I. Act of God
II. Consent of the plaintiff
III. Intention of the defendant
IV. Act of third party
V. Minority
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
I and II
B
I, II and IV
C
I, III and IV
D
II and V
Question 105Single Answer
Restitution of conjugal rights has its genesis under the
A
English law
B
Indian law
C
Jewish law
D
Swedish law
Question 106Single Answer
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of right of private defence
Reason (R) : Z is carried off by a tiger. A fires at the tiger knowing that the shot may kill Z. His shot gives Z a mortal wound. A has not committed any offence
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 107Single Answer
The Hicklin test under Article 19(2) is related to
A
Defamation
B
Decency and Morality
C
Integrity of India
D
Negligence
Question 108Single Answer
Consider the following statements .
I. Courts cannot review the question as to what 'aid and advice' is given by the council of Ministers to the President
II. The question of 'aid and advice' by the Council of Ministers is a justifiable issue
III. Article 14 cannot be worked against discrimination made by consitutional provisions
IV. The question of 'aid and advice' by the Council of Ministers is a non-justifiable issue
V. Article 14 can be worked against discrimination made by Constiutional provisions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
I, II and III
B
I, III and IV
C
II, III and IV
D
III, IV and V
Question 109Single Answer
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : A bigamous marriage is void under Hindu Law
Reason (R) : A child born out of void marriage is legitimate child of his parents
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 110Single Answer
Which of the following doctrines is called as 'Doctrine of Non-regonition' ?
A
Estrada Doctrine
B
Hallestein Doctrine
C
Franco Doctrine
D
Stimson Doctrine
Question 111Single Answer
Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall require it to be taken at a meeting .
A
by a majority of not less than two-third of the weighted votes of the members present
B
by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present
C
by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the weighted votes of all the mebers of the council
D
by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of all the members of the council
Question 112Single Answer
Match List – I with List II
List I List – II
(a) Mersey Docke v/s proctor I. statutory Authority
(b) Metropolitan Asylum District v/s Hill II. Vicarious Liability
(c) Nichols v/s Marsland III. Invevitable Accident
(d) Holmes v/s Mather IV. Act of God
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (v) (ii) (iii)
B
(v) (iv) (i) (ii)
C
(i) (iii) (ii) (v)
D
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Question 113Single Answer
The doctrine, res-ipsa loquitur was applied by the Supreme court in
A
Alka v/s Union of India
B
Asa Ram v/s Municipal Corporation of Delhi
C
Municipal Corporation of Delhi V/s Subhagwanti
D
Jasbir kaur V/s State of Punjab
Question 114Single Answer
The Institution of Ombudsman was first developed in
A
India
B
UK
C
France
D
Sweden
Question 115Single Answer
Trade secrets do not cover the following information .
A
commercially valuable
B
production methods
C
business plans
D
information discovered by reverse engineering
Question 116Single Answer
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Post-modernism I. Grund norm
(b) Source of Law II. Ratio decidendi
(c) Authority of a decision as a precedent III. Critical legal studies
(d) Analytical school IV. Volkgeist
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
B
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
C
(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
D
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Question 117Single Answer
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid I. 354-A, IPC
(b) Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid II. 326-B IPC
(c) Sexual harassment and punishment for sexual harassment III. 354-D IPC
(d) Stalking IV. 326-A, IPC
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
B
(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
C
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
D
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Question 118Single Answer
Ordinarly, a delegated legislation can be given
A
prospective effect only
B
retrospective effect only
C
Both propsective and retrospective effect
D
effect as the court may decide
Question 119Single Answer
Read the following principles of the Rio-Declaration on Environment and Devleopment (1992) and select the correct answer from the given options .
