In a certain code ‘ke pa lo ti’ means ‘lamp is burning bright’ and ‘lo si ti ba ke’ means ‘bright light is from lamp’Which of the following is the code for ‘burning’ in that language ?
A
Si
B
Pa
C
Ti
D
Ke
E
None of these
Question 2Single Answer
What will come in place of question mark (?) in the alphabetic order given below?
C B A A C B A A B C B A A B C C B A A B ?
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
E
E
Question 3Single Answer
How many meaningful English works can be formed with the letters ‘RAE’ using each letter only once in each word ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 4Single Answer
The following groups of alphabets form a certain pattern with regard to their position in the English alphabetic series. Based upon the pattern, which of the following five alternative shall replace the question mark?
AD, C, HK, MJ,?
A
NQ
B
OQ
C
OR
D
MP
E
None of these
Question 5Single Answer
If the letters in the word 'DOLPHIN' are rearranged as they appear in English alphabetical order, which of the following letters will be the fifth from left?
A
O
B
D
C
I
D
L
E
None of these
Question 6Single Answer
In a certain code EXPERT is written as $Z%$Q5 and PETROL is written as %$5Q#9. How will 'EXPLORE' be writ n in that code?
A
$ Z % 9 Q # $
B
$ Z % 9 # Q $
C
$ Z % 9 # $ Q
D
$ Z % 9 $ # Q
E
None of these
Question 7Single Answer
Sunil walks towards the East from point A, turns right at point B and walks the same distance as he walked towards the East. He now turns left, walks the same distance again and finally makes a left turn and stops at point C after walking the same distance. The distance between A and C is how many times as that of A and B?
A
Cannot be determined
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 8Single Answer
In a certain code 'BACK' is written as '5914' and 'KITE' is written as '4876'. How is 'BEAT' written in that code?
A
5697
B
5967
C
4697
D
5687
E
None of these
Question 9Single Answer
West : North - East :: South : ?
A
North - West
B
South - East
C
North
D
East
Question 10Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ALEP using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
one
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 11Single Answer
Four of the following, five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
39
B
48
C
56
D
31
E
72
Question 12Single Answer
In a certain code language, 'go and come' is written as 'na ta ka' and 'black and white' is written as 'pa ma ta'. How is 'go' written in that code language?
A
na
B
ka
C
pa
D
na or ka
E
None of these
Question 13Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHANNEL each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 14Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ATLE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 15Single Answer
In a certain code GROWN is written as 7 @ % 36 and NAME written as 64 $ How is GEAR written in that code ?
A
74$@
B
7$4@
C
7%4@
D
7@$4
E
none of these
Question 16Single Answer
How many pairs of digits are there in the number 6315784 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are rearranged in descending order ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 17Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
BDFH L NACE GIKMBDFHJ LACEGIKBDFBJ
A
B
B
L
C
M
D
F
E
None of these
Question 18Single Answer
In a certain code DISPLAY is written as RHCQZBM. How is GROU ED written in that code?
A
PSH EFO
B
NOFVCDO
C
NOF IEFO
D
PSHTCDO
E
None of these
Question 19Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
169
B
441
C
361
D
529
E
289
Question 20Single Answer
Among P, Q, R, T and W each having different weight, T is heavier than Wand lighter than only P. Q is not the lightest. Who among them is definitely the lightest?
A
R
B
W
C
R or W
D
Data inadequate
E
None of these
Question 21Single Answer
If 'R' denotes '+'; 'P' denotes 'x; 'W' denotes '+' and 'V' denotes '-'; then 14 W 16 R 4 V 3 P 5 = ?
A
15
B
4
C
6
D
3
E
None of these
Question 22Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
PM
B
EB
C
TO
D
IF
E
VY
Question 23Single Answer
Pointing to a woman, Suresh said, 'she is the daughter of my grandfather's only daughter'. How is Suresh related to the woman?
A
Brother
B
Cousin
C
Uncle
D
Can’t be determined
E
None of these
Question 24Single Answer
'Visual’ is related to 'Light' in the same way as 'Audio' is relate to .
A
voice
B
Sound
C
Drama
D
noise
E
None of these
Question 25Single Answer
In a class of 40 children, Sunetra's rank is eighth from the top. Sujit is five ranks below Sunetra. What is Sujit's rank from the bottom?
A
27
B
29
C
28
D
26
E
None of these
Question 26Single Answer
How many such numerals are there in the number 257648 , which will remain at the same position when arranged in ascending order from left to right ?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
None
E
More than three
Question 27Single Answer
In a certain code, 'DESCRIBE'is written as 'FCJSDTFE'. How will 'CONSIDER' be written in that code?
