To boost your performance in OAVS Principal exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in OAVS Principal exams.
Latest OAVS Principal Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Language Proficiency Test, General Awareness & Computer Literacy, Academic, Administration & Finance
Question Bank OAVS Principal Exam - English
Language Proficiency Test
Q 1 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 2 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 3 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 4 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 5 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 6 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 7 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 8 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 9 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A. presented , stay
B.introduced , keep
C.announce , make
D.created , let
E.proclaimed , hold
Q 10 :
Assets
A.liabilities
B.responsibilities
C.estates
D.profits
Q 11 :
Affidavit
A. Affirmation
B.Slander
C.Oath
D.Testimony
Q 12 :
Hollow
A.Alveolate
B.Cleft
C. Cavernous
D.Solid
Q 13 :
Cosset
A.Ignoreb
B.Close
C.Caress
D.Fondle
Q 14 :
Ogle
A.Leer
B.Gaze
C.Ignore
D.Gawk
Q 15 :
Intrinsic
A.Elemental
B.Innate
C.Connate
D.Acquired
Q 16 :
Coalesce
A.Separate
B.Adhere
C.Cleave
D.Amalgamate
Q 17 :
Loiter
A.lag
B.Hasten
C.Amble
D.Loii
Q 18 :
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A.Window
B.Pop-up menu
C.Message box
D.Taskbar
Q 42 :
What is active desktop ?
A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C.both a and b above mentioned
D.A software
E.None of these
Q 43 :
What is meant by an active window?
A.A window that is minimized
B.The window currently receiving user input
C.Any window currently open
D.The window opened first
Q 44 :
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A.An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B.A computer operating system
C.A spreadsheet application
D.A database management system
Q 45 :
An application is
A.word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B.computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C.Both a and b above mentioned
D.a document
E.None of these
Q 46 :
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A.Window program
B.Spreadsheet program
C.Graphics program
D.Word program
E.None of these
Q 47 :
The term Briefcase is used for
A.a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B.a window that us currently open
C.A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 48 :
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A.Executing a command or initiating an action
B.Permanently storing data
C.Displaying the computer's IP address
D.Formatting a disk automatically
Q 49 :
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A.a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B.a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C.an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 50 :
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A.The associated option is enabled or selected
B.The application has closed
C.The file has been deleted
D.The computer is offline
Important Questions Package
OAVS Principal Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy OAVS Principal Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in OAVS Principal question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
OAVS Principal Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer
₹101[₹500]
2.
OAVS Principal Exam - English
Description : 2000 Question with Answer
₹151[₹500]
3.
OAVS Principal Exam - English
Description : 3000 Question with Answer
₹181[₹500]
4.
OAVS Principal Exam - English
Description : 4000 Question with Answer
₹201[₹500]
5.
OAVS Principal Exam - English
Description : <span style="color:#800000"><span style="font-size:16px"><span style="font-family:georgia,serif"><strong>1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)</strong></span></span></span>
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 53 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 54 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 55 :
Who is the Cabinet Minister for public enterprises ?
A.Dr. Damodar Rout
B.Debi Prasad Mishra
C.Jogendra Behera
D.Pradip Kumar Amat
Q 56 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 57 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 58 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 59 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 60 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 61 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 62 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 63 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 64 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 65 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 66 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 67 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 68 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 69 :
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A.318
B.198
C.213
D.206
Q 70 :
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A.558
B.718
C.628
D.None of these
Q 71 :
It is said that Ashoka attacked Kalinga to get a Beautiful Girl of Fisherman Caste. Name the Girl
A.Lalita
B.Chandrika
C.Karubaki
D.Rupambika
Q 72 :
In a centrally planned economy, what is the primary mechanism for resource allocation?
A.Market prices
B.Government directives
C.Consumer preferences
D.Private enterprise
Q 73 :
What is the next number in the series: 2, 4, 6, 8, ?
A.9
B.11
C.10
D.12
Q 74 :
What comes next in the series: A, B, C, D, ?
A.F
B.E
C.G
D.H
Q 75 :
What is the missing number in the series: 1, 4, 9, 16, ?
A.20
B.36
C.30
D.25
Q 76 :
What follows in the series: 3, 6, 9, 12, ?