I. Principle 1 – Human beings are at the centre of concern for sustainable development
II. Principle 16 – In order to protect the environment, the precautionary approach shall be widely applied by states according to their capabilities
III. Principle 14 – Environmental impact assessment shall be undertaken for proposed activities that are liekly to have a significant adverse impact on the environment
IV. Principle 20 – Women have a vital role in environmental management and development
V. Principle 24 – Peace, development and environmental protection are interdependent and indivisible
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
I and IV
B
II and III
C
III and V
D
II and V
Question 120Single Answer
Among the Muslims, Sariri is the stage
A
When the boy or the girl is below 10 years of age
B
When the boy or the girl is above seven years but below fifteen years
C
When the boy or the girl is above fifteen years of age
D
when the boy of the girl is above 10 years of age
Question 121Single Answer
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(Provision) (Section)
(a) Void marriage I. Section 27, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(b) Divorce by mutual consent II. Section 24, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(c) Maintenance pendente lite III. Section 13 B, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(d) Disposal of property IV. Section 11, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
B
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
C
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
D
(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Question 122Single Answer
A car was sold on 'as is' basis and without any warranty or guarantee whetever. After 5 days of the contract, the engine of the car blew up. Discuss the liability of the seller .
A
He is liable for the damages due to the doctrine of fundamental breach of standard from of contract
B
The seller is not liable because the car was sold on 'as is' basis and without any warranty of gurantee
C
The buyer should take care if he buys a second-hand car
D
Under standard from contract, in this case, contributory negligence is applicable
Question 123Single Answer
Match List – I with List II :
List I List – II
(a) Doctrine of Pith and Substance I. What cannot be done directly, cannot be done indirectly
(b) Doctrine of Indcidental Encroachment II. The part of statute which is bad cannot be severed from the rest
(c) Doctrine of Severability III. A law is not invalid even though trenched incidentally to another list
(d) Doctrine of colourable Legislation IV. True nature and character of the legislation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (v) (ii) (iii)
B
(v) (iv) (i) (ii)
C
(i) (iii) (ii) (v)
D
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Question 124Single Answer
Who defined ownership as 'plenary control over an object' ?
A
Roscoe Pound
B
Holmes
C
Holland
D
Paton
Question 125Single Answer
Under which article of the constitution of India, it is the duty of the union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every state is carried on, in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India ?
A
Article 353
B
Article 354
C
Article 355
D
Article 356
Question 126Single Answer
Who said, "A legal person, is any subject matter other than a human being to which law attributes personality" ?
A
Salmond
B
Holmes
C
Jerome Frank
D
Pound
Question 127Single Answer
Who said that there are two elements of possession, (a) Corpus possessionis and (b) animus domini ?
A
Ihering
B
Paton
C
Savigny
D
Salmond
Question 128Single Answer
Which of the following is incorrect ?
A
An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be voidable
B
An agreement enforeable by law is a contract
C
Every promise and every set of promises forming the consideration for each other is an agreement
D
An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void
Question 129Single Answer
The National green Tribunal Act, 2010 came into force on
A
10th May, 2010
B
18th August, 2010
C
10th December, 2010
D
18th October, 2010
Question 130Single Answer
The Competition Act, 2002, provides for which of the following ?
I. Establishment of a commission to prevent practices having effect on competition
II. To promote and sustain competition in markets
III. To protect the interests of consumers
IV. To ensure freedom of trade carried on by the other participants in the markets
V. To establish NCLT and NCLAT to decide various matters
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
I, II, III, IV and V
B
II, III and IV
C
III, IV and V
D
I, II, III and IV
Question 131Single Answer
Arrange in chronological order the case laws pertaining to cruelty under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (year wise from beginning till the latest) .
I. Durga Prasanna Tripathy v/s Arundhati Tripathy
II. Bhagwat v/s Bhagwat
III. Parveen Mehtra v/s Inderjeet mehta
IV. Swapan Kumar Das v/s Maya Rani Dutta
V. Satendra Kumar Gupta v/s Kanchan Gupta and Others
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
II, III, I, IV, V
B
I, III, II, IV, V
C
III, IV, I, II, V
D
IV, III, II, I, V
Question 132Single Answer
National Commission for Backward Classes has been created through which Amendement to the constitution of India ?