A
SFEJTOPD
B
SEFJTOPD
C
QFETJOPD
D
QEFJTOPD
E
None of these
Question 28Single Answer
Direction: Four of the following five are alike in a cert in way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Shampoo
B
Talcum Powder
C
Hair G I
D
Cosmetics
E
Soap
Question 29Single Answer
Direction: Four of the following five are alike in a cert in way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
Jasmine
B
Rose
C
Dahila
D
Marigold
E
Lotus
Question 30Single Answer
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous' in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A
Omnivorous
B
Carnivorous
C
Herbivorous
D
Multivorous
E
None of these
Question 31Single Answer
'Iron' is related to 'Metal' in the same way as 'Brass' related to
A
Iron
B
Alloy
C
Copper
D
Zinc
E
None of these
Question 32Single Answer
In a row of children, Neeta is fifteenth from the left en of the row. If she is shifted towards the right end of the row by four places, she becomes eighth from the right end How many children are there in the row?
A
27
B
26
C
28
D
24
E
None of these
Question 33Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
BD
B
KM
C
HK
D
PR
E
TV
Question 34Single Answer
If blue is called red, red is called green, green is called black and black is called white, what is the colour of
A
Red
B
Black
C
White
D
Green
E
none of these
Question 35Single Answer
'Radish' is related to 'Root' in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A
fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
none of these
Question 36Single Answer
In a certain code, BOND is written as APME. How is MALE written in that code ?
'Pen’ is to 'Write' in the same way as 'Car' is to
A
Drive
B
Park
C
Vehicle
D
Fuel
E
Sit
Question 39Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
A
49
B
25
C
169
D
81
E
215
Question 40Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group ?
A
Chair
B
Desk
C
Sofa
D
Bench
E
Divan
Question 41Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follow If ‘A x B’ means ‘A’ is father of B’
If ‘A + B’ means ‘A’ is Wife of B’
If ‘A B’ means ‘A’ is daughter of B’.
If ‘A – B’ means ‘A is son of B’
How is L elated to Q in the expression L M x O – P Q’ ?
A
Granddaughter
B
Niece
C
Daughter - in - law
D
Daughter
E
Cannot be determined
Question 42Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follow
If ‘A x B’ means ‘A’ is father of B’
If ‘A + B’ means ‘A’ is Wife of B’
If ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A’ is daughter of B’.
If ‘A – B’ means ‘A is son of B’
What will come in the place of the question mark, to establish that Q is the nephew of T in the expression'Q ? R ÷ S x T'?
A
+
B
x
C
–
D
÷
E
Either – or ÷
Question 43Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follow If ‘A x B’ means ‘A’ is father of B’ If ‘A + B’ means ‘A’ is Wife of B’ If ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A’ is daughter of B’. If ‘A – B’ means ‘A is son of B’
Which of the following relations are true based upon the relations given in the equation:'A - B x C + D - E'?
A
C is mother of A
B
E is wife of B
C
D is brother of A
D
E is mother-in-law of C
E
None is true
Question 44Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C and D live on floors 3 to 6 of the same six storeyed building. A lives on fourth floor. Only one person lives on the floor between A and B. C does not live on a floor above A's floor.
Who lives on a floor immediately above B's floor?
A
A
B
C
C
D
D
A or C
E
B lives on top floor
Question 45Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C and D live on floors 3 to 6 of the same six storeyed building. A lives on fourth floor. Only one person lives on the floor between A and B. C does not live on a floor above A's floor.
Who lives on the fifth floor?
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
E
None of these
Question 46Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Study the arrangement of letters and digits given below and answer the question which follow.
Q 2 3 B 9 V 5 L S R F P
If each of the consonants in the above arrangement is replaced by the letter preceding it in the alphabetic series, how many vowels will be obtained?
A
Nil
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 47Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Study the arrangement of letters and digits given below and answer the question which follow.
Q 2 3 B 9 V 5 L S R F P
If first all the digits are arranged in descending order and then the letters are arranged in alphabetic order, the position of how many digits and alphabets will remain unchanged?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 48Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Study the arrangement of letters and digits given below and answer the question which follow. Q 2 3 B 9 V 5 L S R F P
If one If 0 e is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following will be the fourth to the right of the tenth from the right?
A
4
B
8
C
2
D
1
E
none of these
Question 49Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: These question are based on the position. of English alphabets.
If CG QW is one sequence following a logic and another five letter sequence following similar type of logic is BFJP then one more variation of this type can be
A
CFKNT
B
DHLRX
C
VPJFB
D
Cannot be determined
E
None of these
Question 50Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: These question are based on the position. of English alphabets
If LMN is to ZYX and EFG is to DCB, then RST is to
A
WVU
B
QRO
C
KJI
D
Cannot be determined
E
No of these
General English
Question 51Single Answer
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A
The principle that
B
a pen is mightier
C
then a sword
D
was known to early Greeks.
