To boost your performance in OAVS PGT Physics exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in OAVS PGT Physics exams.
Latest OAVS PGT Physics Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 4 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 5 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 6 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 7 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 8 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 9 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 10 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 11 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold
Q 12 :
Assets
A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits
Q 13 :
Affidavit
A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony
Q 14 :
Hollow
A.Alveolate
B.Cleft
C. Cavernous
D.Solid
Q 15 :
Cosset
A.Ignoreb
B.Close
C.Caress
D.Fondle
Q 16 :
Ogle
A.Leer
B.Gaze
C.Ignore
D.Gawk
Q 17 :
Intrinsic
A.Elemental
B.Innate
C.Connate
D.Acquired
Q 18 :
Coalesce
A.Separate
B.Adhere
C.Cleave
D.Amalgamate
Q 19 :
Loiter
A.lag
B.Hasten
C.Amble
D.Loii
Q 20 :
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
What is the name of the next phase of India’s semiconductor programme notified by the Government in August 2026?
A.Chip India 3.0
B.India Chip Mission
C.Semicon 2.0
D.Semiconductor Bharat
Q 42 :
Which country conferred its highest honour for foreign leaders, the ‘Oliy Darajali Do‘stlik Order’, on Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
A.Kazakhstan
B.Kyrgyzstan
C.Uzbekistan
D.Tajikistan
Q 43 :
Where was the 2026 SCO Leaders’ Summit held?
A.Tashkent
B.Bishkek
C.Dushanbe
D.Astana
Q 44 :
India and Uzbekistan recently upgraded their bilateral relationship to which level?
A.Strategic Partnership
B.Economic Partnership
C.Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
D.Defence Partnership
Q 45 :
Which two organisations signed an MoU to promote smart domestic PNG meters?
A.ONGC and IOCL
B.GAIL and NTPC
C.PNGRB and EESL
D.HPCL and BPCL
Q 46 :
The 2026 Asian Games are being hosted in which country?
A.China
B.South Korea
C.Japan
D.India
Q 47 :
The host region for the 2026 Asian Games is?
A.Aichi–Nagoya
B.Osaka–Kobe
C.Tokyo–Yokohama
D.Kyoto–Nara
Q 48 :
The 2026 Asian Games are which edition of the Asian Games?
A.18th
B.19th
C.21st
D.20th
Q 49 :
Which country hosted the 2026 Commonwealth Games?
A.Australia
B.Scotland
C.Canada
D.India
Q 50 :
The 2026 Commonwealth Games were held in which city?
A.Edinburgh
B.Glasgow
C.Aberdeen
D.Dundee
Important Questions Package
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6.
OAVS PGT Physics Exam Question Bank Book - English
Which Indian city was confirmed as host of the 2030 Commonwealth Games?
A.Mumbai
B.Ahmedabad
C.New Delhi
D.Bengaluru
Q 52 :
Which Indian judoka won a gold medal at the Glasgow Commonwealth Games 2026?
A.Vijay Yadav
B.Tulika Maan
C.Avtar Singh
D.Harsh Singh
Q 53 :
Which Indian female judoka won gold at the 2026 Commonwealth Games?
A.Garima Chaudhary
B.Sushila Likmabam
C.Asmita Dey
D.Tulika Maan
Q 54 :
Which Indian badminton doubles pair won the China Masters in September 2026?
A.Lakshya Sen–Kidambi Srikanth
B.Satwiksairaj Rankireddy–Chirag Shetty
C.Dhruv Kapila–Arjun Madathil
D.Krishna Prasad–Vishnuvardhan Goud
Q 55 :
Who won the 2026 US Open women's singles title?
A.Elena Rybakina
B.Aryna Sabalenka
C.Iga Świątek
D.Coco Gauff
Q 56 :
The 2026 FIFA World Cup is being jointly hosted by?
A.Spain, Portugal and Morocco
B.USA, Canada and Mexico
C.Brazil, Argentina and Uruguay
D.Germany, France and Italy
Q 57 :
How many teams are participating in the expanded FIFA World Cup 2026?
A.32
B.48
C.40
D.36
Q 58 :
Which country hosted the 2026 Winter Olympics along with the city of Milan?
A.Switzerland
B.Italy
C.France
D.Austria
Q 59 :
The 2026 Winter Olympics were known as?