A
100th Amendment
B
101st Amendment
C
102nd Amendment
D
103rd Amendment
Question 133Single Answer
Consider the following statements .
I. Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse is covered in Article 301
II. Restrictions on legislative powers of the union and states with regard to trade and commerce are covered in Article 302
III. Power of Parliament to impose restrictions on trade, commerce and intercourse is covered in Article 302
IV. Restrictions on trade, commerce and intercourse among states are covered in Article 304
V. Appointment of authority for carrying out the purposes of Article 301-304 is enshrined in Article 306
Choose the correct answer from the options given below .
A
I, II and III
B
II, III and IV
C
I, III and IV
D
II, IV and V
Question 134Single Answer
Every state and every local authority within the state is required to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to liguistic minority groups under .
A
Article 350
B
Article 350 A
C
Article 350 B
D
Article 351
Question 135Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I "All human beings are not loegal persons"
Statement II " State is a juristic person"
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
A
Both statements I and II are correct
B
Both statements I and II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Question 136Single Answer
Which of the following is false ?
A
A contract is frustrated where the actual and specific subject matter of the contract has ceased to exist
B
A contract will frustrate where circumstances arise which make the performance of the contract impossible in the manner contemplated
C
A contract which required personal performance by promisor is frustrated on the death of the promisor
D
Ceasing of subject matter of contract does not frustrate the contract
Question 137Single Answer
Which of the following is/are not administrative actions ?
A
Internment, Externment and Deportation
B
Functions of Selection Committee
C
Fact-finding Action
D
Forming Optinion on Objective Satisfaction
Question 138Single Answer
Given below are two statements .
Statement I : An appeal shall lie in the Supreme Court from any judgement, final order of sentence in a criminal proceedng of a high Court in the territory of India, if the High Court has on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person and sentenced him to death
Statement II : An appeal shall lie in the Supreme Court from any judgement final order or sentence in a criminal proceeding of a High Court in the territory of India, if the High Court has withdrawn from trial before itself any case from any court subordinate to its authority and has in such a trial convicted the accused person and sentenced him to death
In light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below .
A
Both statements I and II are correct
B
Both statements I and II are incorrect
C
Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
Question 139Single Answer
Pacta Terties Nec Noecent Nec Prosunt Means
A
Multilaeral treatties prevail over bilateral treaties
B
Treaties are no binding in case of situations of emergency
C
Only parties to an international treaty are bound by it
D
The right of innocent passage cannot be thwarted by bilateral treaties
Question 140Single Answer
Greenhouse effect means increase in atmospheric temperature due to the concentration of greenhouse
A
gases in the atmosphere
B
growing vegetables and flowers in increased temperature
C
growing food crops in glass houses
D
photosynthesis in plants grown in sunlight received in the glass house
Question 141Single Answer
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1915
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
The Government of India Act, 1935
Question 142Single Answer
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 143Single Answer
'Diarchy' was established in India by which of the following ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
None of the above
Question 144Single Answer
Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India ?
A
Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 145Single Answer
As a guardian of the government of India Act, 1935 a Court was constituted which was called.
A
Privy Council
B
Supreme Court
C
High Court
D
Federal Court
Question 146Single Answer
Under the Government of India Act 1935, the Federal court had -
A
Original jurisdiction only
B
Appellate jurisdiction only
C
Advisory jurisdiction only
D
Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
Question 147Single Answer
Under the Government of India's Act 1935, how many Governors and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India ?
A
14 and 7
B
11 and 7
C
15 and 9
D
None of the above
Question 148Single Answer
The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of :
A
Government of India Act, 1919
B
Government of India Act, 1935
C
The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D
None of the above
Question 149Single Answer
The plan of Lord Mountbatten was excepted by the congress and the muslim league. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence act, 1947 which got Royal assistant on -
A
3 June, 1947
B
4 July, 1947
C
15 July, 1947
D
18 July, 1947
Question 150Single Answer
Which one of the following relates to transfer of power to the Indians and partition of the country ?