E
No error
Question 52Single Answer
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A
Martha missed her dog
B
who died of a
C
skin infection at a
D
very young age.
E
No error
Question 53Single Answer
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A
There was such
B
a crowd that
C
he would not
D
find his brother.
E
No error
Question 54Single Answer
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A
Having managed the
B
team of two
C
years, he knew
D
his players well.
E
No error
Question 55Single Answer
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A
Because of heavy
B
rains the trains
C
are disable to
D
run on time.
E
No error
Question 56Single Answer
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A
The State Government
B
has send reports
C
to the centre
D
on the situation.
E
No error
Question 57Single Answer
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A
Whether a person
B
takes to smoking
C
depends a lot
D
in his social network.
E
No error
Question 58Single Answer
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A
Every home and every office
B
needs the latest equipment
C
for keep up
D
with times.
E
No error
Question 59Single Answer
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A
The idea of turning
B
invisible with the
C
swish of clock have
D
always fascinated scientists.
E
No error
Question 60Single Answer
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A
She had seen
B
the approaching truck
C
and had jumping
D
out of the way.
E
No error
Question 61Single Answer
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A
No country can long endure
B
if its foundations
C
were not laid deep
D
in the material prosperity.
E
No error
Question 62Single Answer
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A
I went 0 the liberarian and cashier
B
and they gave me
C
all facilities required
D
to complete the project
E
No error
Question 63Single Answer
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A
When she comes
B
to see us
C
she usually were bring
D
somethings with her.
E
No errors
Question 64Single Answer
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A
Why did you
B
not told me
C
that the meeting
D
was postponed.
E
No error
Question 65Single Answer
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A
He picked up
B
the books
C
and put it
D
on the table.
E
No error
Question 66Single Answer
Direction: In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.
A
Almost
B
two hours have elapsed
C
since he fell
D
asleep.
E
All correct
Question 67Single Answer
Direction: In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.
A
Have you noticed
B
that the country is on the brink
C
of a serious
D
dissaster
E
All correct
Question 68Single Answer
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A
If the worst
B
comes to
C
worst,
D
I will have to bid good bye to my studies and join my family business.
E
No error
Question 69Single Answer
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A
Because of heavy
B
rains the trains
C
are disable to
D
run on time.
E
No error
Question 70Single Answer
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A
The institute
B
imparts training
C
in
D
the French.
E
No error
Question 71Single Answer
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A
Looking forward
B
to meet
C
you
D
soon.
E
No error
Question 72Single Answer
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A
Martha missed her dog
B
who died of a
C
skin infection at a
D
very young age.
E
No error
Question 73Single Answer
Direction : In each question below, four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed, one of which may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt marks (5) i.e. , All correct' as the answer.
A
Pionear
B
Neighbour
C
Harmony
D
Propriety
E
All correct
Question 74Single Answer
Direction : In each question below, four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed, one of which may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt marks (5) i.e. , All correct' as the answer.
A
instantly
B
comfortable
C
Enforcement
D
wisedom
E
All correct
Question 75Single Answer
Direction : In each question below, four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed, one of which may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt marks (5) i.e. , All correct' as the answer.
A
Enhance
B
Assumption
C
vehical
D
prisoner
E
All correct
Question 76Single Answer
Direction : In each question below, four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed, one of which may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt marks (5) i.e. , All correct' as the answer.
A
Noteworthy
B
Pecular
C
Priority
D
Trianguiar
E
All correct
Question 77Single Answer
Direction : In each question below, four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed, one of which may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt marks (5) i.e. , All correct' as the answer.
A
Viollence
B
Heredity
C
Conclusion
D
Engagement
E
All correct
Question 78Single Answer
Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that ps. t is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No error. [Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A
Every citizen is
B
required to follow scrupulous
C
all the rules and regulations
D
prescribed by the government.
E
No error
Question 79Single Answer
Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that ps. t is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No error. [Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A
They have donated
B
large sums of money
C
for the we fare of
D
the poor and the underprivileged.
E
No error
Question 80Single Answer
Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that ps. t is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No error. [Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A
Mr. Shome who is a
B
renowned economist has
C
been appointed to
D
an advisor to the minister.
E
No error
Question 81Single Answer
Direction : Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there in no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)
A
Some pea le
B
are believing
C
that women cannot
D
complete with men.
E
No error
Question 82Single Answer
Direction : Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there in no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)
A
He avoids
B
taking the
C
prescribed medicine
D
at regularly intervals.