A.Rome–Turin 2026
B.Turin–Cortina 2026
C.Venice–Milan 2026
D.Milano Cortina 2026
Q 60 :
The 2026 Winter Paralympics were held in?
A.France
B.Italy
C.Switzerland
D.Norway
Q 61 :
Which city hosted the 2026 Commonwealth Games?
A.Glasgow
B.Birmingham
C.Cardiff
D.Manchester
Q 62 :
Which Indian cricketer scored 117 in the first Test against Sri Lanka at Galle in 2026, according to the August current-affairs roundup?
A.Yashasvi Jaiswal
B.Shubman Gill
C.Devdutt Padikkal
D.Ruturaj Gaikwad
Q 63 :
India won the first Test against Sri Lanka at Galle in 2026 by?
A.105 runs
B.125 runs
C.165 runs
D.205 runs
Q 64 :
Which Indian wicketkeeper-batter scored 115 in the second Test against Sri Lanka mentioned in the August 2026 roundup?
A.Rishabh Pant
B.KL Rahul
C.Dhruv Jurel
D.Sanju Samson
Q 65 :
The Women's T20 Asia Cup 2026 commenced in which region?
A.Bangladesh
B.Sri Lanka
C.UAE
D.India
Q 66 :
Which body governs international cricket?
A.ICC
B.FIFA
C.FIH
D.BWF
Q 67 :
Which organization governs international badminton?
A.ITF
B.BWF
C.FIDE
D.FIH
Q 68 :
Which body governs international chess?
A.IOC
B.FIFA
C.FIDE
D.ATP
Q 69 :
The headquarters of the International Olympic Committee is in?
A.Geneva
B.Paris
C.Zurich
D.Lausanne
Q 70 :
Which country will host the 2028 Summer Olympics?
A.France
B.Japan
C.Australia
D.USA
Reasoning
Q 71 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 72 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 73 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 74 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 75 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 76 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 77 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 78 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 79 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 80 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 81 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 82 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 83 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 84 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 85 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Concerned Subject (Physics) & Methodology
Q 86 :
The SI unit of length is:
A.Centimetre
B.Foot
C.Kilometre
D.Metre
Q 87 :
The SI unit of mass is:
A.Gram
B.Milligram
C.Tonne
D.Kilogram
Q 88 :
The SI unit of time is:
A.Minute
B.Second
C.Hour
D.Day
Q 89 :
Which of the following is an SI base quantity?
A.Force
B.Pressure
C.Energy
D.Electric current
Q 90 :
Which is a derived physical quantity?
A.Mass
B.Time
C.Velocity
D.Length
Q 91 :
The SI unit of force is:
A.Newton
B.Joule
C.Pascal
D.Watt
Q 92 :
One newton is equal to:
A.kg m s⁻²
B.kg m s⁻¹
C.kg m² s⁻²
D.kg m² s⁻¹
Q 93 :
The SI unit of energy is:
A.Newton
B.Joule
C.Watt
D.Pascal
Q 94 :
One joule equals:
A.N m²
B.N/m
C.N m
D.N/s
Q 95 :
The SI unit of power is:
A.Joule
B.Pascal
C.Newton
D.Watt
Q 96 :
The SI unit of pressure is:
A.Dyne
B.Newton
C.Joule
D.Pascal
Q 97 :
Which is not an SI base unit?
