How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 2Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 3Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 4Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 5Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 6Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 7Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 8Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 9Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 10Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 11Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 12Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 13Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 14Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 15Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 16Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 17Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 18Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 19Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 20Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 21Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 22Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 23Single Answer
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these
Question 24Single Answer
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four
Question 25Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 26Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 27Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 28Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 29Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 30Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 31Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, BONDING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 32Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARGES each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 33Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EDSU using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 34Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RTOU using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 35Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ENGULFED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 36Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CORPORATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 37Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, fifth and sixth letters of the word ‘EDUCATION’, which would be the last letter of the word? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
A
T
B
X
C
A
D
E
E
K
Question 38Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘OEHM’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 39Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONFIRM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 40Single Answer
If JOSEPH is coded as FKOALD, then GEORGE will be coded as
A
CAKNCA
B
CADMNO
C
CAKNIT
D
JAKINS
English
Question 41Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 42Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 43Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 44Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 45Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 46Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 47Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 48Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 49Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 50Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
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English
Question 51Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 52Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 53Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 54Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 55Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 56Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 57Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 58Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 59Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 60Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Question 61Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The students who want to speak in English
B
must read Hindu newspaper
C
in their initial stage
D
No error
Question 62Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B
for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C
but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D
No error
Question 63Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is
B
a quarter to ten
C
by my watch
D
No error
Question 64Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mr. Thakur lived
B
in the three-hundred year
C
old house
D
in Patna
Question 65Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The uncle of mine who is farmer
B
gave me a piece of useful advice
C
when I went to see him three weeks ago
D
No error
Question 66Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My neighbor along with his children
B
is going tonight to see a Taj Mahal
C
At Agra
D
No error
Question 67Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Kabir an Rahim are great poets
B
but the former is
C
greater than latter
D
No error
Question 68Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He has abandoned
B
the criminal activities
C
after returning from jail
D
No error
Question 69Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
We must have
B
sympathy for
C
needy and the poor
D
No error
Question 70Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Chinese is a very
B
difficult language to understand for those
C
who have never been to China
D
No error
Question 71Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The old women placed
B
kettle on fire
C
come back to the bedroom
D
No error
Question 72Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The singing is both
B
my vocation and avocation because it is a
C
source of joy and bread to me
D
No error
Question 73Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Snake we saw was
B
very deadly thought
C
it left the kitchen quietly
D
No error
Question 74Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Being M.A. only he
B
could not be appointed
C
to the post of a lecturer
D
No error
Question 75Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Our first trip was the most interesting one
B
but our second one
C
was even more interesting
D
No error
Question 76Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mahatma Gandhi did not solve
B
all the problems of future
C
but he did solve problems of
D
No error
Question 77Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Having finished his breakfast
B
he started working on the problem
C
that had been awaiting disposal for the long time
D
No error
Question 78Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The new railway line will
B
greatly improve transport and communication
C
in eastern part of the country
D
No error
Question 79Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It being rainy day most of
B
the people out on the street
C
were carrying umbrellas
D
No error
Question 80Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
More you
B
think of it
C
the worse it becomes
D
No error
General Awareness
Question 81Single Answer
Which if the following is TRUE about the meaning of a bank?
A
It is a financial establishment
B
It acts like a financial intermediary
C
It accepts deposits from the public
D
It provides safe locker facility
E
All the above
Question 82Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT true about the functioning of a bank ?
A
A bank should always add the word “bank” to its name.
B
They include general utility services and agency services.
C
A bank is a non-profit organization having service oriented approach.
D
A bank acts as a connecting link between borrowers and lenders of money.
E
A bank lends out money in the form of loans to those who require it for different purposes.
Question 83Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a banking service?
A
Issuance of debit and credit cards
B
Providing safe custody of valuable items
C
ATM services
D
Provision for higher interest rates to the accounts held by women
E
Online transfer of funds across the globe
Question 84Single Answer
The definition of Banking is given in which of the following ACTs?
A
Negotiable Instrument Act 1881
B
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act 1934
C
Banking Regulation Act 1949
D
Company Act 1956
E
None of the above
Question 85Single Answer
Banks in India are regulated by :
A
The Reserve Bank of India Act,1934
B
The Banking regulation Act,1949
C
The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment and Misc. Provisions) Act, 1953
D
The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1980
E
None of the above
Question 86Single Answer
Which of the following terms is used in Banking field ?
A
Zero Hour
B
Input devices
C
Privilege motion
D
Sedimentary
E
Invest rate swap
Question 87Single Answer
A centralized database with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is known as?