E
No error
Question 83Single Answer
Direction : Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there in no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)
A
When we heard the name
B
of our leader uttered
C
respectfully by the foreigners
D
we felt pride of him.
E
No error
Question 84Single Answer
Direction : Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there in no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)
A
He does not seem
B
to be aware
C
as to
D
his merits.
E
No error
Question 85Single Answer
Direction : Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there in no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)
A
The driver s well as
B
the conductor are
C
responsible or
D
this accident.
E
No error
Question 86Single Answer
Direction : Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there in no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)
A
Some peoples
B
feel that
C
no progress is possible
D
without discipline.
E
No error
Question 87Single Answer
Direction : Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there in no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)
A
The house
B
is built
C
in an
D
attractive manner.
E
No error
Question 88Single Answer
Direction : Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there in no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)
A
After listening to
B
little songs
C
she switched of
D
the radio
E
No error
Question 89Single Answer
Every component of your computer is either
A
software of CPU/RAM
B
hardware or software
C
application software or system software
D
input devices or output devices
E
None of the above
Question 90Single Answer
A CD-RW disk
A
has a faster access than an it ternal disk
B
is a form of optial disk, so it only be written once
C
holds less data than a floppy
D
can be erased and rewritten
E
None of the above
English
Question 91Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. Passage
"Uncle” said Luke to the old Sean, "You seem to be well fed, though I know no one looks after you. Nor have I seen you leave your residence at any time. Tell me how do you manage it ?"
"Because" Sean replied, "I have a good feed every night at the emperor's orchard. After dark, I go there myself and pick out
enough fruits to last a fortnight."
Luke proposed to accompany his uncle to the orchard. Though reluctant because of Luke's habit of euphoric exhibition of
extreme excitement, Sean agreed to take him along.
At the orchard while Sean hurriedly collected the fruits and left, Luke on the other hand at the sight of unlimited supply of
fruits as excited and lifted his voice which brought emperor's men immediately to his side. They seized him and mistook
him a the sole cause of damage to the orchard. Although Luke reiterated that he was a bird of passage, they pounded
him mercilessly before setting him free.
How did old Sean manage to meet his food requirements?
A
By buying food from the market
B
His nephew Luke took care of his requirements
C
Lu brought fruits from the emperor's orchard for Sean
D
He picked up fruits from the emperor's orchard
E
The emperor provided him with ample supply of fruits
Question 92Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. Passage
"Uncle” said Luke to the old Sean, "You seem to be well fed, though I know no one looks after you. Nor have I seen you leave your residence at any time. Tell me how do you manage it ?"
"Because" Sean replied, "I have a good feed every night at the emperor's orchard. After dark, I go there myself and pick out enough fruits to last a fortnight."
Luke proposed to accompany his uncle to the orchard. Though reluctant because of Luke's habit of euphoric exhibition of extreme excitement, Sean agreed to take him along.
At the orchard while Sean hurriedly collected the fruits and left, Luke on the other hand at the sight of unlimited supply of fruits as excited and lifted his voice which brought emperor's men immediately to his side. They seized him and mistook him a the sole cause of damage to the orchard. Although Luke reiterated that he was a bird of passage, they pounded him mercilessly before setting him free.
Which f the following is not true in the context of the passage ?
A
Sean was a poor and suffering man
B
Luke came to know about the orchard from his uncle
C
Sea initially hesitated to take his nephew along
D
Luke was finally set free
E
Both Sean and Luke collected fruits from Emperor's orchard
Question 93Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. Passage
"Uncle” said Luke to the old Sean, "You seem to be well fed, though I know no one looks after you. Nor have I seen you leave your residence at any time. Tell me how do you manage it ?"
"Because" Sean replied, "I have a good feed every night at the emperor's orchard. After dark, I go there myself and pick out enough fruits to last a fortnight."
Luke proposed to accompany his uncle to the orchard. Though reluctant because of Luke's habit of euphoric exhibition of extreme excitement, Sean agreed to take him along.
At the orchard while Sean hurriedly collected the fruits and left, Luke on the other hand at the sight of unlimited supply of fruits as excited and lifted his voice which brought emperor's men immediately to his side. They seized him and mistook him a the sole cause of damage to the orchard. Although Luke reiterated that he was a bird of passage, they pounded him mercilessly before setting him free.
why was sean reluctant to take luke along ?
A
Because he was a selfish man
B
He feared that luke’s reaction may alert the emperor’s men
C
Because luke could harm him
D
He wanted to bring fruits for luke himself
E
He knew Luke was a greedy person
Question 94Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. Passage
"Uncle” said Luke to the old Sean, "You seem to be well fed, though I know no one looks after you. Nor have I seen you leave your residence at any time. Tell me how do you manage it ?"
