Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 2Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 3Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 4Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 5Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 6Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 7Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 8Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 9Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 10Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 11Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 12Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 13Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 14Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 15Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 16Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 17Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 18Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 19Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 20Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Accounts
Question 21Single Answer
Which is the most potent driver of business transformation during Covid-19 pandemic ?
A
Ethical consciousness
B
Scale economies and pricing power
C
Technology adoption and innovation
D
Supply chain logistics and government interventions
Question 22Single Answer
Counter Vailing Duties (CVD) are often imposed on imports to off set the impact of :
A
Predatory pricing
B
Export subsidies
C
Dumping
D
Low cost financing
Question 23Single Answer
To prevent opportunistic takeover of domestic firms amid Covid-19 pandemic. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) from countries that share borders with India is allowed through :
A
Automatic route
B
Government route
C
FIPB route
D
DPIIT route
Question 24Single Answer
Factor conditions in Michael Porter’s competitive advantage National Include :
A
Market size
B
Demand conditions
C
Internationally competitive suppliers
D
Skilled labour and scientific knowledge
Question 25Single Answer
In case the purchasing company agrees to act as the agent of the vendor for collection of the book debts, in the books of the purchasing company, the amount of debtors should be credited to :
A
Vendor’s debtors account
B
Vendor’s suspense account
C
Debtors account
D
Creditors account
Question 26Single Answer
When the value of “Investment in subsidiary” in the holding company’s balance sheet in more then the book value of the net assets acquired, the difference represents :
A
Capital reserve on consolidation
B
Goodwill on consolidation
C
Minority interest
D
Post acquisition profit
Question 27Single Answer
The basic method of valuing human assets is :
A
Adjustment
B
Amortization
C
Capitalization
D
Quasi equity
Question 28Single Answer
X and Y are partners, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 :3. They admit Z into the partnershipand for 1/5th share. X and Y decide to share the future profits in the ratio of 2 :1. What is the sacrificing ratio of X and Y ?
A
4 : 3
B
13 : 8
C
8 :13
D
4 :17
Question 29Single Answer
The value of the firm in wealth maximization objective is measured by :
A
Present value of all expected future cash flows
B
All expected future cash flows
C
Percent value of all expected future profits
D
All expected future profits
Question 30Single Answer
For a decline in price, total revenue declines in the demand of the product is :
A
Inelastic
B
Elastic
C
Unitary elastic
D
Zero elastics
Question 31Single Answer
In Cobb-Douglas production function, Q=AKαLβ increasing returns to scale occurs when :
A
α + β > 1
B
K + L > 1
C
α + β < 1
D
K + L < 1
Question 32Single Answer
The extreme case of non-price competition in an Oligopoly is :
A
Formation of cartels
B
Interdependent decision-making
C
Attaining economies of scale
D
Formation of duopoly
Question 33Single Answer
Pecking order theory in finance is based on the assertion of :
A
Asymmetric information between managers and investors
B
Symmetric information between managers and investors
C
Outside information
D
Asymmetric information among investors only
Question 34Single Answer
If a project cost is Rs. 40,000. Its stream of earning before depreciation and tax during first year through five years is expected to be Rs. 10,000, Rs. 12,000, Rs. 14,000, Rs. 16,000 and Rs. 20,000. Assume a 50% tax rate and depreciation on straight line basis; project’s ARR is :
A
14.40%
B
72%
C
16%
D
55.56%
Question 35Single Answer
According to the theory of dividend the firm should follow its investments policy of accepting all positive NPV projects and paying out dividends if and only if, funds are available :
A
Bird in hand theory
B
Investor rationality theory
C
100 percent retention theory
D
Residual theory
Question 36Single Answer
In Securitisation when no assets are acquired and the collateral is fixed for the life of the asset,the type of a structure is called as :
A
Revolving structure
B
Amortized structure
C
Collateralized structure
D
Self-liquidating structure
Question 37Single Answer
For a very large sample size the ratio between and σ is 8 : 40. Determine the sample size 𝓷 :
A
25
B
5
C
4
D
16
Question 38Single Answer
For a given set of paired data, the correlation and regression coefficients have been calculated as being equal to r,bxy and byx respectively. Now, each of values of x series is divided by 5. What effect does it have on each of these co-efficients ?
A
The three co - efficients remain unchanged
B
There is no change in r but by x changes to byx/5and bxy changes to 5bxy
C
Each of the co-efficients will be reduced to one fourth of its value
D
There is no change r but byx changes to 5byx and bxy chages to bxy/5
Question 39Single Answer
Which of the following statement is correct ?