A.13
B.15
C.14
D.16
Q 77 :
What is the next term in the series: J, F, M, A, ?
A.M
B.J
C.S
D.O
Q 78 :
Ecology is the scientific study of interactions between?
A.Organisms and their environment
B.Only plants and animals
C.Humans and technology
D.Chemicals and water
Q 79 :
What is environmental pollution?
A.Natural recycling of nutrients
B.Conservation of natural resources
C.Undesirable change in environmental quality
D.Formation of ecosystems
Q 80 :
What is the name of the next phase of India’s semiconductor programme notified by the Government in August 2026?
A.Chip India 3.0
B.India Chip Mission
C.Semicon 2.0
D.Semiconductor Bharat
Academic
Q 81 :
Development in a child is best described as which process?
A.Only increase in body size
B.Temporary behavioural change
C.Progressive qualitative and quantitative changes
D.Increase only in intelligence
Q 82 :
Growth primarily refers to which type of change?
A.Moral change
B.Emotional change
C.Quantitative change
D.Social adjustment
Q 83 :
Which concept refers to genetically programmed changes that occur naturally with age?
A.Maturation
B.Conditioning
C.Learning
D.Reinforcement
Q 84 :
Which statement correctly distinguishes growth from development?
A.Growth is qualitative while development is quantitative
B.Growth and development are completely unrelated
C.Growth continues throughout life but development stops in adolescence
D.Growth mainly involves quantitative changes, while development includes qualitative and quantitative changes
Q 85 :
Maturation is mainly influenced by which factor?
A.Classroom seating
B.Examination results
C.Biological inheritance
D.School timetable
Q 86 :
Which principle states that development proceeds from head to foot?
A.Proximodistal principle
B.Cephalocaudal principle
C.Reciprocal principle
D.Hierarchical principle
Q 87 :
Which principle explains that control develops from the centre of the body toward the extremities?
A.Cephalocaudal
B.Proximodistal
C.General-to-specific
D.Differentiation
Q 88 :
A child first uses the whole hand to grasp an object and later uses fingers precisely. This illustrates which principle?
A.Specific-to-general development
B.Random development
C.General-to-specific development
D.Regressive development
Q 89 :
Individual differences in development suggest that teachers should do what?
A.Expect identical performance from all learners
B.Use one teaching method for all learners
C.Recognize different developmental rates
D.Promote only high achievers
Q 90 :
Development is said to be continuous because it does what?
A.Stops after childhood
B.Occurs throughout life
C.Happens only in school
D.Occurs only during physical growth
Q 91 :
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act was enacted in which year?
A.2005
B.2009
C.2007
D.2010
Q 92 :
The RTE Act came into force on which date?
A.26 January 2010
B.15 August 2009
C.1 April 2010
D.2 October 2010
Q 93 :
The RTE Act primarily guarantees education to children belonging to which age group?
A.3–6 years
B.5–12 years
C.6–18 years
D.6–14 years
Q 94 :
The constitutional right to free and compulsory education is contained in which Article?
A.Article 21A
B.Article 19
C.Article 24
D.Article 45
Q 95 :
Article 21A was inserted into the Constitution by which Constitutional Amendment?
A.42nd Amendment
B.44th Amendment
C.73rd Amendment
D.86th Amendment
Q 96 :
The term "elementary education" under the RTE Act refers to education from which classes?
A.Classes I to VIII
B.Classes I to V
C.Classes VI to X
D.Classes I to XII
Q 97 :
Under the RTE Act, free education means that a child should not be liable to pay what?
A.Only tuition fees
B.Only examination fees
C.Fees or charges that prevent completion of elementary education
D.Only admission fees
Q 98 :
The responsibility for ensuring compulsory elementary education rests primarily with whom?
A.Appropriate Government and local authority
B.Parents alone
C.Children alone
D.Private coaching institutes
Q 99 :
Under Section 4 of the RTE Act, a child who has never attended school should ordinarily be admitted to which class?
A.A class appropriate to the child's age
B.Class I only
C.One class below age level
D.A special school only
Q 100 :
A child admitted to an age-appropriate class under Section 4 is entitled to what additional provision?
A.Scholarship only
B.Special training
C.Automatic promotion to Class VIII
D.Residential schooling only
Q 101 :
The term curriculum is best understood as what?