A
Investment Banking
B
Core Banking
C
Mobile Banking
D
National Banking
E
Specialized Banking
Question 88Single Answer
Which of the following is necessary while opening deposit account in banks ?
A
Will
B
Registration
C
Nomination
D
Indemnity
E
Guarantee
Question 89Single Answer
Which of the following is not banking term?
A
Letter of credit
B
MIBOR
C
Factoring services
D
Entry load
E
None of the above
Question 90Single Answer
Systematic investment plans relates to:
A
Mutual Funds
B
Life Insurance Companies
C
Commercial Banks
D
Post office saving schemes
E
None of the above
Question 91Single Answer
Which is the following is / are third party products sold out by banks?
A
Mutual funds
B
Term deposits
C
Credit cards
D
All of these
E
None of the above
Question 92Single Answer
The first bank the Bank of Hindustan was established in:
A
1780
B
1790
C
1770
D
1802
E
1814
Question 93Single Answer
Which of the following NOT a Retail banking product ?
A
Checking account
B
Saving account
C
Money market account
D
Certificate of deposit (CD)
E
Mutual Fund
Question 94Single Answer
Which of the following is Not a Business (or commercial / investment) banking product ?
A
Business loan
B
Capital raisig
C
Checking account
D
Project finance
E
Term loan
Question 95Single Answer
The banker’s bank in any country called as:
A
Commercial bank
B
Central bank
C
EXIM bank
D
Scheduled Bank
E
Development bank
Question 96Single Answer
Which of the following is the Central bank of India?
A
State Bank of India
B
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
C
Export-Import Bank of India
D
Reserve Bank of India
E
None of the above
Question 97Single Answer
What is the Minimum balance required to be maintained for a saving account with cheque book facility?
A
Rs. 100
B
Rs. 400
C
Rs. 500
D
Rs.1000
E
Rs. 1500
Question 98Single Answer
Which of the following represents Profit and Loss Account ?
A
Position of profit on a particular date
B
Position of profit for a given period
C
Position of loss for a given period
D
Both 2 and 3
E
None of the above
Question 99Single Answer
Which among the following is /are ‘Term Deposit’?
A
Fixed Deposit
B
Current Deposit
C
Recurring Deposit
D
All of the above
E
None of the above
Question 100Single Answer
The first bank of limited liability managed by Indians was :
A
The Commercial Bank of India
B
Allahabad Bank
C
Oudh Commercial Bank
D
Punjab National bank ltd
E
None of the above
Question 101Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 102Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 103Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 104Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 105Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 106Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 107Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 108Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 109Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 110Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 111Single Answer
Which city hosted the launch of Capital Radio in 1973?
A
Manchester
B
London
C
Birmingham
D
Glasgow
Question 112Single Answer
The brand "Flora," introduced in 1964, is associated with which product?
A
Cheese
B
Margarine
C
Yogurt
D
Bread
Question 113Single Answer
Which Caribbean country, where French is widely spoken, is considered the home of voodoo?
A
Jamaica
B
Haiti
C
Martinique
D
Guadeloupe
Question 114Single Answer
In the 1984 film "The Bounty," which character was portrayed by Anthony Hopkins?
A
Fletcher Christian
B
William Bligh
C
James Cook
D
Edward Edwards
Question 115Single Answer
Pre-eclampsia is a medical condition that typically develops after how many weeks of pregnancy?
A
12 weeks
B
20 weeks
C
28 weeks
D
36 weeks
Question 116Single Answer
Which future Labor prime minister served as mayor of Stepney in 1919?
A
Harold Wilson
B
Clement Attlee
C
James Callaghan
D
Ramsay MacDonald
Question 117Single Answer
Which acid reacts with sodium hydroxide to produce salt and water?
A
Sulfuric acid
B
Nitric acid
C
Hydrochloric acid
D
Acetic acid
Question 118Single Answer
Emma Watson is the ambassador for which Italian fashion house's perfume "Paradoxes’"?
A
Gucci
B
Prada
C
Versace
D
Dolce & Gabbana
Question 119Single Answer
"Best Worst Thing That Ever Could Have Happened" is a 2016 documentary about which Stephen Sondheim musical that was initially unsuccessful?
A
Into the Woods
B
Merrily We Roll Along
C
Company
D
Follies
Question 120Single Answer
Which country is the host of the biennial multinational air exercise INIOCHOS?