"Because" Sean replied, "I have a good feed every night at the emperor's orchard. After dark, I go there myself and pick out enough fruits to last a fortnight."
Luke proposed to accompany his uncle to the orchard. Though reluctant because of Luke's habit of euphoric exhibition of extreme excitement, Sean agreed to take him along.
At the orchard while Sean hurriedly collected the fruits and left, Luke on the other hand at the sight of unlimited supply of fruits as excited and lifted his voice which brought emperor's men immediately to his side. They seized him and mistook him a the sole cause of damage to the orchard. Although Luke reiterated that he was a bird of passage, they pounded him mercilessly before setting him free.
How often did Sean visit the emperor's orchard?
A
Daily
B
Once month
C
In a period of two weeks
D
Never his nephew Luke brought fruits for him
E
Everyday during midnight
Question 95Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. Passage
"Uncle” said Luke to the old Sean, "You seem to be well fed, though I know no one looks after you. Nor have I seen you leave your residence at any time. Tell me how do you manage it ?"
"Because" Sean replied, "I have a good feed every night at the emperor's orchard. After dark, I go there myself and pick out enough fruits to last a fortnight."
Luke proposed to accompany his uncle to the orchard. Though reluctant because of Luke's habit of euphoric exhibition of extreme excitement, Sean agreed to take him along.
At the orchard while Sean hurriedly collected the fruits and left, Luke on the other hand at the sight of unlimited supply of fruits as excited and lifted his voice which brought emperor's men immediately to his side. They seized him and mistook him a the sole cause of damage to the orchard. Although Luke reiterated that he was a bird of passage, they pounded him mercilessly before setting him free.
Luke remained behind at the orchard because he
A
was greedy and wanted to collect more fruits
B
waited for the emperor’s men to arrest him
C
Lost his composure and started expressing his felling loudly
D
had waited for his uncle to return
E
Could not move in the dark
Question 96Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Which of the phrase(1),(2),(3) and (4) given below should replace the phtase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct? It the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark(5) as the answer.
Bieng toiled for two hours, he sat down to take some rest.
A
Have toiled for
B
Had toiled for
C
Having to be toiled at
D
Having toiled for
E
No correction required
Question 97Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Which of the phrase(1),(2),(3) and (4) given below should replace the phtase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct? It the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark(5) as the answer.
Highly intelligent people seldom tolerate any ambiguity.
A
tolerate hardly amy ambiguity
B
hardly tolerate ambiguous
C
tolerate ny clarity whatsoever
D
hardly tolerate any lacuna
E
No correction required
Question 98Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Which of the phrase(1),(2),(3) and (4) given below should replace the phtase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct? It the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark(5) as the answer.
Because of his efficiency, the director wanted him to work as his assistant.
A
wanted to him
B
wants him to be
C
wanted he to
D
wanted of him
E
No correction required
Question 99Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In each question, there is a sentence with part of the sentence printed in bold. Decide whether this bold part is correct and fits in the grammatical and contextual framework of the sentence.If it is to be changed, choose from options(1) to (4) to replace that part.If not, mark (5) as the answer i.e.'No change required'.
Had I realized how close I was to falling.I would not have gone to the party.
A
If I would have realized
B
Had I realize how close
C
When I realized how close
D
If I realized close
E
No change required
Question 100Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In Question, there is a sentence with part of the sentence printed in bold. Decide whether this bold part is correct and fits in the grammatical and contextual framework of the sentence.If it is to be changed, choose from options(1) to (4) to replace that part.If not, mark(5) as the answer i.e.'No change required'.
Except for you and I, everyone brought a present to you party.
A
With the exception of you and I everyone brought
B
Except for you and me, everyone brought
C
Except for you and me, everyone brought
D
Exception of you and me, eceryone had brought
E
No change required
Technical Ability
Question 101Single Answer
Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is
A
0.8 Ω
B
1.4 Ω
C
2 Ω
D
2.8 Ω
Question 102Single Answer
For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10-6 (ohm-m)-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m2/V-s and 0.04 m2/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?
A
7.0 × 1012 m-3
B
7.0 × 10-12 m-3
C
7.0 × 10-12 m3
D
7.0 × 1012 m3
Question 103Single Answer
The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m2/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m2/V-s?
A
9.2 × 105/m3
B
2.77 × 103/m3
C
2.43 × 1019/m3
D
8.9 × 1012/m3
Question 104Single Answer
Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place
A
By the mobility of the carriers
B
Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
C
By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
D
By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms
Question 105Single Answer
Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is
A
Parallel polarized
B
Perpendicularly polarized
C
Normally polarized
D
None of the above
Question 106Single Answer
An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if
A
Forward voltage increases up to the rating
B
Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
C
Forward voltage decreases below the rating
D
Reverse voltage decreases below the rating
Question 107Single Answer
The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is
A
Very difficult to form, machine or case
B
The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
C
The poor strength-to-weight ratio
D
The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures
Question 108Single Answer
Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?