A
Co-efficients of variance
B
If value in a series are negative, the standard deviation is also negative
C
If value in a series multiplied by σ, the variance would be multiplied by 36
D
Standard deviation is equal to square of variance
Question 40Single Answer
For a poisson distribution variable X, P(X=0) = 2P(X=1), its standard deviation would be :
A
B
0.5
C
D
2
Question 41Single Answer
A test that contains a fair sample of the tasks and skills actually needed for the job in question is :
A
Construct validity
B
Content validity
C
Test validity
D
Criterion validity
Question 42Single Answer
Which among of the following is not a primary determinant of organizational structure ?
A
Chain and span
B
Capacity and lower needs
C
Power and control
D
Differentiation and integration
Question 43Single Answer
An act in a way that results in the greatest good for the greatest number is :
A
The golden rule
B
The utilitarian principle
C
The four way test
D
Kant’s categorical imperative
Question 44Single Answer
People repeat behaviors that bring them satisfaction and pleasure and stop those that bring them dissatisfaction or pain is known as :
A
Law of exercise
B
Law of redo
C
Low of effect
D
Low of readiness
Question 45Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is true about under the Base I Accord, BCBS, fixed the minimum requirement of capital fund for banks at ?
A
8 percent of the total risk weighted assets
B
9 percent of the total risk weighted assets
C
10 percent of the total risk weighted assets
D
1000 crore
Question 46Single Answer
Which of the following statement is correct relating to Indian Financial System ?
A
RBI has direct supervision over depositories and mutual funds
B
Monetary control is exercised through cash reserve ratio and statutory liquidity ratio
C
Primary dealers mainly deal in shares, mutual fund units
D
The decrease in statutory liquidity ratio contracts the credit creation
Question 47Single Answer
Which one of the following is not one of the advantages of Derivatives market ?
A
Leveraging increases risk
B
They enhance liquidity in the market for underlying assets
C
They represent a form of insurance against risks
D
They reduce price volatility
Question 48Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is not true about Indian Money Market ?
A
Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs) are financial institutions that constitute organized component of money market
B
Money market mutual funds are allowed to sell units to corporates and individuals
C
A Well-developed money market is essential for a modern economy
D
In the Indian Money Market, the predominant place is enjoyed by government and semi-government securities
Question 49Single Answer
Which of the following is not true while determining length of distribution channel ?
A
The larger the market size, the longer the channel
B
If the average lot size is large, it is better to have a longer channel
C
If the product and the market require a high level of service, it is advisable to keep a shorter channel
D
If customers shop for an assortment of products, it demands for a water channel of distribution
Question 50Single Answer
Which of the following can be categorized as people processing services ?
A
Health care
B
Legal services
C
Education
D
Transportation
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Accounts
Question 51Single Answer
SBUs or products that have lost their position of leadership and are in the low growth markets, are known as :
A
Star
B
Problem child
C
Dog
D
Cash cow
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following is not a valid basis for market segmentation ?
A
Customer Based Segmentation
B
Technology Oriented Segmentation
C
Competition Related Segmentation
D
Product Related Segmentation
Question 53Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is a promissory note ?
A
I promise to Q Rs. 7,000, 7 days after my marriage
B
On demand, I promise to pay B or bearer Rs. 5,000
C
I promise to pay Rs. 5,000 on C’ death provided C leaves with me enough money to pay that sum
D
I acknowledge to be indebted to you for Rs. 10,000 to be paid on demand for value received
Question 54Single Answer
A claim for ‘quantum meruit’ cannot succeed :
A
Where is divisible contract is partly performed
B
When an indivisible contract for a lumpsum is partly performed
C
When a contract is discovered to be unenforceable due to some technical defect
D
In the case of breach of contract, the aggrieved party can claim reasonable compensation for k what he has done under the contract
Question 55Single Answer
The first offence for infringement of copyright can be for a maximum of imprisonment for a term of :
A
6 months and a fine of Rs. 20,000
B
3 years and a fine of Rs 50,000
C
3 years and a fine of Rs 2,00,000
D
1 year and a fine of Rs 3,00,000
Question 56Single Answer
Which one of the following conditions does not constitute a valid agency by necessity ?
