Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 2Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 3Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 4Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 5Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 6Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 7Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 8Single Answer
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically
Question 9Single Answer
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 10Single Answer
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline
Question 11Single Answer
The term classic style implies
A
you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B
a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C
both a and b
D
font style
E
None of these
Question 12Single Answer
The term click implies
A
to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
a button in a dialog box
C
to shut down or exit a dialog box
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 13Single Answer
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
A
Minimize the window
B
Close the associated window or application
C
Maximize the window
D
Move the window
Question 14Single Answer
A command button
A
is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B
is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
D
is a small button with an X on it
E
None of these
Question 15Single Answer
What is smallest unit of the information?
A
A bit
B
A byte
C
A block
D
A nibble
Question 16Single Answer
A cursor is
A
to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on the clipboard
B
a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
pressing and holding the main mouse button
D
A button in a dialog box
E
None of these
Question 17Single Answer
What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?
A
A structured collection of data only
B
Software used to create, manage, retrieve, and update data in databases
C
A physical device for storing database backups
D
A programming language used only for calculations
Question 18Single Answer
The meaning of cut is
A
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
B
to cut a document in two unequal parts
C
to cut a document in two equal parts
D
Only b and c are correct
Question 19Single Answer
A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user is called as
A
pre - determined setting
B
user - setting
C
default
D
setting
E
None of these
Question 20Single Answer
The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and manage files and programs is
A
wall paper
B
desktop
C
background
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 21Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 22Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 23Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 24Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 25Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 26Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 27Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 28Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 29Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 30Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 31Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 32Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 33Single Answer
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012
Question 34Single Answer
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Question 35Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 36Single Answer
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A
they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B
they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C
they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D
their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Question 37Single Answer
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A
Dutt committee
B
Lakdawala committee
C
Cheliah Committee
D
Chakravorty Committee
Question 38Single Answer
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A
1975
B
1981
C
1991
D
2000
Question 39Single Answer
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A
1,2 and 3
B
1,2 and 4
C
1,3 and 4
D
2,3 and 4
Question 40Single Answer
When was first human development report of India issued
A
April 2001
B
March 2000
C
June 2002
D
April 2002
Question 41Single Answer
How many censuses have been carried out since independence
A
5
B
6
C
7
D
8
Question 42Single Answer
For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
A
2001
B
2010
C
2012
D
2011
Question 43Single Answer
Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
A
1 only
B
1 and 2
C
1 and 3
D
1,2, and 3
Question 44Single Answer
The period of 12th Five Year Plan
A
2007-12
B
2008-13
C
2010-15
D
2012-17
Question 45Single Answer
A closed economy is an economy in which
A
the money supply is fully controlled
B
deficit financing takes place
C
only exports take place
D
neither exports nor imports take place
Question 46Single Answer
Who is the Cabinet Minister for public enterprises ?
A
Dr. Damodar Rout
B
Debi Prasad Mishra
C
Jogendra Behera
D
Pradip Kumar Amat
Question 47Single Answer
Who is the minister of State of Commerce & Transport ?
A
Prafulla Kumar Mallick
B
Usha Devi
C
Ramesh Chandra Majhi
D
Arun Kumar Sahoo
E
Pradip Kumar Amat
Question 48Single Answer
What is the total Area (in sq. km) of Odisha ?
A
1,55,707 sq. km
B
1,047,553 sq. km
C
2,033,124 sq. km
D
1,88,697 sq. km
Question 49Single Answer
What is the literacy rate of Odisha (in %) ?
A
68.74 %
B
77.42 %
C
36.93 %
D
73.45 %
Question 50Single Answer
How many Districts are there in Odisha ?
A
20
B
30
C
39
D
41
Important Questions Package
Odisha Police Station Officer Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy Odisha Police Station Officer Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in Odisha Police Station Officer question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
Odisha Police Station Officer (Fire Service) Paper 1 Exam - English & Odia
Description : 1000 Question With Answer
₹101[₹500]
2.
Odisha Police Station Officer (Fire Service) Paper 1 Exam - English & Odia
Description : 1500 Question With Answer
₹131[₹500]
3.
Odisha Police Station Officer (Fire Service) Paper 2 Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question With Answer
₹101[₹500]
4.
Odisha Police Station Officer (Fire Service) Paper 2 Exam - English
Description : 2000 Question With Answer
₹151[₹500]
5.