A
High stiffness and strengths
B
Low densities
C
Unusual electrical property
D
Non-ductile
Question 109Single Answer
The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from
A
Meissner effect
B
Josephson effect
C
Isotope effect
D
x quantization experiments
Question 110Single Answer
Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?
A
Phenol formaldehyde
B
Polytetrafluoroethylene
C
Polyvinyl chloride
D
Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
Question 111Single Answer
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is
A
Ferrite
B
Piezoelectric
C
Pyroelectric
D
Ferromagnetic above 768°C
Question 112Single Answer
The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called
A
Peak temperature
B
Neel temperatur
C
Critical temperature
D
Weiss temperature
Question 113Single Answer
Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?
A
Seeback effect
B
Thomson effect
C
Hall effect
D
Joule effect
Question 114Single Answer
Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are
A
Soft magnetic materials
B
Hard magnetic materials
C
High eddy current loss materials
D
High hysteresis loss materials
Question 115Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
Both 1 and 2
B
Neither 1 nor 2
C
1 only
D
2 only
Question 116Single Answer
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
A
Greater than 1
B
Equal to 1
C
Between 1 and 3
4 4
D
Less than 1
Question 117Single Answer
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 118Single Answer
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
A
Newtonian fluid
B
Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C
Pseudo-plastic fluids
D
Dilatent fluids
Question 119Single Answer
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
A
8
B
6
C
4
D
2
Question 120Single Answer
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
A
0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B
4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C
0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D
4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Question 121Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
Both 1 and 2
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 122Single Answer
State whether following flow field is physically possible?
A
Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B
Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C
Possible for steady, compressible flow
D
Not Possible
Question 123Single Answer
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
A
0.25
B
0.26
C
2
D
4
Question 124Single Answer
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW
Question 125Single Answer
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
A
man power
B
profit
C
inventory
D
manufacturing
Question 126Single Answer
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
A
3 m/s2
B
6 m/s2
C
9 m/s2
D
15 m/s2
Question 127Single Answer
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
A
9
B
-6
C
117
D
10.8
Question 128Single Answer
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
A
More for lighter fluid
B
More for denser fluid
C
Less for denser fluid
D
Less for lighter fluid
Question 129Single Answer
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
A
Linearly with fluid density
B
Inversely with pressure drop
C
Directly as square of pipe radius
D
Inversely with fluid velocity
Question 130Single Answer
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
A
1.5mm
B
2.5mm
C
4.0mm
D
5.0mm
Question 131Single Answer
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
A
30 l
B
35 l
C
40 l
D
45 l
Question 132Single Answer
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
A
1 : 1 : 1
B
1 : 2 : 3
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
1 : 3 : 4
Question 133Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?
A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 3 and 5
C
2, 3 and 4
D
2, 4 and 5
Question 134Single Answer
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
A
10
B
20
C
25
D
30
Question 135Single Answer
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
A
11.8
B
12.4
C
14.2
D
14.8
Question 136Single Answer
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4
Question 137Single Answer
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
3 and 4
Question 138Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 139Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 5 only
C
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Question 140Single Answer
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
A
165 l
B
205 l
C
245 l
D
285 l
Question 141Single Answer
Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?
A
IS : 4970-1973
B
IS : 1708-1969
C
IS : 1141-1958
D
IS : 399-1963
Question 142Single Answer
Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 143Single Answer
The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
A
Parallel to each other
B
At right angle to one another
C
45° oblique to adjacent grain
D
Not constrained by any consideration
Question 144Single Answer
Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?
A
It must be free from lumps of lime
B
It should not be mixed with salty water
C
It must be non-homogeneous
D
It should not contain vegetable and organic matter
Question 145Single Answer
The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than
A
440 kg/cm2
B
175 kg/cm2
C
100kg/cm2
D
75kg/cm2
Question 146Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 4
Question 147Single Answer
Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3
C
1, 2 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4
Question 148Single Answer
Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?
A
Magnesium oxide
B
Silica
C
Alumina
D
Calcium sulphate
Question 149Single Answer
Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?
A
Ordinary Portland
B
High Alumina
C
Low-heat Portland
D
Portland Cement
Question 150Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
3, 4 and 5
D
2, 3 and 5
Quantitative Aptitude
Question 151Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question
The function xx decreases in the interval
A
(0, e)
B
(0, 1)
C
(0, 1/e)
D
None of these
E
none of these
Question 152Single Answer
The difference between 63% of a number and 45% of the same number is 34.2 what is 78% of that number ?
