To boost your performance in OAVS PGT Biology exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in OAVS PGT Biology exams.
Latest OAVS PGT Biology Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 4 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 5 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 6 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 7 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 8 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 9 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 10 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 11 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold
Q 12 :
Assets
A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits
Q 13 :
Affidavit
A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony
Q 14 :
Hollow
A.Alveolate
B.Cleft
C. Cavernous
D.Solid
Q 15 :
Cosset
A.Ignoreb
B.Close
C.Caress
D.Fondle
Q 16 :
Ogle
A.Leer
B.Gaze
C.Ignore
D.Gawk
Q 17 :
Intrinsic
A.Elemental
B.Innate
C.Connate
D.Acquired
Q 18 :
Coalesce
A.Separate
B.Adhere
C.Cleave
D.Amalgamate
Q 19 :
Loiter
A.lag
B.Hasten
C.Amble
D.Loii
Q 20 :
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
What is the name of the next phase of India’s semiconductor programme notified by the Government in August 2026?
A.Chip India 3.0
B.India Chip Mission
C.Semicon 2.0
D.Semiconductor Bharat
Q 42 :
Which country conferred its highest honour for foreign leaders, the ‘Oliy Darajali Do‘stlik Order’, on Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
A.Kazakhstan
B.Kyrgyzstan
C.Uzbekistan
D.Tajikistan
Q 43 :
Where was the 2026 SCO Leaders’ Summit held?
A.Tashkent
B.Bishkek
C.Dushanbe
D.Astana
Q 44 :
India and Uzbekistan recently upgraded their bilateral relationship to which level?
A.Strategic Partnership
B.Economic Partnership
C.Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
D.Defence Partnership
Q 45 :
Which two organisations signed an MoU to promote smart domestic PNG meters?
A.ONGC and IOCL
B.GAIL and NTPC
C.PNGRB and EESL
D.HPCL and BPCL
Q 46 :
The 2026 Asian Games are being hosted in which country?
A.China
B.South Korea
C.Japan
D.India
Q 47 :
The host region for the 2026 Asian Games is?
A.Aichi–Nagoya
B.Osaka–Kobe
C.Tokyo–Yokohama
D.Kyoto–Nara
Q 48 :
The 2026 Asian Games are which edition of the Asian Games?
A.18th
B.19th
C.21st
D.20th
Q 49 :
Which country hosted the 2026 Commonwealth Games?
A.Australia
B.Scotland
C.Canada
D.India
Q 50 :
The 2026 Commonwealth Games were held in which city?
A.Edinburgh
B.Glasgow
C.Aberdeen
D.Dundee
Important Questions Package
OAVS PGT Biology Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy OAVS PGT Biology Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in OAVS PGT Biology question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
OAVS PGT Biology Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer
₹101[₹500]
2.
OAVS PGT Biology Exam - English
Description : 2000 Question with Answer
₹141[₹500]
3.
OAVS PGT Biology Exam - English
Description : 3000 Question with Answer
₹171[₹500]
4.
OAVS PGT Biology Exam - English
Description : 4000 Question with Answer
₹201[₹500]
5.
OAVS PGT Biology Exam - English
Description : <span style="color:#800000"><span style="font-size:16px"><span style="font-family:georgia,serif"><strong>1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)</strong></span></span></span>
₹151[₹450]
6.
OAVS PGT Biology Exam Question Bank Book - English
Which Indian city was confirmed as host of the 2030 Commonwealth Games?
A.Mumbai
B.Ahmedabad
C.New Delhi
D.Bengaluru
Q 52 :
Which Indian judoka won a gold medal at the Glasgow Commonwealth Games 2026?
A.Vijay Yadav
B.Tulika Maan
C.Avtar Singh
D.Harsh Singh
Q 53 :
Which Indian female judoka won gold at the 2026 Commonwealth Games?
A.Garima Chaudhary
B.Sushila Likmabam
C.Asmita Dey
D.Tulika Maan
Q 54 :
Which Indian badminton doubles pair won the China Masters in September 2026?
A.Lakshya Sen–Kidambi Srikanth
B.Satwiksairaj Rankireddy–Chirag Shetty
C.Dhruv Kapila–Arjun Madathil
D.Krishna Prasad–Vishnuvardhan Goud
Q 55 :
Who won the 2026 US Open women's singles title?