A.Total planned learning experiences provided by the school
B.Only prescribed textbooks
C.Only examination syllabus
D.Only classroom activities
Q 102 :
Curriculum differs from syllabus because curriculum is what?
A.Broader than syllabus
B.Narrower than syllabus
C.Identical to syllabus
D.Limited to examinations
Q 103 :
A syllabus mainly specifies what?
A.Co-curricular activities only
B.School administration
C.Content to be taught in a subject
D.Teacher appraisal
Q 104 :
Which of the following is an essential component of curriculum?
A.Objectives
B.All three
C.Evaluation
D.Learning experiences
Q 105 :
Curriculum development should primarily begin with what?
A.Allocation of homework
B.Selection of textbooks
C.Final examination
D.Identification of educational aims
Q 106 :
A learner-centred curriculum gives major importance to what?
A.Textbook sequence only
B.Teacher convenience
C.Learner needs and interests
D.Examination schedule
Q 107 :
Which principle requires curriculum to be related to learners' real-life situations?
A.Principle of rigidity
B.Principle of relevance
C.Principle of uniformity
D.Principle of isolation
Q 108 :
The principle of flexibility in curriculum means what?
A.Curriculum must be identical for all contexts
B.Curriculum should never change
C.Curriculum can adapt to changing needs
D.Curriculum should avoid electives
Q 109 :
The principle of continuity requires that learning experiences should do what?
A.Be unrelated from one stage to another
B.Build progressively over time
C.Repeat identically every year
D.Ignore previous learning
Q 110 :
The principle of sequence in curriculum refers to what?
A.Arranging learning from simple to complex
B.Selecting only difficult content
C.Teaching subjects randomly
D.Avoiding progression
Administration & Finance
Q 111 :
CCS (CCA) Rules were framed in which year?
A.1965
B.1964
C.1956
D.1972
Q 112 :
CCS (CCA) stands for what?
A.Central Civil Services (Conduct and Appeal)
B.Central Civil Service (Conduct, Control and Administration)
C.Central Classification Service (Control and Appeal)
D.Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal)
Q 113 :
CCS (CCA) Rules primarily deal with what?
A.Income tax
B.Pension only
C.Classification, disciplinary control and appeals
D.Travelling allowance only
Q 114 :
CCS (CCA) Rules apply principally to whom?
A.All private-sector employees
B.Central Government civil servants covered by the Rules
C.State Government employees automatically
D.Members of Parliament
Q 115 :
Which of the following is an important subject covered under CCS (CCA) Rules?
A.All three
B.Disciplinary penalties
C.Appeals
D.Suspension
Q 116 :
Classification of Central Civil Services and posts is dealt with under which broad framework?
A.CCS (CCA) Rules
B.Income Tax Rules
C.GFR only
D.LTC Rules
Q 117 :
The authority competent to impose a penalty on a Government servant is called what?
A.Appellate Authority
B.Disciplinary Authority
C.Accounts Authority
D.Audit Authority
Q 118 :
An authority that hears an appeal against a disciplinary order is known as what?
A.Inquiry Authority
B.Reviewing Authority
C.Appellate Authority
D.Drawing Authority
Q 119 :
Suspension is generally regarded as what?
A.Not a penalty by itself
B.A minor penalty
C.A major penalty
D.A reward
Q 120 :
Suspension ordinarily means what?
A.Permanent removal from service
B.Reduction in rank
C.Temporary debarment from performing official duties
D.Compulsory retirement
Q 121 :
A Government servant may be placed under suspension when what is contemplated or pending?
A.Pension calculation
B.Promotion only
C.LTC journey
D.Disciplinary proceeding
Q 122 :
Suspension may also arise when a criminal case is under what stage?
A.Audit objection only
B.Pension settlement
C.Investigation, inquiry or trial
D.Leave sanction
Q 123 :
A Government servant detained in custody for more than the prescribed period may be treated as what?
A.Promoted
B.On earned leave
C.Automatically dismissed
D.Deemed to have been suspended
Q 124 :
The commonly applicable detention period for deemed suspension is more than how many hours?
A.12 hours
B.24 hours
C.72 hours
D.48 hours
Q 125 :
Deemed suspension due to detention ordinarily takes effect from what date?