A
France
B
Greece
C
Australia
D
India
Quantitative Aptitude
Question 121Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 122Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 123Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 124Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 125Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 126Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 127Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 128Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 129Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 130Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 131Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 132Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 133Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 134Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 135Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 136Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 137Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 138Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 139Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 140Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 141Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 142Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 143Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 144Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 145Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Question 146Single Answer
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A
1
B
10
C
Infinite
D
None
Question 147Single Answer
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A
12345
B
1331
C
1234
D
1213
Question 148Single Answer
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A
1
B
3
C
7
D
9
Question 149Single Answer
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A
4
B
8
C
16
D
32
Question 150Single Answer
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Question 151Single Answer
Which of the following is composite ?
A
17
B
19
C
21
D
23
Question 152Single Answer
What is √0.0009 ?
A
0.003
B
0.03
C
0.3
D
0.09
Question 153Single Answer
What is √1156 ?
A
32
B
34
C
36
D
38
Question 154Single Answer
What is √2025 ?
A
35
B
40
C
45
D
50
Question 155Single Answer
What is (51^2) ?
A
2601
B
2501
C
2551
D
2651
Question 156Single Answer
7 8 18 57 ?
A
244
B
174
C
186
D
none of these
Question 157Single Answer
Last year my age was a perfect square number. Next year it will be a cubic number. What is my Present age ?
A
25 years
B
27 years
C
26 years
D
24 years
Question 158Single Answer
If a + b = 5, a2 + b2 = 13, the value of a – b (where a > b) is
A
2
B
-1
C
1
D
-2
Question 159Single Answer
How many factors does 100 have ?
A
6
B
7
C
8
D
9
Accounts
Question 160Single Answer
What Is The Shortcut Key For Calculator Area?
A
Ctrl+A
B
Ctrl+N
C
Ctrl+M
D
Ctrl+C
Question 161Single Answer
What Is The Shortcut Key To Change Period?
A
Ctrl+C
B
Ctrl+F2
C
Alt+F1
D
Alt+F2
Question 162Single Answer
Which Shortcut Key Is Used To Alter The Company Info?
A
Alt+F1
B
Alt+F2
C
Alt+F3
D
Ctrl+F1
Question 163Single Answer
"Day Book" Option In Tally Available In?
A
Multi Accounting Printing
B
Display
C
Ratio Analysis
D
Balance Sheet
Question 164Single Answer
For The Internal Transaction Of Account We Use?
A
Contra Voucher
B
Payment Voucher
C
Debit Note
D
Journal Entry
Question 165Single Answer
What Is The Shortcut Key Of Payment Entry?
A
F5
B
F6
C
F7
D
F8
Question 166Single Answer
Shortcut Key Of Print Is?
A
Alt+P
B
Ctrl+P
C
Alt+Ctrl+P
D
None Of These
Question 167Single Answer
Transfer Of Material Option Present In?
A
Accounting Voucher
B
Journal Entry
C
Inventry Voucher
D
None Of These
Question 168Single Answer
Shortcut Key For "Company Configuration" Is?
A
F11
B
F12
C
F10
D
F10
E
F3
Question 169Single Answer
Which One Of The Following Is A Fixed Asset?
A
Cash
B
Machinery
C
Bank
D
None Of These
Question 170Single Answer
Who is Father of Scientific Management ?
A
Henry Fayol
B
Elton Mayo
C
Chester Bernard
D
F. W. Taylor
Question 171Single Answer
Appointment of a Company Secretary is made by –
A
Promoters
B
Board of Directors
C
Debenture holders
D
Government
Question 172Single Answer
Bonus Shares are issued to –
A
Equity Shareholders
B
Preference Shareholders
C
Debenture Holders
D
Secured Creditors
Question 173Single Answer
Under which principle, all the rights of an insured are transferred to insurance company after making payment of claim ?
A
Subrogation
B
Utmost good faith
C
Contribution
D
Average clause
Question 174Single Answer
Rs. 10,000 spent on the replacement of worn out parts of an electronic machinery is treated as –
A
Capital expenditure
B
Revenue expenditure
C
Deferred revenue expenditure
D
Capital loss
Question 175Single Answer
EPS is calculated as –
A
EBIT / Equity shares
B
EBIT – Preference Dividend / Equity shares
C
EAT / Equity shares
D
EAT – Preference Dividend / Equity shares
Question 176Single Answer
Which is the oldest form of organisation ?
A
Line
B
Line and staff
C
Functional
D
Matrix
Question 177Single Answer
In ‘Direction’ who is given importance ?