A
1342
B
1482
C
1558
D
1670
E
none of these
Question 153Single Answer
What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount Rs. 4000 at the rate of 5% per annum after 3 yr
A
Rs. 612
B
Rs. 578
C
Rs. 525.5
D
Rs. 630.5
E
none of these
Question 154Single Answer
A car covers a distance of 1450 km in 25 h. What is the speed of the car ?
A
58 km/h
B
66 km/h
C
72 km/h
D
cannot be determined
E
none of these
Question 155Single Answer
The average age of a man and his son is 40 yr. The ratio of their ages is 7:3 respectively. What is the man’s age
A
70 yr
B
63 yr
C
56 yr
D
49 yr
E
none of these
Question 156Single Answer
A canteen requires 28 dozen bananas for a week How many dozen bananas will it require for 47 days
A
2256
B
322
C
196
D
2352
E
none of these
Question 157Single Answer
The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 6399. What is the smaller number ?
A
83
B
79
C
81
D
77
E
none of these
Question 158Single Answer
The average of 5 consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E is 106. What is the product of B and D ?
A
11440
B
11024
C
10608
D
11232
E
none of these
Question 159Single Answer
The owner of a cell phones shop charges his customer 23% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs 7011 for a cell phone, then what was the cost price of the cell phone ?
A
Rs. 5845
B
Rs. 6750
C
Rs. 5900
D
Rs. 6925
E
none of these
Question 160Single Answer
IF (16)3 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 3825. What is the number ?
A
69
B
59
C
89
D
79
E
none of these
Question 161Single Answer
If an amount of Rs 85602 is distributed equally amongst 33 persons. How much amount would each person get ?
A
Rs. 2594
B
Rs. 2954
C
Rs. 2549
D
Rs. 2495
E
none of these
Question 162Single Answer
43% of a number is 559. What is 32% of that number ?
A
416
B
429
C
403
D
384
E
none of these
Question 163Single Answer
In Boolean algebra, which of the following statement is correct
A
(a + b)’ = a’ + b'
B
(a + b)’ = a’ . b'
C
(a + b)’ = (a’ . b’)
D
None of the above
E
none of these
Question 164Single Answer
If (92)2 is added to the square of a number the answer so obtained is 10768 . what is the number
A
46
B
2304
C
48
D
2116
E
none of these
Question 165Single Answer
The total number of students in a school is 5050. If the number of girls in the school is 2450, then what is the respective ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in the school
A
49 : 52
B
51 : 50
C
50 : 51
D
52 : 49
E
none of these
Question 166Single Answer
Sumit invests Rs. 4762, Which is 25% of his monthly income, in insurance policies. What is his monthly income
A
Rs. 28572
B
Rs. 23810
C
Rs. 19048
D
Rs 14285
E
none of these
Question 167Single Answer
There are 2010 employees in an organization. Out of which 30% got transferred to different places. How many such employees are there who got transferred ?
A
603
B
402
C
804
D
703
E
none of these
Question 168Single Answer
In an examination shalini scores a total of 436 marks out of 625. What is her approximate percentage in the examination
A
83
B
65
C
82
D
78
E
70
Question 169Single Answer
What would be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs 8930 at the rate of 8% per annum after 5 yr ?
A
Rs. 5413
B
Rs. 2678
C
Rs. 3572
D
Rs 4752
E
none of these
Question 170Single Answer
The cost of 12 chairs and 15 tables is Rs 58968. What is the cost of 4 chairs and 5 tables
A
Rs. 19656
B
Rs. 29484
C
Rs. 39312
D
cannot be determined
E
none of these
Question 171Single Answer
The smallest number of 4-digits which when divided by 6, 8, 12 and 20 leaves no remainder is
A
120
B
1040
C
1200
D
1080
E
None of these
Question 172Single Answer
After deducting 10% from a certain sum and there from the remainder, there is ~ 14400 left. The on sum is
A
Rs. 18000
B
Rs. 20000
C
Rs. 22000
D
Rs 22250
E
None of these
Question 173Single Answer
A vector which makes equal angle with the vectors 1/3(i – 2j + 2k), 1/5(- 4i – 3k) and j is
A
5i + j + 5k
B
– 6i + j + 5k
C
5i – j – 5k
D
5i + j – 5k
E
none of theses
Question 174Single Answer
A cistern is normally filled in 8 h but takes two hours longer to fill because of a leak in its bottom. : cistern is full, the leak will empty it in
A
10h
B
18h
C
30h
D
40h
E
None of these
Question 175Single Answer
A and B are 20 km apart. A can walk at an average of 4 km/h and B at an average speed of 6 km/h, IF they start walking towards each other at 8 am at wha1 will they meet?