A
There should be have been actual and definite commercial necessity for the agent to act promptly
B
The agent should have acted bonafide and for benefit of the principle
C
The agent should have adopted the most reasonable and practicable course under the circumstances
D
Destruction of the subject matter of the contract of agency
Question 57Single Answer
If assessee is engaged in the business of growing and manufacturing tea in India, the non-agricultural income in that case be :
A
40% the income from such business
B
25% the income from such business
C
60% the income from such business
D
75% the income from such business
Question 58Single Answer
AMT provisions are applicable on :
A
Corporate assessee
B
Non Corporate assessee
C
HUF
D
An Individual
Question 59Single Answer
X, an employee of the private company, gets Rs. 30,000 p.m. as basic salary and entitled to Rs. 1,500 p.m. as entertainment allowance. What are the deductions u ∕ s 16 (ii) for gross salary in respect of entertainment allowance ?
A
Rs. 5,000
B
Rs. 18,000
C
Rs. 72,000
D
Nil
Question 60Single Answer
Which of the following provident fund is approved by the provident fund commissioner ?
A
Statutory provident fund
B
Recognized provident fund
C
Unrecognised provident fund
D
Public provident fund
General Knowledge
Question 61Single Answer
Who is the Cabinet Minister for public enterprises ?
A
Dr. Damodar Rout
B
Debi Prasad Mishra
C
Jogendra Behera
D
Pradip Kumar Amat
Question 62Single Answer
Who is the minister of State of Commerce & Transport ?
A
Prafulla Kumar Mallick
B
Usha Devi
C
Ramesh Chandra Majhi
D
Arun Kumar Sahoo
E
Pradip Kumar Amat
Question 63Single Answer
What is the total Area (in sq. km) of Odisha ?
A
1,55,707 sq. km
B
1,047,553 sq. km
C
2,033,124 sq. km
D
1,88,697 sq. km
Question 64Single Answer
What is the literacy rate of Odisha (in %) ?
A
68.74 %
B
77.42 %
C
36.93 %
D
73.45 %
Question 65Single Answer
How many Districts are there in Odisha ?
A
20
B
30
C
39
D
41
Question 66Single Answer
What is the Capital of Odisha ?
A
Gajapati
B
Ganjam
C
Bhubaneshwar
D
Koraput
Question 67Single Answer
Which is the largest river in Odisha ?
A
Mahanadi
B
The Brahmani
C
The Bahuda
D
Indravati
Question 68Single Answer
During the ancient times, Odisha was known as _______ ?
A
Oriya
B
Kalinga
C
Kharavela
D
Kannauj
Question 69Single Answer
_________ dam was constructed on the river Mahanadi.
A
Gopabandhu
B
Chandipur
C
Talcher
D
Hirakund
Question 70Single Answer
What is the total area (in km) occupied by Mahanadi ?
A
852.8 kms
B
395 kms
C
165 kms
D
701 kms
Question 71Single Answer
What is the theme of World Intellectual Property Day 2023, which is observed annually on April 26 for creating awareness of intellectual property and its safeguarding ?
A
IP and Youth: Innovating for a Better Future
B
IP and SMEs: Taking Your Ideas to Market
C
Innovate for a Green Future
D
Women and IP: Accelerating Innovation and Creativity
Question 72Single Answer
Which of the following countries will host the third in-person Quad Summit on May 24, 2023 ?
A
India
B
The USA
C
Japan
D
Australia
Question 73Single Answer
In April 2023, the State Bank of India (SBI) has opened its fourth exclusive branch for startups. In this context, which of the following Indian cities does not have SBI’s startup branch ?
A
Mumbai
B
Bengaluru
C
New Delhi
D
Chennai
Question 74Single Answer
In April 2023, the Y20 Pre Summit Meeting under G20 is being hosted by the Ministry of Youth and Sports Affairs in which Indian city from 26th to 28th April 2023 ?
A
Bengaluru
B
Leh
C
Kanpur
D
Srinagar
Question 75Single Answer
In April 2023, who among the following has been appointed as the Acting Chief Justice of the Kerala High Court with effect from April 24, 2023 ?
A
Biswanath Somadder
B
Sarasa Venkatanarayana Bhatti
C
S Manikumar
D
Akil Kureshi
Question 76Single Answer
In April 2023, 14th Dalai Lama received the Ramon Magsaysay Award in Person after _____years .
A
59
B
52
C
64
D
70
Question 77Single Answer
Name the company that has recently (in April’23) won First Prize in the Ministry of Steel’s Ispat Rajbhasha Samman” for the yaer 2021-22 .
