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Objective Questions

Latest OMC JE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Mechanical Engineering, General Awareness, Reasoning & Mental Ability, Quantitative Aptitude, English

Question Bank OMC Junior Engineer Exam (Mechanical) - English

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Mechanical Engineering

Question 1Single Answer

A fin will be more effective when Bio number is

A
Greater than 1
B
Equal to 1
C
Between 1 and 3
4 4
D
Less than 1

Question 2Single Answer

A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is

Question 3Single Answer

Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?

A
Newtonian fluid
B
Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C
Pseudo-plastic fluids
D
Dilatent fluids

Question 4Single Answer

What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s²)

Question 5Single Answer

What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?

A
0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B
4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C
0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D
4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg

Question 6Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
Both 1 and 2
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 7Single Answer

State whether following flow field is physically possible?

A
Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B
Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C
Possible for steady, compressible flow
D
Not Possible

Question 8Single Answer

In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is

A
0.25
B
0.26
C
2
D
4

Question 9Single Answer

A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is

A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW

Question 10Single Answer

On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?

A
man power
B
profit
C
inventory
D
manufacturing

Question 11Single Answer

In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?

A
3 m/s²
B
6 m/s²
C
9 m/s²
D
15 m/s²

Question 12Single Answer

The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is

A
9
B
-6
C
117
D
10.8

Question 13Single Answer

The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is

A
More for lighter fluid
B
More for denser fluid
C
Less for denser fluid
D
Less for lighter fluid

Question 14Single Answer

In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies

A
Linearly with fluid density
B
Inversely with pressure drop
C
Directly as square of pipe radius
D
Inversely with fluid velocity

Question 15Single Answer

A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is

A
1.5mm
B
2.5mm
C
4.0mm
D
5.0mm

Question 16Single Answer

Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10^-6m²/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is

A
0.05m
B
0.07m
C
0.08m
D
0.09m

Question 17Single Answer

In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is

A
8 kW
B
4 kW
C
2 kW
D
1 kW

Question 18Single Answer

In a hydraulic coupling

A
The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
B
The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
C
The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
D
The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque

Question 19Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?

A
1,2 and 3 only
B
1,2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1,2, 3 and 4

Question 20Single Answer

A water jet 0.0015m²in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is

A
150 N
B
1470 N
C
340 N
D
900 N

Question 21Single Answer

Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n².
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 22Single Answer

Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?

A
Energy
B
Mass
C
Momentum
D
Angle

Question 23Single Answer

Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in

A
Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
B
Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
C
Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
D
Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid

Question 24Single Answer

Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 10⁵. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be

A
2Q
B
A little more than 2Q
C
A little less than 2Q
D
4Q

Question 25Single Answer

Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be

A
7.5 W/m²K
B
15 W/m²K
C
25 W/m²K
D
35 W/m²K

Question 26Single Answer

For laminar flow through a round pipe, the shear stress

A
Remains constant over the cross-section
B
Varies linearly with the radial distance
C
Must be zero at all point
D
Varies parabolically with radial distance

Question 27Single Answer

Percentage clongation during tensile test is indicative of

A
Creep
B
Malleability
C
Ductility
D
Elasticity in the metal

Question 28Single Answer

Which of the above statements is not correct in the context of laminar flow through a pipeline?

A
Shear stress is zero at the center and varies linearly with pipe radius
B
Head loss is proportional to square of the average flow velocity
C
The friction factor varies inversely with flow Reynolds number
D
No dispersion of die injected into the flow stream

Question 29Single Answer

Laminar flow between closely spaced parallel plates is governed by the consideration of which one of the following pair of forces?

A
Pressure and inertial forces
B
Gravity and inertial forces
C
Viscous and inertial forces
D
Pressure and inertial forces

Question 30Single Answer

Formation and collapse of vapour bubbles are believed to be the root cause for cavitation in hydraulic turbines. Most favorable condition for the formation of bubbles is set in the turbine at

A
Penstock/nozzl
B
Guide vanes/Inlet of the runner
C
Vanes receiving impact of jet
D
Outlet of the runner/Entrance of the draft tube

Question 31Single Answer

For fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe with Reynolds number Rethe friction factor is

A
Inversely proportional to Re
B
Proportional to Re
C
Proportional to square of Re
D
Independent of Re

Question 32Single Answer

The ratio of power outlet of the pump to the power input to the pump is known as

A
Mechanical efficiency
B
Static efficiency
C
Overall efficiency
D
Manometric efficiency

Question 33Single Answer

A pump is defined as a device which converts

A
Hydraulic energy into Mechanical energy
B
Mechanical energy into Hydraulic energy
C
Kinetic energy into Mechanical energy
D
None of the above

Question 34Single Answer

The specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of the unit of such a size that is

A
Delivers the unit discharge at unit head
B
Requires unit power to develop unit head
C
Delivers the unit discharge at unit power
D
Produces unit power with unit head available

Question 35Single Answer

Negative slip occurs in reciprocating pumps, when delivery pipe is

A
Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running atlow speed
B
Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running at high speed
C
Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at low speed
D
Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at high speed

Question 36Single Answer

The pressure inside a soap bubble of 50 mm diameter is 25 N/m² above the atmospheric pressure. The surface tension in soap film would be