Odisha Police Station Officer (Fire Service) Paper 2 Exam - English
Description : 3000 Question With Answer
₹181[₹500]
6.
Odisha Police Station Officer (Fire Service) Paper 2 Exam - English
Description : 4000 Question With Answer
₹201[₹500]
7.
Odisha Police Station Officer (Fire Service) Paper 2 Exam - English
Description : 5000 Question With Answer
₹221[₹500]
8.
Odisha Police Station Officer (Fire Service) Paper 3 Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question With Answer
₹101[₹500]
9.
Odisha Police Station Officer (Fire Service) Paper 3 Exam - English
Description : 2000 Question With Answer
₹151[₹500]
10.
Odisha Police Station Officer (Fire Service) Paper 3 Exam - English
Description : 3000 Question With Answer
₹181[₹500]
11.
Odisha Police Station Officer (Fire Service) Paper 1 Exam - English & Odia
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
12.
Odisha Police Station Officer (Fire Service) Paper 2 Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
13.
Odisha Police Station Officer (Fire Service) Paper 3 Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
14.
Odisha Police Station Officer (Fire Service) Paper 1 Exam Question Bank Book - English & Odia
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹450[₹800]
15.
Odisha Police Station Officer (Fire Service) Paper 2 Exam Question Bank Book - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹390[₹600]
16.
Odisha Police Station Officer (Fire Service) Paper 3 Exam Question Bank Book - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹390[₹600]
General Studies
Question 51Single Answer
What is the Capital of Odisha ?
A
Gajapati
B
Ganjam
C
Bhubaneshwar
D
Koraput
Question 52Single Answer
Which is the largest river in Odisha ?
A
Mahanadi
B
The Brahmani
C
The Bahuda
D
Indravati
Question 53Single Answer
During the ancient times, Odisha was known as _______ ?
A
Oriya
B
Kalinga
C
Kharavela
D
Kannauj
Question 54Single Answer
_________ dam was constructed on the river Mahanadi.
A
Gopabandhu
B
Chandipur
C
Talcher
D
Hirakund
Question 55Single Answer
What is the total area (in km) occupied by Mahanadi ?
A
852.8 kms
B
395 kms
C
165 kms
D
701 kms
Question 56Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 57Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 58Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 59Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 60Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 61Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 62Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 63Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 64Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 65Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 66Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 67Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 68Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 69Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 70Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 71Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 72Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 73Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 74Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 75Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 76Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 77Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 78Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 79Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 80Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 81Single Answer
Passage :
Find the missing number in the following series ?
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A
71
B
61
C
79
D
69
Question 82Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A
HID
B
SON
C
Both LAP and BUT
D
CAR
E
Both CAR and LAP
Question 83Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A
LAP
B
BUT
C
CAR
D
SON
E
HID
Question 84Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 85Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 86Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 87Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN
(Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word), how many words will remain unchanged?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
More than three
E
None
Question 88Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN (Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
According to the English alphabetical series how many letters are there between the first letter of the third word and the first letter of the fifth word?
A
Two
B
One
C
None
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 89Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN (Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
If the first letter of all the words is changed to the previous letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will have more than one vowel?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
More than three
E
None
Question 90Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN (Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
If all the vowels (in all the words) are changed to the next letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will form meaningful English words?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
More than three
E
None
Question 91Single Answer
Which of the following were involved in reducing or eliminating unjust social discrimination in pre-colonial India?
1. Buddhism
2. Bhakti movement
3. Sufi movement
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
A
I and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
All of the above
Question 92Single Answer
Which of the following is/are NOT associated with the cause of women social reform movements in India?
1. All India Muslim Ladies Conference
2. Arya Samaj in Punjab
3. Pandita Ramabai
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
All are associated
Question 93Single Answer
Which of the following statements ah Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar is correct?
1. He was a key figure of the Bengal Renaissance.
2. He took the initiative in proposing and pushing the Widow Remarriage Act 1856.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
I only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 94Single Answer
Consider the following about Tattwabodini Sabha:
1. It was a splinter group of the Brahmo Samaj.
2. It was founded by Debendranath Tagore.
3. Its main objective was to promote a rational and humanist form of Hinduism based on the Vedanta.
Select the correct answer using the given codes.