A
Tata Steel Limited
B
Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited
C
JSW Steel Limited
D
ESL Steel Limited
Question 78Single Answer
Which stock exchange company’s subsidiary has recently (in April ’23) introduced new guidelines for retaining a demerged entity in its respective index ?
A
Calcutta Stock Exchange
B
Vadodara Stock Exchange
C
Bombay Stock Exchange
D
National Stock Exchange
Question 79Single Answer
In April 2023, which of the following insurgent group signed a peace pact with the Assam government and Union government ?
A
Dimasa National Liberation Army
B
Kangleipak Communist Party
C
Kanglei Yawol Kanna Lup
D
Revolutionary People’s Front
Question 80Single Answer
In April 2023, who among the following was honoured with the prestigious Leipzig Book Prize for European Understanding in 2023 ?
A
Angela Steidele
B
Carolin Amlinger
C
Oliver Nachtwey
D
Maria Stepanova
General Aptitude
Question 81Single Answer
The height of 5 boys is recorded as 146 cms. 154 cms.164 cms.148 cms.And 158 cms. What is the average height of all these boys?
A
152 cms
B
158 cms
C
156 cms
D
154 cms
E
None of these
Question 82Single Answer
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
A
2 hours
B
3 hours
C
4 hours
D
5 hours
Question 83Single Answer
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
A
69
B
96
C
78
D
Cannot be determined
E
None of these
Question 84Single Answer
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
A
12
B
13
C
14
D
10
E
None of these
Question 85Single Answer
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
A
B
C
D
Question 86Single Answer
The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
A
42
B
38
C
32
D
72
E
None of these
Question 87Single Answer
Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
A
18
B
16
C
19
D
17
E
None of these
Question 88Single Answer
The difference between th of th of a number and of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
A
45
B
35
C
40
D
30
E
None of these
Question 89Single Answer
If is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
A
2024
B
2104
C
2004
D
2014
E
None of these
Question 90Single Answer
‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
A
38
B
42
C
44
D
34
E
None of these
Question 91Single Answer
The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
A
20
B
22
C
21
D
23
E
None of these
Question 92Single Answer
If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
A
50
B
75
C
57
D
60
E
None of these
Question 93Single Answer
IF the sum of four consecutive even number is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
A
52
B
54
C
56
D
48
E
None of these
Question 94Single Answer
If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
A
B
C
D
Question 95Single Answer
What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
A
118
B
95
C
110
D
100
E
None of these
Question 96Single Answer
What is 234 time 167 ?
A
48768
B
41184
C
40581
D
39078
E
None of these
Question 97Single Answer
The product of two consecutive even number is 4488. Which is the smaller number ?
A
62
B
71
C
66
D
65
E
None of these
Question 98Single Answer
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
A
B
C
D
Question 99Single Answer
What is the least number to be added to 1416 to make it perfect square ?
A
47
B
38
C
28
D
25
E
None of these
Question 100Single Answer
What is 147 times 329 ?
A
48069
B
48363
C
49021
D
48723
E
None of these
Mathematics
Question 101Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 102Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 103Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 104Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 105Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 106Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 107Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 108Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 109Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 110Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 111Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 112Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 113Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 114Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 115Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 116Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 117Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 118Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 119Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 120Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 121Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 122Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 123Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 124Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 125Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Question 126Single Answer
The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
A
{–2, 2}
B
{–1, 0, 1}
C
{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D
{0, 1, 2}
Question 127Single Answer
A
B
C
D
None of these
Question 128Single Answer
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
A
{2}
B
{1, 2}
C
{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D
{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
Question 129Single Answer
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
A
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C
{2, 4, 6}
D
{1, 3, 5}
Question 130Single Answer
If A B and A B, then
A
A is called a proper subset of B
B
A is called a super set of B
C
A is not a subset of B
D
B is a subset of A
Question 131Single Answer
The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is
A
15
B
14
C
16
D
17
Question 132Single Answer
The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is
A
2m – 1
B
m
C
m2
D
2m
Question 133Single Answer
If A = {x : x = n2, n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is
A
3
B
8
C
7
D
None of these
Question 134Single Answer
If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is
A
16
B
15
C
4
D
None of these
Question 135Single Answer
Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then
A
A is always a subset of the complement of B
B
B is always a subset of A
C
A and B are always disjoint
D
A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint
Question 136Single Answer
Which of the following is/are empty set?