A.Elena Rybakina
B.Aryna Sabalenka
C.Iga Świątek
D.Coco Gauff
Q 56 :
The 2026 FIFA World Cup is being jointly hosted by?
A.Spain, Portugal and Morocco
B.USA, Canada and Mexico
C.Brazil, Argentina and Uruguay
D.Germany, France and Italy
Q 57 :
How many teams are participating in the expanded FIFA World Cup 2026?
A.32
B.48
C.40
D.36
Q 58 :
Which country hosted the 2026 Winter Olympics along with the city of Milan?
A.Switzerland
B.Italy
C.France
D.Austria
Q 59 :
The 2026 Winter Olympics were known as?
A.Rome–Turin 2026
B.Turin–Cortina 2026
C.Venice–Milan 2026
D.Milano Cortina 2026
Q 60 :
The 2026 Winter Paralympics were held in?
A.France
B.Italy
C.Switzerland
D.Norway
Q 61 :
Which city hosted the 2026 Commonwealth Games?
A.Glasgow
B.Birmingham
C.Cardiff
D.Manchester
Q 62 :
Which Indian cricketer scored 117 in the first Test against Sri Lanka at Galle in 2026, according to the August current-affairs roundup?
A.Yashasvi Jaiswal
B.Shubman Gill
C.Devdutt Padikkal
D.Ruturaj Gaikwad
Q 63 :
India won the first Test against Sri Lanka at Galle in 2026 by?
A.105 runs
B.125 runs
C.165 runs
D.205 runs
Q 64 :
Which Indian wicketkeeper-batter scored 115 in the second Test against Sri Lanka mentioned in the August 2026 roundup?
A.Rishabh Pant
B.KL Rahul
C.Dhruv Jurel
D.Sanju Samson
Q 65 :
The Women's T20 Asia Cup 2026 commenced in which region?
A.Bangladesh
B.Sri Lanka
C.UAE
D.India
Q 66 :
Which body governs international cricket?
A.ICC
B.FIFA
C.FIH
D.BWF
Q 67 :
Which organization governs international badminton?
A.ITF
B.BWF
C.FIDE
D.FIH
Q 68 :
Which body governs international chess?
A.IOC
B.FIFA
C.FIDE
D.ATP
Q 69 :
The headquarters of the International Olympic Committee is in?
A.Geneva
B.Paris
C.Zurich
D.Lausanne
Q 70 :
Which country will host the 2028 Summer Olympics?
A.France
B.Japan
C.Australia
D.USA
Reasoning
Q 71 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 72 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 73 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 74 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 75 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 76 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 77 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 78 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 79 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 80 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 81 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 82 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 83 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 84 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 85 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 86 :
What is the next number in the series: 2, 4, 6, 8, ?
A.9
B.11
C.10
D.12
Q 87 :
What comes next in the series: A, B, C, D, ?
A.F
B.E
C.G
D.H
Q 88 :
What is the missing number in the series: 1, 4, 9, 16, ?
A.20
B.36
C.30
D.25
Q 89 :
What follows in the series: 3, 6, 9, 12, ?
A.13
B.15
C.14
D.16
Q 90 :
What is the next term in the series: J, F, M, A, ?
A.M
B.J
C.S
D.O
Q 91 :
What comes next: 5, 10, 15, 20, ?
A.25
B.30
C.35
D.40
Q 92 :
What is the missing letter: A, C, E, G, ?
A.H
B.J
C.I
D.K
Q 93 :
What follows: 1, 8, 27, 64, ?
A.81
B.100
C.125
D.144
Q 94 :
What is next in the series: 10, 20, 30, 40, ?
A.45
B.55
C.50
D.60
Q 95 :
What comes after: Z, Y, X, W, ?
A.S
B.U
C.T
D.V
Q 96 :
What is the next number: 4, 9, 16, 25, ?
A.36
B.32
C.49
D.64
Q 97 :
What follows in the series: 1, 3, 5, 7, ?
A.8
B.10
C.9
D.11
Q 98 :
What is the missing term: O, T, T, F, ?
A.S
B.F
C.E
D.N
Q 99 :
What comes next: 7, 14, 21, 28, ?