A.Date of release
B.Date of charge-sheet
C.Date of detention
D.Date of conviction
Q 126 :
A Government servant sentenced to imprisonment for more than the specified period may come under what provision?
A.Promotion
B.Deemed suspension
C.Study leave
D.LTC
Q 127 :
An order of suspension should normally be reviewed periodically because what is true?
A.Suspension automatically becomes dismissal
B.Suspension is always permanent
C.Review is prohibited
D.Suspension should not continue mechanically
Q 128 :
The purpose of reviewing suspension is principally to determine what?
A.Salary increment
B.Whether its continuation remains justified
C.Pension eligibility
D.LTC entitlement
Q 129 :
During suspension, a Government servant generally receives what?
A.Full pay automatically
B.No amount whatsoever
C.Subsistence allowance according to applicable rules
D.Pension
Q 130 :
Subsistence allowance is governed principally by which broader service-rule framework?
A.Fundamental Rules
B.Income Tax Act only
C.GFR only
D.Conduct Rules only
Q 131 :
A suspended employee continues to remain what?
A.A pensioner automatically
B.A retired employee
C.A private employee
D.A Government servant
Q 132 :
Suspension normally prohibits the Government servant from doing what?
A.Performing normal official duties
B.Reporting to the controlling authority when required
C.Receiving subsistence allowance
D.Participating in inquiry
Q 133 :
Which of the following is NOT ordinarily a penalty under CCS (CCA) Rules?
A.Suspension
B.Withholding of promotion
C.Censure
D.Dismissal
Q 134 :
Penalties under CCS (CCA) Rules are broadly divided into what?
A.Minor and major
B.Civil and criminal
C.Temporary and permanent only
D.Financial and non-financial only
Q 135 :
Censure is classified as what?
A.Major penalty
B.Administrative leave
C.Suspension
D.Minor penalty
Q 136 :
Withholding of promotion is generally classified as what?
A.Suspension
B.Major penalty
C.Criminal punishment
D.Minor penalty
Q 137 :
Recovery from pay of pecuniary loss caused to Government may be imposed as what?
A.Leave sanction
B.Only criminal sentence
C.Minor penalty in appropriate cases
D.Pension award
Q 138 :
Withholding of increments of pay is generally what type of penalty?
A.No penalty
B.Always dismissal
C.Minor penalty, subject to the nature specified in the Rules
D.Criminal penalty only
Q 139 :
Reduction to a lower stage in the time-scale for a specified period may constitute what?
A.Leave
B.A penalty
C.Promotion
D.Deputation
Q 140 :
Reduction to a lower service, grade or post is classified as what?
A.Leave measure
B.Minor warning
C.Administrative advice
D.Major penalty
Q 141 :
Compulsory retirement imposed as a penalty is what?
A.Major penalty
B.Minor penalty
C.Suspension
D.Leave without pay
Q 142 :
Removal from service is what category of penalty?
A.Financial only
B.Minor
C.Advisory
D.Major
Q 143 :
Dismissal from service is what?
A.Minor penalty
B.Major penalty
C.Warning only
D.Suspension
Q 144 :
Which penalty ordinarily disqualifies a Government servant from future employment under Government more severely?
A.Censure
B.Warning
C.Dismissal
D.Withholding of increment
Q 145 :
Removal from service ordinarily does what regarding future employment under Government?
A.It is identical to censure
B.It always guarantees re-employment
C.It does not ordinarily carry the same disqualification as dismissal
D.It is not a penalty
Q 146 :
Which is generally considered the most severe disciplinary penalty?
A.Dismissal
B.Withholding increment
C.Censure
D.Recovery of loss
Q 147 :
Rule 11 of CCS (CCA) Rules is importantly associated with what?
A.Medical attendance
B.LTC
C.Penalties
D.Income tax
Q 148 :
The disciplinary authority must act according to what while imposing penalties?
A.Personal preference
B.Prescribed procedure and principles of natural justice
C.Verbal rumours
D.Anonymous assumptions alone
Q 149 :
A major penalty proceeding ordinarily requires what?
A.Immediate punishment without charge
B.No opportunity to the employee
C.Formal inquiry where charges are denied and inquiry is required
D.Only oral warning
Q 150 :
Rule 14 is especially associated with what?