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z} B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}
A
A
B
B
C
Both A and B
D
None of the above
Question 137Single Answer
The set {x : x4 = 1 and x R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
A
empty
B
finite
C
infinite
D
singleton
Question 138Single Answer
The universal set for the sets
A = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0} and
B = {x : x2 – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is
A
{1, 2}
B
{1, 3}
C
{1, 2, 3}
D
{0, 1, 2, 3}
Question 139Single Answer
If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0},
C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and
D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are
A
A and B
B
A and C
C
A, B and C
D
A, C and D
Question 140Single Answer
If A = (–3, 5) and B = [–7, 9], then
A
A = B
B
A B
C
B A
D
None of these
Question 141Single Answer
Two finite sets have m and n elements, respectively. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n respectively are
A
7, 6
B
5, 1
C
6, 3
D
8, 7
Question 142Single Answer
Combine terms: 12a + 26b - 4b – 16a .
A
4a + 22b
B
-28a + 30b
C
-4a + 22b
D
28a + 30b
Question 143Single Answer
The average of first 50 natural numbers is ………… .
A
25.30
B
25.5
C
25.00
D
12.25
Question 144Single Answer
60 Times of 8 Equals to
A
480
B
300
C
250
D
400
Question 145Single Answer
Consider the sets
A = {x : x is a real number and x2 + 1 = 0}
B = {x : x is a real number and x2 – 16 = 0}
C = {x : x is a real number and x2 = x + 2}
Which of the following is are null set ?
A
A
B
A and B
C
A and C
D
A, B and C
Question 146Single Answer
If X = {4n – 3n – 1: n Î N} and Y = {9(n – 1): n Î N}; where N is the set of natural numbers, then X È Y is equal to
A
N
B
Y – X
C
X
D
Y
Question 147Single Answer
Which of the following is / are correct?
I. {2, 3, 4} {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
II. {a, b, c} {b, c, d}
III. {x : x is an equilateral triangle in a plane} Ì {x : x is a triangle in the same plane}
IV. {x : x is an even natural number} {x : x is an integer}
A
I and III are correct
B
II and III are correct
C
Only IV is correct
D
All above are correct
Question 148Single Answer
A
B
C
D
Question 149Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. The set of all irrational numbers between √2 and √5 is an infinite set .
2. The set of all odd integers less than 100 is a finite set .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 150Single Answer
What is the Next Prime Number after 7 ?
A
13
B
12
C
14
D
11
Basic of Computer
Question 151Single Answer
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 152Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 153Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 154Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 155Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 156Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 157Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 158Single Answer
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically
Question 159Single Answer
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 160Single Answer
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline
Question 161Single Answer
The term classic style implies
A
you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B
a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C
both a and b
D
font style
E
None of these
Question 162Single Answer
The term click implies
A
to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
a button in a dialog box
C
to shut down or exit a dialog box
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 163Single Answer
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
A
Minimize the window
B
Close the associated window or application
C
Maximize the window
D
Move the window
Question 164Single Answer
A command button
A
is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B
is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
D
is a small button with an X on it
E
None of these
Question 165Single Answer
What is smallest unit of the information?
A
A bit
B
A byte
C
A block
D
A nibble
Question 166Single Answer
A cursor is
A
to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on the clipboard
B
a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
pressing and holding the main mouse button
D
A button in a dialog box
E
None of these
Question 167Single Answer
What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?
A
A structured collection of data only
B
Software used to create, manage, retrieve, and update data in databases
C
A physical device for storing database backups
D
A programming language used only for calculations
Question 168Single Answer
The meaning of cut is
A
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
B
to cut a document in two unequal parts
C
to cut a document in two equal parts
D
Only b and c are correct
Question 169Single Answer
A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user is called as
A
pre - determined setting
B
user - setting
C
default
D
setting
E
None of these
Question 170Single Answer
The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and manage files and programs is
A
wall paper
B
desktop
C
background
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 171Single Answer
What is a dialog box in a graphical user interface?
A
An on-screen window used to display information or obtain user input and selections
B
A tool used exclusively for audio and video calls
C
A hardware device used for voice commands
D
A program used exclusively to browse websites
Question 172Single Answer
A letter, memo, proposal, or other that is created using Microsoft word is called as
A
Master
B
slide
C
document
D
worksheet
E
None of these
Question 173Single Answer
The meaning of double click is
A
pushing and releasing the main mouse button twice in rapid succession when the on - tree mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
appearance of an icon
C
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 174Single Answer
The term drag and drop means
A
appearance of an icon
B
used for selecting text
C
to move text or an object by positioning the mouse pointer on the item you want to move, pressing and holding the mouse button to drop the object into its new location
D
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
E
None of these
Question 175Single Answer
What does dragging with a mouse mean?