A.35
B.32
C.30
D.42
Q 100 :
What is the next letter: B, D, F, H, ?
A.I
B.L
C.K
D.J
Concerned Subject (Biology) & Methodology
Q 101 :
Who proposed the binomial system of nomenclature?
A.Aristotle
B.Carolus Linnaeus
C.R.H. Whittaker
D.Ernst Haeckel
Q 102 :
In binomial nomenclature, the first word represents which taxonomic category?
A.Species
B.Family
C.Order
D.Genus
Q 103 :
Which part of a scientific name begins with a capital letter?
A.Generic name
B.Specific epithet
C.Author citation
D.Family name only
Q 104 :
Which taxonomic category contains closely related genera?
A.Order
B.Family
C.Class
D.Species
Q 105 :
The basic unit of biological classification is which category?
A.Species
B.Family
C.Genus
D.Order
Q 106 :
A taxon refers to what?
A.Only a species
B.A taxonomic group of any rank
C.Only a genus
D.A preserved specimen
Q 107 :
Which sequence shows taxonomic categories in increasing order?
A.Species → Genus → Family → Order
B.Genus → Species → Order → Family
C.Family → Genus → Species → Order
D.Species → Family → Genus → Order
Q 108 :
Which taxonomic aid consists mainly of dried, pressed and mounted plant specimens?
A.Herbarium
B.Museum
C.Zoological park
D.Botanical garden
Q 109 :
A taxonomic key is primarily based on which feature?
A.Geographical distribution only
B.Contrasting characters
C.Economic importance
D.Fossil age
Q 110 :
Each pair of contrasting statements in a taxonomic key is known as what?
A.Couplet
B.Lead pair
C.Taxon
D.Flora
Q 111 :
Which taxonomic aid maintains living collections of plants?
A.Herbarium
B.Monograph
C.Museum
D.Botanical garden
Q 112 :
Preserved animal specimens are commonly maintained in which institution?
A.Herbarium
B.Botanical garden
C.Museum
D.Arboretum
Q 113 :
Zoological parks are especially useful for studying which aspect of animals?
A.DNA sequence only
B.Behaviour in protected living conditions
C.Fossil anatomy
D.Herbarium characters
Q 114 :
A flora provides information mainly about what?
A.Animals of a region
B.Fossil organisms
C.Plants of a particular area
D.Microbial metabolism
Q 115 :
A monograph is a detailed taxonomic account of what?
A.One ecosystem only
B.Every organism on Earth
C.A particular taxon
D.One physiological process
Q 116 :
Which scientist proposed the five-kingdom classification?
A.R.H. Whittaker
B.Linnaeus
C.Lamarck
D.Darwin
Q 117 :
In Whittaker's classification, which criterion was particularly important?
A.Colour alone
B.Number of chromosomes only
C.Mode of nutrition
D.Body size only
Q 118 :
Which kingdom includes prokaryotic organisms?
A.Protista
B.Plantae
C.Fungi
D.Monera
Q 119 :
Which kingdom predominantly contains unicellular eukaryotic organisms?
A.Monera
B.Animalia
C.Protista
D.Plantae
Q 120 :
Fungi obtain nutrition predominantly by which method?
A.Ingestion
B.Absorption
C.Photosynthesis
D.Chemosynthesis only
Q 121 :
Which cell structure is absent in members of Monera?
A.Ribosome
B.Plasma membrane
C.Membrane-bound nucleus
D.DNA
Q 122 :
Bacterial ribosomes are generally of which type?
A.80S
B.70S
C.60S
D.90S
Q 123 :
The bacterial cell wall is generally composed of what?
A.Cellulose
B.Peptidoglycan
C.Chitin
D.Pectin
Q 124 :
Which group of prokaryotes often inhabits extreme environments?
A.Eubacteria
B.Archaebacteria
C.Protozoans
D.Slime moulds
Q 125 :
Methanogens are commonly found in which environment?
A.Anaerobic marshes and rumen
B.Highly oxygenated mountain streams
C.Dry desert surfaces only
D.Leaf mesophyll
Q 126 :
Halophiles are adapted to which condition?