A.Pension commutation
B.LTC claims
C.Procedure for imposing major penalties
D.Income tax
Q 151 :
A disciplinary proceeding normally begins with preparation of what?
A.Income statement
B.Pension order
C.Travel bill
D.Articles of charge
Q 152 :
Articles of charge should state what?
A.Pension history
B.Employee's family details only
C.Specific allegations constituting misconduct
D.Tax liability
Q 153 :
A statement of imputations accompanying charges is intended to do what?
A.Explain facts supporting each charge
B.Determine income tax
C.Grant leave
D.Approve LTC
Q 154 :
A charge memorandum in a major penalty case commonly includes a list of what?
A.Holidays only
B.Documents and witnesses
C.Pensioners only
D.Tax deductions only
Q 155 :
The charged Government servant is given an opportunity to submit what?
A.LTC declaration only
B.Pension application
C.Written statement of defence
D.Tax return only
Q 156 :
If charges are admitted, the disciplinary authority may do what subject to the Rules?
A.Ignore the admission completely
B.Record findings and proceed appropriately
C.Automatically promote the employee
D.Cancel every proceeding
Q 157 :
When charges are denied and require proof, who may be appointed to inquire?
A.Inquiring Authority
B.Cashier
C.Medical Officer
D.Tax Officer
Q 158 :
Who presents the case in support of charges before the Inquiry Authority?
A.Presenting Officer
B.Appellate Authority
C.Pension Officer
D.Drawing Officer
Q 159 :
The charged official in a disciplinary inquiry is commonly called what?
A.Accounts Officer
B.Drawing Officer
C.Charged Officer
D.Pension Officer
Q 160 :
The Inquiry Authority should ordinarily be what?
A.Impartial
B.Personally interested in the outcome
C.A prosecution witness
D.Financial adviser only
Q 161 :
One important principle of natural justice is what?
A.Punishment before allegation
B.No person should be condemned without being heard
C.Secret evidence only
D.No defence opportunity
Q 162 :
The maxim "audi alteram partem" broadly means what?
A.Ignorance of law is no excuse
B.No one is judge in own cause
C.Hear the other side
D.Evidence is unnecessary
Q 163 :
"Nemo judex in causa sua" broadly expresses which principle?
A.Hear the other side
B.No one should be judge in his own cause
C.Appeal is compulsory
D.Evidence may be ignored
Q 164 :
Bias in a disciplinary inquiry primarily violates what?
A.Natural justice
B.Pension rules
C.LTC rules
D.TA rules
Q 165 :
The charged officer should ordinarily be allowed reasonable access to what material?
A.Tax returns of all employees
B.Every confidential government document irrespective of relevance
C.Relevant relied-upon documents, subject to lawful restrictions
D.Pension files of colleagues
Q 166 :
Examination of departmental witnesses is primarily intended to do what?
A.Prove the charges through evidence
B.Calculate pension
C.Approve leave
D.Sanction travel
Q 167 :
The charged officer normally has the right to do what to departmental witnesses?
A.Prevent their examination automatically
B.Dismiss them from service
C.Fix their salaries
D.Cross-examine them
Q 168 :
Cross-examination is mainly intended to test what?
A.Accuracy and credibility of testimony
B.Pension eligibility
C.Travel entitlement
D.Tax liability
Q 169 :
After cross-examination, the Presenting Officer may ordinarily conduct what?
A.Leave adjustment
B.Pension revision
C.Travel audit
D.Re-examination
Q 170 :
Re-examination should generally relate to what?
A.Completely unrelated allegations
B.Matters arising from cross-examination, subject to inquiry rules
C.Pension matters only
D.Personal matters of witnesses
Q 171 :
The charged officer may normally produce what in defence?
A.Witnesses and documentary evidence
B.Only oral denial
C.No evidence
D.Financial budget only
Q 172 :
A defence assistant may assist whom?
A.Appellate Authority only
B.Disciplinary Authority personally
C.Charged Government servant
D.Audit officer only
Q 173 :
Engagement of a legal practitioner in a departmental inquiry is generally what?
A.Subject to conditions prescribed in the Rules
B.Unrestricted in every case
C.Completely prohibited without exception
D.Mandatory
Q 174 :
If the Presenting Officer is a legal practitioner, the charged employee's position regarding legal representation may be affected how?