A
Holding down a mouse button while moving the mouse pointer
B
Closing an application
C
Double-clicking an icon without moving the mouse
D
Restarting the computer
Question 176Single Answer
What is the purpose of a drop-down list in a graphical user interface?
A
To display a list of selectable choices when expanded
B
To permanently delete selected files
C
To close all running applications
D
To display only error messages
Question 177Single Answer
The default name for a desktop icon that opens an explore window displaying information about your system’s disk drives and also special system folders like printers and control panel
A
my computer
B
news groups
C
message box
D
network neighbourhood
E
None of these
Question 178Single Answer
________________ means to enlarge window to its maximum area so that it will full entire desktop
A
maximize
B
zoom
C
enlarge
D
extend
E
None of these
Question 179Single Answer
What is HTML primarily used for?
A
Defining the structure and meaning of content on web pages
B
Managing computer hardware drivers
C
Encrypting all Internet traffic
D
Controlling the computer's BIOS
Question 180Single Answer
What is the process of visually emphasizing selected text or an object on a computer screen commonly called?
A
Shading
B
Hyperlinking
C
Highlighting
D
Compiling
Question 181Single Answer
What is an icon in a graphical user interface?
A
An action performed when a button is clicked
B
A small graphical representation of an application, command, file, folder, or function
C
A type of computer memory
D
A text-only command prompt
Question 182Single Answer
In graphical user interfaces, what does an ellipsis (...) following a menu command commonly indicate?
A
The command will open a dialog box or require additional input
B
The command will immediately shut down the computer
C
The command has already been executed
D
The command cannot be selected
Question 183Single Answer
_____________ is an area of memory assigned to store any e-mail message for the user
A
Outlook express
B
yahoo.com
C
post- box
D
mail box
E
None of these
Question 184Single Answer
Group of letters, numbers, and symbols with a common typerface is called as
A
file
B
font
C
style
D
GUI
E
None of these
Question 185Single Answer
A___ is an electronic device that process data converting into information.
A
processor
B
computer
C
menu
D
mouse
E
None of these
Question 186Single Answer
This is the process of getting access to the computer
A
sign in
B
log in
C
log off
D
enter
E
None of these
Question 187Single Answer
The full step wise process of closing a computer is called
A
shutting
B
closing
C
log off
D
shut down
E
None of these
Question 188Single Answer
What is a clickable connection from one web document or resource to another called?
A
Hyperlink
B
Compiler
C
Cursor
D
Clipboard
Question 189Single Answer
This device is used to connect your computer with a telephone line, so that can access information form other servers and ordinary users too, said device is called
A
modem
B
set top box
C
LAN card
D
UPS
E
None of these
Question 190Single Answer
What is an Internet discussion area where users exchange messages about a particular subject traditionally called?
A
Newsgroup
B
Spreadsheet
C
Search engine
D
Device driver
Question 191Single Answer
Which two functional units are fundamental components of a CPU?
A
Control Unit and Arithmetic Logic Unit
B
Keyboard and mouse
C
Monitor and printer
D
Hard disk and optical drive
Question 192Single Answer
Hardware that are easily attached to computer and can be played instantly are called as
A
multimedia
B
plug and play
C
digital
D
point to point
E
None of these
Question 193Single Answer
There is a central file in windows OS that is used to keep track of information about installed hardware and software and their preferences on the specific computer. This file is
A
system database
B
main menu
C
registry
D
directory
E
None of these
Question 194Single Answer
It is the smallest dot that can be uniquely drawn on a computer screen.This is
A
Boxel
B
Computer dort
C
Cursor
D
Pixel
E
None of these
Question 195Single Answer
In an office document, a picture, chart, shape, or other inserted item is generally treated as what?
A
Object
B
Clipboard
C
Cursor
D
Taskbar
Question 196Single Answer
What is a quick press and release of the secondary mouse button called?
A
Right-click
B
Double-click
C
Drag
D
Scroll
Question 197Single Answer
An operation to retrieve information image as well as text which is stored in clip board and inset it at the destined place is
A
copy
B
insert
C
select
D
paste
E
None of these
Question 198Single Answer
Display bar that list all the open folders and active application is
A
menu bar
B
tool bar
C
task bar
D
window list
E
None of these
Question 199Single Answer
A large space common in most of the windows which is for user’s work with that application is
A
application view
B
work area
C
project view
D
tool bars
E
None of these
Question 200Single Answer
__________- is the list of print jobs waiting to be sent to a particular printer