A.Low temperature only
B.High salinity
C.High oxygen concentration
D.Freshwater exclusively
Q 127 :
Thermoacidophiles commonly tolerate which conditions?
A.Low temperature and alkaline pH
B.High temperature and acidic pH
C.High salinity only
D.Neutral freshwater conditions
Q 128 :
Cyanobacteria are distinguished by their ability to perform what?
A.Ingestive nutrition
B.Methanogenesis
C.Phagocytosis only
D.Oxygenic photosynthesis
Q 129 :
Heterocysts in certain cyanobacteria are associated with which process?
A.Sexual reproduction
B.Spore dispersal
C.Nitrogen fixation
D.Protein digestion
Q 130 :
Which cyanobacterium possesses heterocysts?
A.Vibrio
B.Escherichia
C.Lactobacillus
D.Nostoc
Q 131 :
Mycoplasma is notable because it lacks which structure?
A.DNA
B.Ribosomes
C.Plasma membrane
D.Cell wall
Q 132 :
Which organisms are among the smallest self-replicating cellular forms?
A.Mycoplasmas
B.Diatoms
C.Amoebae
D.Yeasts
Q 133 :
Bacteria with a spherical shape are called what?
A.Bacilli
B.Spirilla
C.Cocci
D.Vibrios
Q 134 :
Rod-shaped bacteria are termed what?
A.Cocci
B.Bacilli
C.Spirilla
D.Diplococci
Q 135 :
Comma-shaped bacterial cells are called what?
A.Bacilli
B.Cocci
C.Vibrios
D.Spirochaetes
Q 136 :
Which mechanism directly produces genetic recombination between bacterial cells through contact?
A.Budding
B.Binary fission
C.Sporulation
D.Conjugation
Q 137 :
Protists differ from monerans chiefly in possessing what?
A.Eukaryotic cell organization
B.Ribosomes
C.DNA
D.Plasma membranes
Q 138 :
Diatoms are included under which group?
A.Chrysophytes
B.Euglenoids
C.Slime moulds
D.Ciliates
Q 139 :
The cell walls of diatoms contain large amounts of what?
A.Silica
B.Calcium carbonate
C.Chitin
D.Lignin
Q 140 :
Deposits of diatom cell walls form what material?
A.Peat
B.Humus
C.Diatomaceous earth
D.Coal tar
Q 141 :
Dinoflagellates usually possess how many flagella?
A.One
B.Eight
C.Four
D.Two
Q 142 :
Red tides are frequently associated with rapid multiplication of which organisms?
A.Liverworts
B.Mosses
C.Dinoflagellates
D.Ferns
Q 143 :
Gonyaulax is classified as which organism?
A.Cyanobacterium
B.Dinoflagellate
C.Moss
D.Basidiomycete
Q 144 :
Euglenoids possess which covering instead of a typical cell wall?
A.Pellicle
B.Capsule
C.Cuticle
D.Frustule
Q 145 :
Euglena shows which type of nutrition under different environmental conditions?
A.Exclusively saprophytic
B.Mixotrophic
C.Exclusively holozoic
D.Parasitic only
Q 146 :
Slime moulds under favourable conditions form which feeding structure?
A.Plasmodium
B.Protonema
C.Prothallus
D.Mycelium with septa
Q 147 :
Amoeboid protozoans move primarily through what structures?
A.Pseudopodia
B.Cilia
C.Flagella only
D.Tentacles
Q 148 :
Entamoeba belongs to which protozoan group?
A.Amoeboid protozoans
B.Ciliated protozoans
C.Flagellated algae
D.Sporozoan fungi
Q 149 :
Trypanosoma moves mainly by means of what?
A.Cilia
B.Setae
C.Pseudopodia
D.Flagellum
Q 150 :
Paramecium belongs to which protistan group?
A.Ciliates
B.Sporozoans
C.Slime moulds
D.Dinoflagellates
Q 151 :
Plasmodium is placed among which protozoans?
A.Ciliates
B.Amoeboids
C.Sporozoans
D.Flagellates
Q 152 :
Fungal cell walls are chiefly composed of which substance?
A.Peptidoglycan
B.Suberin
C.Lignin
D.Chitin
Q 153 :
The vegetative body of most fungi is known as what?