A
1 and 2 only
B
3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 95Single Answer
With reference to Sister Nivedita, consider the following statements:
1. She became the first Western woman to be received into an Indian monastic order.
2. She served as the president of Ramakrishna Mission.
3. She termed the teachings of Buddhists as anti-Vedic and regressive.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
I only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1 and 2 only
Question 96Single Answer
Consider the following with reference to the East India Association organised in London:
1. It was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji.
2. The organisation aimed to present correct information about India to the British public and voice Indian grievances.
3. The East India Association incorporated the National Indian Association before the Komagata Maru incident.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 97Single Answer
The aim of the Indian Association found by Surendranath Banerjee was to
A
Represent the views of the educated middle class and take united community action.
B
Give shape to and establish the Indian National Congress.
C
Advocate constitutional reforms through legislative action.
D
Organise seditious movements to dethrone the British empire.
Question 98Single Answer
The Unionist Party was a powerful political party during the period 1923–1947. Consider the following about this party:
1. The party represented the interests of land holders-Hindus, Muslims and also the Sikhs.
2. The party was particularly powerful in the Punjab region and it did not favour the creation of Pakistan as a separate state.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both
D
None
Question 99Single Answer
The Ilbert Bill controversy is said to be a high watermark in the history of Indian National Movement.
This is because it invoked issues of
1. Racial discrimination between Indian and Europeans.
2. Security lapse on the Indian borders, especially the North-West Frontier Province.
3. Suppression of Indian media houses and their nationalisation by the government.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 100Single Answer
The Vernacular Press Act in British India was concerned with
A
Promoting local language new for generating local employment
B
Providing for licensing and rep of newspapers published by indigenous tribes
C
Banning all vernacular la publications in India
D
None of the above
Question 101Single Answer
The Cripps mission was an attempt by the British government to
A
Extend communal representation in the Imperial legislature
B
Convince the Congress to join the Central legislature
C
Secure full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II
D
Conclude the Round Table Conferences Successfully
Question 102Single Answer
The proposal of the Cripps mission was that
1. India would be a dominion associated with the United Kingdom
2. An elected body charged with the task of making the constitution would be setup immediately after the World War Il is stopped.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
I only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 103Single Answer
The proposal of the Cripps mission was that
1. An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up and it would be free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth
2. After the end of the World War I, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution
3. Any province not willing to join the Indian Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 104Single Answer
Why Indian National Congress (INC) leaders were not satisfied with the Cripps Mission (1942) proposals?
A
Cripps Mission did not address the issue of separate electorates.
B
Cripps Mission did not deliberate any matter with the Indian leaders and proposed unilateral measures.
C
Leaders wanted full independence rather than a dominion status.
D
Cripps Mission agreed for post-war real transfer of power but maintained that the Viceroy and Secretary of State shall be appointed by the crown.
Question 105Single Answer
Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch 'Individual Satyagraha' due to dissatisfaction With
A
Government of India Act, 1935 which eroded autonomy of local bodies
B
Religious intolerance in the countryside
C
August offer made by the British during the course of the Second World War
D
State of untouchables in the country
Question 106Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 107Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 108Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 109Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 110Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 111Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 112Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 113Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 114Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 115Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 116Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 117Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 118Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 119Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 120Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 121Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 122Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 123Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 124Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 125Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 126Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 127Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 128Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 129Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 130Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Question 131Single Answer
Passage :
information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206
Question 132Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these
Question 133Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%
Question 134Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these
Question 135Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these
Question 136Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
A
4%
B
3%
C
1%
D
None of these
Question 137Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A ᴖ (A ᴗ B) equal to ?
A
Complement of A
B
Complement of B
C
B
D
A
Question 138Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
A
10%
B
15%
C
20%
D
25%
Question 139Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
A
25%
B
100%
C
75%
D
0%
Question 140Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
A
15
B
25
C
40
D
75
Question 141Single Answer
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 142Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 143Single Answer
Dimensions of impulse are
A
[MLT –1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT–2]
D
[ML–1T–3]
Question 144Single Answer
Potential is measured in
A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these
Question 145Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 146Single Answer
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A
Ca3Al2O6
B
Ca3SiO5
C
Ca2SiO4
D
Ca3(PO4)2
Question 147Single Answer
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium
Question 148Single Answer
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 149Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus
Question 150Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
A
Manganese
B
Potassium
C
Phosphorus
D
Calcium
Question 151Single Answer
It is said that Ashoka attacked Kalinga to get a Beautiful Girl of Fisherman Caste. Name the Girl
A
Lalita
B
Chandrika
C
Karubaki
D
Rupambika
Question 152Single Answer
In which year was the Kalinga War Fought
A
150 BC
B
261 BC
C
75 Dc
D
166 BC
Question 153Single Answer
In Odisha KingAshoka did set up two H.Q.One was at Bhubaneswar. Where was the Second H.Q
A
Jaugada
B
Lalitgiri
C
Mallechhmunda
D
Sonepur
Question 154Single Answer
Jaugada is in which district
A
Puri
B
Keonjhar
C
Ganjam
D
Koraput
Question 155Single Answer
Witnessing mindess' massaere in Kalinga Was Ashoka got repentant and embraced Bhddhism. From which Buddhist Guru. He took initiation and Wbcame Buddhist
A
Upagupta
B
Chankya
C
Panini
D
Harisen
Question 156Single Answer
Name the song and daughter of Ashoka who were sent to Srilanka for spread of Buddhism
A
Ram Deo and Damayanti
B
Devendra and Madhuri
C
Kumar Gupta and Kalavati
D
Mahendra and Sanghamitra
Question 157Single Answer
Before Ashoka King of which Dynasty of Magadha had attacked Odisha and taken away a statue of Jain Guru.