A.Metre
B.Newton
C.Second
D.Kilogram
Q 98 :
The SI unit of thermodynamic temperature is:
A.Degree Celsius
B.Kelvin
C.Fahrenheit
D.Calorie
Q 99 :
The SI unit of luminous intensity is:
A.Lumen
B.Candela
C.Lux
D.Weber
Q 100 :
The SI unit of amount of substance is:
A.Kilogram
B.Gram
C.Mole
D.Atom
Q 101 :
The dimensional formula of velocity is:
A.[MLT⁻¹]
B.[LT⁻²]
C.[LT⁻¹]
D.[MLT⁻²]
Q 102 :
The dimensional formula of acceleration is:
A.[LT]
B.[LT⁻²]
C.[LT⁻¹]
D.[L²T⁻²]
Q 103 :
The dimensional formula of force is:
A.[MLT⁻¹]
B.[MLT⁻²]
C.[ML²T⁻²]
D.[ML⁻¹T⁻²]
Q 104 :
The dimensional formula of work is:
A.[ML²T⁻¹]
B.[MLT⁻²]
C.[ML²T⁻²]
D.[M⁰LT⁻²]
Q 105 :
The dimensional formula of power is:
A.[ML²T⁻¹]
B.[ML²T⁻²]
C.[ML²T⁻³]
D.[MLT⁻³]
Q 106 :
Momentum has dimensions:
A.[ML²T⁻¹]
B.[MLT⁻²]
C.[MLT⁻¹]
D.[ML²T⁻²]
Q 107 :
Pressure has dimensions:
A.[M⁰LT⁻²]
B.[MLT⁻²]
C.[ML²T⁻²]
D.[ML⁻¹T⁻²]
Q 108 :
Density has dimensions:
A.[ML⁻¹]
B.[ML⁻²]
C.[M⁻¹L³]
D.[ML⁻³]
Q 109 :
Which quantity is dimensionless?
A.Velocity
B.Momentum
C.Strain
D.Pressure
Q 110 :
Which is dimensionless?
A.Force
B.Surface tension
C.Viscosity
D.Refractive index
Q 111 :
Plane angle is measured in:
A.Steradian
B.Metre
C.Degree only
D.Radian
Q 112 :
Solid angle is measured in:
A.Steradian
B.Radian
C.Degree
D.Candela
Q 113 :
The dimensional formula of frequency is:
A.[T⁻¹]
B.[T]
C.[LT⁻¹]
D.[L⁻¹T]
Q 114 :
The dimensional formula of angular velocity is:
A.[LT⁻²]
B.[LT⁻¹]
C.[T⁻¹]
D.Dimensionless
Q 115 :
The dimensional formula of impulse is the same as that of:
A.Momentum
B.Energy
C.Force
D.Power
Q 116 :
Which pair has the same dimensions?
A.Energy and power
B.Pressure and force
C.Work and torque
D.Velocity and acceleration
Q 117 :
Which pair does not have identical dimensions?
A.Impulse and momentum
B.Force and power
C.Pressure and stress
D.Work and torque
Q 118 :
The least count of an instrument is:
A.Smallest measurable value
B.Largest measurable value
C.Average reading
D.Zero error
Q 119 :
Accuracy of measurement refers to closeness to:
A.True value
B.Other readings
C.Zero
D.Least count
Q 120 :
Precision refers primarily to:
A.Closeness to zero
B.Closeness of repeated measurements to each other
C.Magnitude of the quantity
D.Choice of units
Q 121 :
An error having a definite pattern is called:
A.Random error
B.Systematic error
C.Gross error
D.Statistical error
Q 122 :
Errors caused by unpredictable fluctuations are:
A.Systematic errors
B.Random errors
C.Instrumental constants
D.Zero corrections
Q 123 :
Parallax error can be minimized by:
A.Viewing the scale obliquely
B.Increasing temperature
C.Keeping eye perpendicular to scale
D.Changing units
Q 124 :
Zero error is generally classified as:
A.Personal error only
B.Random error
C.Systematic error
D.Statistical fluctuation
Q 125 :
Mean absolute error is obtained by taking:
A.Algebraic mean of errors
B.Mean of magnitudes of absolute errors
C.Maximum error only
D.Minimum error only
Q 126 :
Relative error equals:
A.Absolute error/measured value
B.Absolute error × measured value
C.Measured value/absolute error
D.Absolute error²
Q 127 :
Percentage error equals:
A.Absolute error × 100
B.Relative error × 100
C.Relative error/100
D.Absolute error/100
Q 128 :
If z = x + y, maximum absolute error in z is:
A.Δx − Δy
B.Δx + Δy
C.ΔxΔy
D.Δx/Δy
Q 129 :
If z = xy, fractional error in z is approximately:
A.Δx/x − Δy/y
B.Δx + Δy
C.Δx/x + Δy/y
D.ΔxΔy/xy only
Q 130 :
If z = xⁿ, the fractional error in z is:
A.Δx/x
B.Δx/nx
C.nΔx/x
D.n²Δx/x
Q 131 :
Number of significant figures in 2.300 is:
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 132 :
Number of significant figures in 0.00450 is:
A.2
B.5
C.4
D.3
Q 133 :
Number of significant figures in 6.02 × 10²³ is:
A.2
B.23
C.3
D.26
Q 134 :
Leading zeros in a decimal number are:
A.Always significant
B.Counted twice
C.Significant only in SI
D.Never significant
Q 135 :
Zeros between non-zero digits are:
A.Significant
B.Not significant
C.Ignored in SI
D.Significant only after decimals
Q 136 :
In addition and subtraction, the result should retain the number of:
A.Significant figures of most precise value
B.Decimal places of least precise value
C.Maximum decimal places
D.Maximum significant figures
Q 137 :
In multiplication, the result should have as many significant figures as the quantity with:
A.Least significant figures
B.Most significant figures
C.Greatest numerical value
D.Smallest unit
Q 138 :
One micrometre equals:
A.10⁻⁶ m
B.10⁻³ m
C.10⁻⁹ m
D.10⁻¹² m
Q 139 :
One nanometre equals:
A.10⁻⁶ m
B.10⁻⁷ m
C.10⁻⁹ m
D.10⁻¹⁰ m
Q 140 :
One angstrom equals:
A.10⁻⁸ m
B.10⁻¹² m
C.10⁻¹⁰ m
D.10⁻¹⁵ m
Q 141 :
One femtometre equals:
A.10⁻¹² m
B.10⁻¹⁵ m
C.10⁻¹⁸ m
D.10⁻⁹ m
Q 142 :
A light-year is a unit of:
A.Time
B.Energy
C.Speed
D.Distance
Q 143 :
Parsec is a unit of:
A.Mass
B.Angle
C.Time
D.Distance
Q 144 :
Atomic mass unit is used primarily to measure:
A.Atomic mass
B.Length
C.Time
D.Temperature
Q 145 :
Dimensional analysis cannot determine:
A.Dimensional correctness
B.Numerical dimensionless constant
C.Relation between quantities
D.Dimensions of constants
Q 146 :
A physically meaningful equation must be:
A.Linear
B.Numerically positive
C.Dimensionally homogeneous
D.Quadratic
Q 147 :
The dimensions of gravitational acceleration g are:
A.[LT⁻¹]
B.[LT⁻²]
C.[L²T⁻²]
D.[MLT⁻²]
Q 148 :
The dimensions of gravitational constant G are:
A.[M⁻¹L³T⁻²]
B.[ML³T⁻²]
C.[M⁻¹L²T⁻¹]
D.[ML⁻²T⁻²]
Q 149 :
The dimensions of Planck's constant are:
A.[ML²T⁻¹]
B.[MLT⁻¹]
C.[ML²T⁻²]
D.[MLT⁻²]
Q 150 :
The dimensions of surface tension are:
A.[MLT⁻²]
B.[MT⁻²]
C.[ML⁻¹T⁻²]
D.[ML²T⁻²]
Q 151 :
Coefficient of friction is:
A.Dimensional
B.Measured in newton
C.Dimensionless
D.Measured in joule
Q 152 :
Young's modulus has dimensions of:
A.Force
B.Energy
C.Pressure
D.Momentum
Q 153 :
The dimensions of spring constant are:
A.[M⁻¹T²]
B.[MLT⁻²]
C.[ML²T⁻²]
D.[MT⁻²]
Q 154 :
The dimensions of angular momentum are:
A.[MLT⁻¹]
B.[MLT⁻²]
C.[ML²T⁻²]
D.[ML²T⁻¹]
Q 155 :
Which instrument is commonly used to measure small diameters accurately?
A.Metre scale
B.Spring balance
C.Screw gauge
D.Stopwatch
Q 156 :
The term “curriculum” primarily refers to:
A.Only prescribed textbooks
B.Only examination content
C.All planned learning experiences provided by a school
D.Only co-curricular activities
Q 157 :
Curriculum is broader than a syllabus because curriculum includes:
A.Only subject matter
B.Only examination questions
C.Only homework
D.Learning experiences, objectives, content and evaluation
Q 158 :
A syllabus mainly indicates:
A.Total school experiences
B.Prescribed subject content to be taught
C.School infrastructure
D.Teacher qualifications
Q 159 :
Which is an essential component of curriculum?