A.Sporophyte
B.Protonema
C.Prothallus
D.Thallus formed of hyphae
Q 154 :
A mass of fungal hyphae is called what?
A.Mycelium
B.Rhizome
C.Stroma only
D.Protonema
Q 155 :
Coenocytic hyphae are characterized by what?
A.Absence of septa with multinucleate cytoplasm
B.Numerous septa and one nucleus per cell
C.Complete absence of nuclei
D.Presence of chloroplasts
Q 156 :
Rhizopus belongs to which fungal class traditionally recognized in basic classification?
A.Deuteromycetes
B.Ascomycetes
C.Basidiomycetes
D.Phycomycetes
Q 157 :
Sexual spores produced by many ascomycetes are called what?
A.Ascospores
B.Basidiospores
C.Zoospores
D.Conidia only
Q 158 :
Ascospores are produced within which structure?
A.Basidium
B.Oogonium
C.Sporangium
D.Ascus
Q 159 :
Which fungus is commonly called baker's yeast?
A.Agaricus campestris
B.Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C.Puccinia graminis
D.Rhizopus stolonifer
Q 160 :
Morels and truffles belong to which fungal group?
A.Basidiomycetes
B.Ascomycetes
C.Phycomycetes
D.Myxomycetes
Q 161 :
Agaricus belongs to which fungal group?
A.Ascomycetes
B.Oomycetes
C.Deuteromycetes
D.Basidiomycetes
Q 162 :
Basidiospores are normally formed on which structure?
A.Ascus
B.Basidium
C.Sporangium
D.Archegonium
Q 163 :
Puccinia is responsible for which disease?
A.Wheat rust
B.Late blight of potato
C.Red rot of sugarcane
D.Citrus canker
Q 164 :
Ustilago species commonly cause which disease type?
A.Wilt disease only
B.Mosaic disease
C.Smut disease
D.Crown gall
Q 165 :
Deuteromycetes were traditionally called what?
A.Sac fungi
B.Club fungi
C.Imperfect fungi
D.Water moulds
Q 166 :
Deuteromycetes were grouped together primarily because which stage was unknown?
A.Vegetative stage
B.Sexual stage
C.Feeding stage
D.Germination stage
Q 167 :
Lichens represent a symbiotic association between fungi and what?
A.Mosses
B.Ferns
C.Algae or cyanobacteria
D.Protozoans
Q 168 :
In a lichen, the fungal partner is called what?
A.Mycobiont
B.Phycobiont
C.Sporobiont
D.Rhizobiont
Q 169 :
In a lichen, the photosynthetic partner is called what?
A.Mycobiont
B.Gametobiont
C.Saprobiont
D.Phycobiont
Q 170 :
Lichens are widely used as indicators of which environmental condition?
A.Soil nitrogen only
B.Ocean salinity
C.Water hardness
D.Air pollution
Q 171 :
The term curriculum most broadly refers to what?
A.Only prescribed textbooks
B.Only extracurricular activities
C.Only examination syllabus
D.Total planned learning experiences provided by an educational institution
Q 172 :
Which statement best distinguishes curriculum from syllabus?
A.Syllabus lists content, while curriculum includes broader learning experiences
B.Curriculum is narrower than syllabus
C.Both terms always mean exactly the same thing
D.Syllabus includes all school activities but curriculum does not
Q 173 :
The curriculum of Biology should primarily help learners develop what?
A.Only factual recall
B.Only examination-writing speed
C.Only laboratory drawing ability
D.Scientific knowledge, skills, attitudes and values
Q 174 :
Which is the most important characteristic of a learner-centered curriculum?
A.It ignores individual differences
B.It gives no role to activities
C.It focuses only on textbook completion
D.It considers learners' needs, interests and abilities
Q 175 :
A curriculum based primarily on subject matter is called what?
A.Core curriculum
B.Experience-centered curriculum
C.Activity-centered curriculum
D.Subject-centered curriculum
Q 176 :
Which curriculum organization places the learner's experiences at the center?
A.Subject-centered
B.Discipline-centered only
C.Experience-centered
D.Examination-centered
Q 177 :
An activity-centered curriculum emphasizes what?
A.Memorization of facts
B.Learning through purposeful activities
C.Only lectures
D.Only written examinations
Q 178 :
The core curriculum generally consists of what?