A
Maurya
B
Nanda
C
Sunga
D
Kanva
Question 158Single Answer
In which year the great king Kharbel of Chedi Dynasty had sat on the throne of Kalinga.
A
192 BC
B
160 BC
C
244 BC
D
118 BC
Question 159Single Answer
Name the King of Magadha who was defeated by Kharbel and He Retrieved the Jain Guru Statue taken away by Nanda King.
A
Pushya Bhuti Sunga
B
Bikram Giri Mitra AI
C
Bachaspati Sunga
D
Brihaspati Mitra Sung
Question 160Single Answer
Name the Power of South India defeated by King Kharbel
A
Chola
B
Pandya
C
Shatkarni
D
Chalukya
Question 161Single Answer
Name the Powerful Tribe ruling over vast area of Odisha in Old Days.
A
Bhanja
B
Jvang
C
ODRA
D
Sabar
Question 162Single Answer
In 4th century A. D. which Dynasty did come into prominence ruling over coastal areas of Odisha with Capital at Batia Sripura .
A
Chauhan
B
Mathras
C
Gajapati
D
Surya
Question 163Single Answer
Mathras were ruling over which area of Odisha
A
Cuttack
B
Mayurbhanj
C
Sambalpur
D
Ganjam
Question 164Single Answer
Which Dynasty came into Prominence in the Coastal area of Odisha in the 7th Century .
A
Bhanja
B
Nanda
C
Sailodbhava
D
Somvamsi
Question 165Single Answer
Name the areas where Sailodbhava Dinasty was Ruling .
A
Mayurbhanja
B
Ganjam &Puri
C
Western Odisha
D
Balasore
Question 166Single Answer
Which part of Odisha is Known as Kongad
A
Ganjam and Puri
B
Sambalpur
C
Balasore
D
Mayurbhanja
Question 167Single Answer
Name the King of Sailodbhava Dynasty who left Odisha along with 20000 followers to settle in South East Asia (Bali Island)
A
Pulind Sen
B
Pratap Dev
C
Mahendra Sen
D
Gopal Sen
Question 168Single Answer
Which Dynasty dId come into prominence in the coastal area of Odisha in eighth century A . D .
A
Somavamsi
B
Bhanja
C
Gajapati
D
Bhaumakara
Question 169Single Answer
Name the Capital of Bhumakara King
A
Balasore
B
Jajpur
C
Cuttack
D
Puri
Question 170Single Answer
Bhaumakaras were followers of whichReligion
A
Saiva
B
Baishanav
C
Jainism
D
Buddhism
Question 171Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 172Single Answer
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine
Question 173Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 174Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 175Single Answer
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
M.N. Roy
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 176Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 177Single Answer
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A
BARC
B
ISRO
C
DRDO
D
HAL
Question 178Single Answer
In which year did India successfully launch its first satellite, Aryabhata?
A
1975
B
1965
C
1980
D
1990
Question 179Single Answer
What is the name of India's first indigenously developed satellite launched by ISRO?
A
INSAT-1A
B
Aryabhata
C
Rohini
D
Bhaskara
Question 180Single Answer
What is the name of India's first nuclear reactor?
A
Dhruva
B
Kamini
C
Apsara
D
Kalpakkam
Question 181Single Answer
The "Utkarsh Odisha – Make in Odisha Conclave 2025" was inaugurated by whom in Bhubaneswar?