A.Objectives
B.Learning experiences
C.All of these
D.Evaluation
Q 160 :
A learner-centred curriculum gives maximum importance to:
A.Administrative convenience
B.Textbook sequence only
C.Needs and interests of learners
D.Teacher authority
Q 161 :
A subject-centred curriculum is organized mainly around:
A.Learner problems
B.Academic disciplines
C.Community activities
D.Individual projects only
Q 162 :
The principle of flexibility in curriculum means that it should:
A.Never be changed
B.Ignore local needs
C.Adapt to changing needs and situations
D.Be identical for every learner
Q 163 :
The principle of utility requires curriculum content to be:
A.Useful to learners and society
B.Unrelated to life
C.Entirely theoretical
D.Difficult to understand
Q 164 :
The principle of correlation in curriculum refers to:
A.Separating subjects completely
B.Avoiding applications
C.Establishing relationships among subjects and experiences
D.Teaching one chapter repeatedly
Q 165 :
The curriculum principle that considers individual differences is:
A.Uniformity
B.Learner diversity
C.Rigidity
D.Isolation
Q 166 :
A balanced curriculum should provide for:
A.Cognitive development only
B.Holistic development
C.Physical development only
D.Examination practice only
Q 167 :
Which principle emphasizes continuity of learning experiences across classes?
A.Continuity
B.Isolation
C.Fragmentation
D.Elimination
Q 168 :
“Sequence” in curriculum organization means arranging learning experiences:
A.From simple to complex in a logical order
B.Randomly
C.Only alphabetically
D.According to textbook price
Q 169 :
The principle of integration seeks to:
A.Increase fragmentation
B.Eliminate practical work
C.Relate different areas of learning
D.Separate school from life
Q 170 :
Curriculum should be socially relevant because education must:
A.Ignore society
B.Prepare learners for responsible participation in society
C.Focus only on marks
D.Avoid contemporary issues
Q 171 :
Which curriculum places problems and activities at the centre?
A.Activity-centred curriculum
B.Subject-centred curriculum
C.Examination-centred curriculum
D.Textbook-centred curriculum
Q 172 :
Experience-centred curriculum emphasizes:
A.Memorization
B.Written examinations only
C.Lectures only
D.Direct experiences of learners
Q 173 :
Core curriculum refers to:
A.Optional content only
B.Extracurricular activities only
C.Content for gifted students only
D.Common essential learning provided to all learners
Q 174 :
A spiral curriculum revisits concepts:
A.Only once
B.Repeatedly at increasing levels of complexity
C.Without any sequence
D.Only before examinations
Q 175 :
The spiral curriculum concept is strongly associated with:
A.Jerome Bruner
B.Thorndike
C.Pavlov
D.Skinner
Q 176 :
An integrated curriculum is designed to:
A.Remove relationships between subjects
B.Teach only one subject
C.Connect concepts across different disciplines
D.Avoid projects
Q 177 :
The hidden curriculum consists mainly of:
A.Prescribed chapters
B.Examination blueprints
C.Laboratory manuals
D.Unintended values and behaviours learned through school culture
Q 178 :
The formal curriculum is:
A.Unintended learning
B.Officially prescribed curriculum
C.Peer influence only
D.Home experience only
Q 179 :
The null curriculum refers to:
A.Laboratory activities
B.All compulsory subjects
C.Material deliberately or implicitly not taught
D.School assembly
Q 180 :
An interdisciplinary curriculum involves:
A.Teaching disciplines without links
B.Connecting concepts from two or more disciplines
C.Eliminating subject knowledge
D.Teaching only vocational subjects
Q 181 :
In Physics, connecting electric power with household electricity bills is an example of:
A.Rote learning
B.Isolated learning
C.Life-oriented curriculum
D.Null curriculum
Q 182 :
A curriculum based primarily on learners’ needs is called:
A.Learner-centred curriculum
B.Teacher-centred curriculum
C.Content-centred curriculum
D.Examination-centred curriculum
Q 183 :
The activity-centred approach in Physics particularly encourages:
A.Passive listening
B.Experimentation and investigation
C.Memorization only
D.Note copying
Q 184 :
Curriculum construction should begin with identification of:
A.Examination dates only
B.Learning objectives and needs
C.Textbook price
D.School uniform
Q 185 :
Which factor should influence Physics curriculum development?