A.Only vocational subjects
B.Only optional subjects
C.Learning considered essential for all learners
D.Only extracurricular activities
Q 179 :
Which principle of curriculum construction emphasizes usefulness in real life?
A.Principle of utility
B.Principle of isolation
C.Principle of rigidity
D.Principle of uniformity
Q 180 :
A curriculum should be flexible mainly because what?
A.Every learner is identical
B.Textbooks never change
C.Knowledge and learner needs change over time
D.Evaluation should be avoided
Q 181 :
The principle of child-centeredness requires the curriculum to be based on what?
A.Teacher convenience
B.Examination questions only
C.Learners' developmental needs and interests
D.Administrative convenience only
Q 182 :
Which curriculum principle ensures balanced development of cognitive, affective and psychomotor domains?
A.Principle of competition
B.Principle of specialization only
C.Principle of textbook dominance
D.Principle of totality
Q 183 :
Which principle stresses connection among different school subjects?
A.Repetition
B.Fragmentation
C.Correlation
D.Isolation
Q 184 :
In Biology teaching, relating photosynthesis to Chemistry and Physics demonstrates which curriculum principle?
A.Segregation
B.Rigidity
C.Correlation
D.Uniformity
Q 185 :
A curriculum should reflect social needs primarily because education serves what?
A.Only individual examination success
B.Individual and societal development
C.Only employment preparation
D.Only textbook knowledge
Q 186 :
Which principle ensures that curriculum content corresponds to learners' maturity level?
A.Principle of developmental appropriateness
B.Principle of maximum difficulty
C.Principle of standardization only
D.Principle of isolation
Q 187 :
A Biology curriculum that progresses from familiar organisms to unfamiliar organisms follows which principle?
A.Difficult to easy
B.Abstract to concrete
C.Known to unknown
D.Whole to unrelated parts
Q 188 :
Teaching the structure of a flower using a real flower before a diagram follows which principle?
A.Complex to simple only
B.Abstract to concrete
C.Unknown to known
D.Concrete to abstract
Q 189 :
Which curricular principle is illustrated by arranging concepts from simple cell structure to complex organ systems?
A.Simple to complex
B.Unknown to known
C.Abstract to concrete only
D.Whole to whole
Q 190 :
A curriculum should provide opportunities for individual differences mainly through what?
A.Uniform tasks for all learners only
B.Only lectures
C.No assessment
D.Varied learning experiences and flexibility
Q 191 :
Which of the following is an important aim of a Biology curriculum?
A.Memorization without understanding
B.Development of scientific temper
C.Avoidance of experimentation
D.Elimination of questioning
Q 192 :
Scientific temper in Biology teaching includes what?
A.Acceptance of claims without evidence
B.Memorizing definitions only
C.Inquiry, objectivity and evidence-based reasoning
D.Avoiding experimentation
Q 193 :
Which curriculum type is organized around separate academic subjects?
A.Activity curriculum
B.Core curriculum
C.Integrated curriculum
D.Subject curriculum
Q 194 :
A discipline-centered curriculum differs from a subject-centered curriculum because it emphasizes what?
A.Only student interests
B.Only textbook chapters
C.Structure and methods of inquiry of the discipline
D.Only extracurricular activities
Q 195 :
An integrated curriculum is designed mainly to do what?
A.Connect concepts across subject boundaries
B.Separate subjects completely
C.Eliminate all disciplinary knowledge
D.Focus only on examinations
Q 196 :
Combining Ecology, Geography and Environmental Science around the theme of ecosystems is an example of what?
A.Subject-isolated curriculum
B.Integrated curriculum
C.Hidden curriculum
D.Null curriculum
Q 197 :
Which curriculum is organized around significant social problems or broad themes?
A.Core curriculum
B.Separate-subject curriculum only
C.Null curriculum
D.Hidden curriculum
Q 198 :
Which curriculum places emphasis on real-life experiences rather than only content?
A.Textbook-centered curriculum
B.Subject-centered curriculum
C.Examination-centered curriculum
D.Experience-centered curriculum
Q 199 :
The hidden curriculum refers to what?
A.Official syllabus
B.Deleted topics only
C.Unintended values and behaviors learned through school culture