A
Chief Minister of Odisha
B
Prime Minister of India
C
President of India
D
Union Minister of Commerce & Industry
Question 182Single Answer
The "Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) 2025" is scheduled to be held in which city of Odisha?
A
Cuttack
B
Puri
C
Bhubaneswar
D
Konark
Question 183Single Answer
The Odisha Economic Survey 2024-25 projects the state's GSDP (at constant prices) to grow by what percentage over the previous year?
A
6.0%
B
7.2%
C
8.5%
D
9.1%
Question 184Single Answer
The Odisha Economic Survey 2024-25 projects the state's GSDP (at constant prices) to grow by what percentage over the previous year?
A
6.0%
B
7.2%
C
8.5%
D
9.1%
Question 185Single Answer
Which new scheme, with an outlay of Rs.7,550 crore over three years, has been announced in the Odisha Budget 2025-26 to provide concrete houses to poor families?
A
Biju Pucca Ghar Yojana
B
Antyodaya Gruha Yojana
C
Mo Ghara Yojana
D
Awas Plus Yojana
Question 186Single Answer
The annual allocation for each constituency under the Member of Legislative Assembly Local Area Development Scheme (MLALAD) in Odisha has been enhanced from Rs.3 crore to what amount in 2025-26?
A
Rs.4 crore
B
Rs.5 crore
C
Rs.6 crore
D
Rs.7 crore
Question 187Single Answer
Which scheme in Odisha focuses on empowering women in rural areas by providing access to microfinance, skill development, and market linkages, primarily through Self-Help Groups (SHGs)?
A
Mamata
B
Biju Yuva Sashaktikaran Yojana
C
Mission Shakti
D
KALIA
Question 188Single Answer
The "Shahid Madho Singh Haath Kharcha Scheme" was launched by the Odisha Chief Minister to provide one-time annual assistance to whom?
A
Farmers
B
Tribal students
C
Artisans
D
Senior citizens
Question 189Single Answer
Odisha has approved funding for 100 villages under which act for forest management and protection, with Gram Sabhas managing the funds directly?
A
Wildlife Protection Act
B
Forest Conservation Act
C
Forest Rights Act
D
Biodiversity Act
Question 190Single Answer
What is the estimated revenue surplus as a percentage of GSDP for Odisha in 2025-26?
A
2.5%
B
2.9%
C
3.0%
D
3.5%
Question 191Single Answer
Which ministry launched the e-SHRAM portal to register unorganized workers in India?
A
Ministry of Labour and Employment
B
Ministry of Finance
C
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
D
Ministry of Home Affairs
Question 192Single Answer
What is the primary objective of the ‘BioE3 Policy’ approved by the Union Cabinet?
A
Foster high-performance biomanufacturing
B
Promote traditional farming practices
C
Increase coal production
D
Enhance organic farming
Question 193Single Answer
Which state launched the ‘Indiramma Atmiya Bharosa Scheme’ in 2025?
A
Telangana
B
Andhra Pradesh
C
Karnataka
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 194Single Answer
How many individuals were announced to receive the Padma Awards in 2025 by the Government of India?
A
121
B
139
C
140
D
165
Question 195Single Answer
Which Indian bank became the first to implement Clari5’s NCRP Integration Solution?
A
Bank of Baroda
B
Punjab National Bank
C
Bank of India
D
Canara Bank
Question 196Single Answer
The Polavaram Multipurpose Project, recently in the news, is located in which state?
A
Kerala
B
Karnataka
C
Andhra Pradesh
D
Maharashtra
Question 197Single Answer
Which organization launched the ‘Global Specs 2030’ initiative for affordable eye care?
A
European Union
B
United Nations Children’s Fund
C
World Health Organization
D
International Red Cross
Question 198Single Answer
The AdFalciVax vaccine, recently in the news, is related to which disease?
A
Trachoma
B
Polio
C
Measles
D
Malaria
Question 199Single Answer
What is the main objective of Exercise Devil Strike conducted by the Indian Army in 2025?
A
Testing new technologies
B
Expanding international military alliances
C
Enhancing combat preparedness and operational capabilities
D
Conducting humanitarian assistance missions
Question 200Single Answer
Which player from the Indian women’s cricket team was appointed as DSP in UP Police in 2025?
5.015 =?