A
9:00 am
B
9:30 am
C
10:00 am
D
10:30 am
E
None of these
Question 176Single Answer
15 persons can fill 35 boxes in 7 days. How many persons are required to fill 65 boxes in 5 days?
A
39
B
49
C
33
D
36
E
None of these
Question 177Single Answer
There are n different books and p copies of each. The number of ways in which a selection can be made from them, is
A
np
B
pn
C
(p +1)n – 1
D
(n + 1)p – 1
E
None of these
Question 178Single Answer
A saree is sold at a profit of 20%. If both the cost price and selling price are Rs. 100 less, the profit would be 5% more. The cost price is
A
Rs. 100
B
Rs. 200
C
RS. 300
D
Rs. 500
E
None of these
Question 179Single Answer
Surbhi sold a washing for Rs 9499 at a gain of 15% find the cost price of the washing machine
A
Rs 8000
B
Rs 8100
C
Rs 8260
D
Rs 8300
E
none of these
Question 180Single Answer
The value of x in the given proportion is 15kg : 12 kg : : x : Rs 36
A
Rs 45
B
45 kg
C
Rs 54
D
54 kg
E
none of these
Question 181Single Answer
The ratio of 250 m and 0.75 cm is
A
3 : 10
B
10 : 3
C
1000 : 3
D
100 : 3
E
none of these
Question 182Single Answer
A man borrowed interest on a sum at 15% simple interest. He paid Rs 2250 as interest after 5 yr. The sum borrowed by him is
A
Rs 5000
B
Rs 4500
C
Rs 4000
D
Rs 2500
E
none of these
Question 183Single Answer
If the compound interest on a sum for 2 yr at 12.5% is Rs 3400, the simple interest will be
A
Rs 3200
B
Rs 3100
C
Rs 3000
D
Rs 2900
E
none of these
Question 184Single Answer
The average of four consecutive number A, B, C and D respectively is 49.5 what is the product B and D ?
A
2499
B
2352
C
2450
D
2550
E
none of these
Question 185Single Answer
The mean of 15 observations is 15. If 3 is subtracted from each observations, the new mean is
A
45
B
18
C
12
D
5
E
none of these
Question 186Single Answer
Mishra, Sharma and Shukla started a business with Rs 47000. Mishra puts in Rs 5000 more than Sharma and Sharma Rs 3000 more than shukla. The share of Mishra out of the profit of Rs 14100 will be
A
Rs 3600
B
Rs 4500
C
Rs 6000
D
Rs 6300
E
none of these
Question 187Single Answer
15 yr hence, karim will be just four times as old as he was 15 yrs. Ago. His present age is
A
15 yr
B
25 yr
C
35 yr
D
40 yr
E
none of these
Question 188Single Answer
If separate teams of four or six or eleven students are made from the students of a class, three students are left in each case. The smallest possible number of students in the class is
A
132
B
135
C
136
D
138
E
None of these
Question 189Single Answer
The sum of the age of 4 members of a family 5 year ago was 94 years. Today when the daughter has been married off and replaced by a daughter in law. The sum of their age is 92. Assuming that there has been no other change in the family structure and all the people are alive What is the difference in the age of the daughter and the daughter-in-law
A
22 years
B
11 years
C
25 years
D
19 years
E
15 years
Question 190Single Answer
The sum of nine consecutive odd numbers of set-A is 621. What is the sum of different set of six consecutive even numbers whose lowest number is 15 more than the lowest number of set-A
A
498
B
468
C
478
D
488
E
None of these
Question 191Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question
3.88 x 5.6 x 11.5 – 31.653 = ?
A
234.880
B
265.404
C
213.067
D
256.072
E
none of these
Question 192Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question
93% of 456 = ?
A
435.06
B
419.02
C
443.04
D
424.08
E
none of these
Question 193Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question
8.2 x ? = 465.76
A
56.8
B
48.6
C
62.4
D
74.2
E
none of these
Question 194Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question
1485 ÷ (44 x 0.75) = ?
A
33
B
56
C
45
D
67
E
none of these
Question 195Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question
128 ÷ 8 ÷ 0.4 = ?
A
36
B
42
C
48
D
54
E
none of these
Question 196Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question
9358-5086-2384 =?
A
1788
B
1988
C
2188
D
2388
E
none of these
Question 197Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question
Four of the following, five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
39
B
48
C
56
D
31
E
72
Question 198Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question
253 x 43 – 8002 = (?)2
A
36000
B
60000
C
3600
D
6000
E
none of these
Question 199Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question
23.35 + 33.25 + 325.52 = ?
A
382.12
B
387.14
C
391.92
D
404.86
E
none of these
Question 200Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question