A
To machines
B
To paper work
C
To man
D
To production
Question 178Single Answer
Standard costing is a technique of –
A
Planning
B
Organising
C
Coordination
D
Control
Question 179Single Answer
‘Table A’ is an alternative to –
A
Prospectus
B
Articles of Association
C
Memorandum of Association
D
None of the above
Question 180Single Answer
Companies Act is governed by
A
RBI
B
SEBI
C
Partnership Act
D
Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Question 181Single Answer
Own shares purchased by a company with a view to reduce its capital is called
A
sale
B
Purchase
C
buy-back
D
Private placement
Question 182Single Answer
A company in which there is only one member is called
A
one member company
B
one person company
C
single company
D
Individual company
Question 183Single Answer
Shares which have preferential rights are called
A
Equity share
B
Preference share
C
Debenture
D
Bond
Question 184Single Answer
Which of the following is the registered capital of the company ?
A
Nominal capital
B
Authorised capital
C
Share capital
D
Both (a) and (b)
Question 185Single Answer
Capital which is called only at the time of winding-up of the company is called
A
Capital reserve
B
Reserve capital
C
Secure capital
D
Authorised capital
Question 186Single Answer
Which kind of preference share entitIes its holders to receive arrear of dividends of previous years ?
A
Cumulative preference share
B
Non-cumulative preference share
C
Convertible preference share
D
Non-convertible dividend share
Question 187Single Answer
Which document is an invitation offer to public to subscribe for company’s share ?
A
Red herring prospectus
B
Prospectus
C
In lieu of prospectus
D
None of the above
Question 188Single Answer
The balance of share forfeiture account can be used to
A
Provide for discount given at the time of reissue
B
Write-off preliminary expenses
C
Write-off bad debts
D
None of the above
Question 189Single Answer
A company issued 25,000 shares and received applications for 35,000 shares. Company wants to allot shares to everyone who has applied. What will be the ratio for allotment ?
A
6 : 7
B
7: 5
C
5 : 7
D
7 : 6
Question 190Single Answer
A company issued 10,000 shares of Rs10 each. Amount is payable as Rs 2 on application, Rs 5 on allotment and Rs 3 on first and final call. A shareholder who had 1,000 shares failed to pay allotment and first call amount on due date. After a month, he paid the due amount. What will be the amount received by company against issue of shares ?
A
Rs 92,000
B
Rs 90,000
C
Rs 1,00,000
D
Rs 8,000
Question 191Single Answer
Nominal share capital is
A
That part of the authorised capital which is issued by the company
B
The amount of capital which is actually applied for by the prospective shareholders
C
The maximum amount of share capital which a company is authorised to issue
D
The amount actually paid by the shareholders
Question 192Single Answer
Money received in advance from shareholders before it is actually called-up by the directors is
A
Mebited to calls-in-advance account
B
Credited to calls-in-advance account
C
Debited to calls account
D
None of the above
Question 193Single Answer
Shares can be forfeited
A
For non-payment of call money
B
For failure to attend meetings.
C
For failure to repay the loan to the bank
D
For which shares are pledged as a security.
Question 194Single Answer
The profit on reissue of forfeited shares is transferred to
A
General reserve
B
Capital redemption reserve
C
Capital reserve
D
Revenue reserve
Question 195Single Answer
Balance of share forfeiture account is shown in the balance sheet under the item
A
Current liabilities and provisions
B
Reserves and surpluses
C
Share capital
D
Unsecured loans
Question 196Single Answer
Amox Ltd. is registered with a capital of 10,00,000 equity shares of Rs 10 each. 6,00,000 equity shares were offered for subscription to public. Applications were received for 6,00,000 shares. All calls were made and amount was duly received except final call of Rs 2 on 80,000 shares.What Will will be the amount of share capital shown in the balance sheet ?
A
Rs 60,00,000
B
Rs 58,40,000
C
Rs 5,84,000
D
Rs 6,00,000
Question 197Single Answer
Which amongst the following shares conter voting rights on its holders ?
A
Equity shares
B
Redeemable preference shares
C
Participatory preference shares
D
None of the above
Question 198Single Answer
Amount payable on shares can be received in installments by the company. What is the first installment called ?
A
Application money
B
Allotment money
C
First call money
D
Second call money
Question 199Single Answer
Total capital specified in capital clause is Rs 50,00,000 which is divided in 35,000 equity shares of Rs 100 each and 15,000, 10% preference shares of Rs100 each. The company issued 10,000 equity shares and 5,000 preference shares. The public subscribed for 9,000 equity shares and 4,500 preference shares out of the issued shares. What will be the subscribed capital amount ?