A
0.156 N/m
B
0.313 N/m
C
0.624 N/m
D
0.078 N/m

Question 37Single Answer

A Newtonian fluid is one which

A
Is viscous but incompressible
B
Has a linear relationship between the shear stress and the rate of angular deflection
C
Exhibits an increase in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
D
Exhibits a decrease in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation

Question 38Single Answer

Unlike the viscosity of fluids, the viscosity of gases increases with increasing temperature. This is due to

A
Increased cohesive force between the molecule
B
Increased momentum transfer in the molecules
C
Decreased momentum transfer in the molecules
D
Increase in both cohesive force and momentum transfer

Question 39Single Answer

Manometer is a device used for measuring

A
Velocity at a point in a fluid
B
Pressure at a point in a fluid
C
Discharge of a fluid
D
None of the above

Question 40Single Answer

When a dolphin glides through air, it experiences an external pressure of 0.75 m of mercury. The absolute pressure on dolphin when it is 5m below the free surface of the water is

A
0.10 N/m²
B
0.5 N/m²
C
1.0 N/m²
D
0.15 N/m²

Question 41Single Answer

Which of the above statements is correct?

A
For a floating body, the stable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
B
For a floating body, the stable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains lower than the center of gravity of the body
C
For a floating body, the neutral equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
D
For a floating body, the unstable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body

Question 42Single Answer

A wall of 0.6m thickness has normal area of 1.5 m² and is made up of material of thermal conductivity 0.4 W/mK. If the temperature on the two sides of the wall are 800°C and 1000°C, the thermal resistance of the wall is

A
1.8 K/W
B
1.8 W/K
C
1 K/W
D
1 W/K

Question 43Single Answer

A flownet is a graphical representation of streamlines and euqipotnetial lines such as these lines

A
Intersect each other at various different angles forming irregular shaped nets
B
Intersect each other orthogonally forming curvilinearsquares
C
Indicate the direction but not magnitude of vector
D
Indicate the direction and magnitude of vector

Question 44Single Answer

Which of the above statements is correct for the velocity of potential?

A
Existence of velocity potential is an indication of irrotational nature of the flow
B
The velocity potential automatically satisfies the continuity equation
C
Velocity potential can be defined only for 2-dimensional flow
D
All of the above

Question 45Single Answer

Angle of diverging portion of the venturimeter is limited to 7°, because:
1.Flow decelerates in the diverging portion and pressure increases in the downstream direction. Hence, the fluid experience an adverse pressure gradient, if the divergence angle is large.
2 .Flow separation takes place due to adverse pressure gradient when divergence angle is large.
3 .If the divergence angle is large, a negative pressure is created at the throat which obstructs the flow of fluid.
Which of the above reasons are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 46Single Answer

A gas is flowing through an insulated nozzle. If the inlet velocity of gas is negligible and there is an enthalpy drop of 45kJ/kg, the velocity of gas leaving the nozzle is

A
100m/s
B
200m/s
C
300m/s
D
350m/s

Question 47Single Answer

Which of the above statements are correct for turbo-prop powered aircrafts?
1 .The propulsion efficiency of turbo-prop is higher than that of turbo-jet and rockets for low speeds up to about 800km/hr.
2.For the same thrust the turbine in the turbo prop aircraft is smaller than in the turbo-jet aircraft.
3.For the turbo-prop the flight velocity cannot exceed the jet velocity.

A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only

Question 48Single Answer

If absolute jet exit velocity from a jet engine is 2800m/s and forward flight velocity is 1400m/s then propulsive efficiency is

A
33.33%
B
40%
C
66.66%
D
90%

Question 49Single Answer

An air-breathing aircraft is flying at an altitude where the air density is half the value at ground level. With reference to the ground level, the air fuel ratio at this altitude will be

A
1
2
B
1
C
2
D
4

Question 50Single Answer

Which of the above statements are correct for rockets?
1.Unlike the turbo-jet aircraft, in rockets the flight velocity can exceed the jet velocity.
2.In rockets gases having lower molecular weight increase the specific thrust.
3.In rockets the gases are expanded in the nozzle up to the atmospheric pressure.

A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only

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Mechanical Engineering

Question 51Single Answer

In a differential manometer a head of 0.6m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3m of fluid B in limb 2. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is

A
2
B
0.5
C
0.3
D
0.18

Question 52Single Answer

At x = 0, the function f (x) = |x| will be

A
minimum
B
maximum
C
point of inflection
D
neither minimum nor maximum

Question 53Single Answer

The center of pressure of a plane submerged surface

A
Is a point on the submerged area at which the resultant hydrostatic force is supposed to act
B
Should always coincide within the center of submerged area
C
Should be at the center of gravity of the plane surface
D
Is always below the centroid of area

Question 54Single Answer

A furnace is provided with an insulating refractory lining. The overall thermal conductivity of the material is 0.03 W/mK. The thickness of the lining is 100 mm. The inner and outer temperatures are 250°C and 50°C, respectively. The heat loss to the surroundings will be

A
30 J/m²/s
B
60 J/m²/s
C
60 J/s
D
30 J/s

Question 55Single Answer

A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of its volume is under mercury?

A
0.5
B
0.4
C
0.515
D
Fully immersed

Question 56Single Answer

A right circular cylinder, open at the top, is filled with a liquid of specific gravity 1.2, and rotated about its vertical axis at such a speed that half of the liquid spills out. The pressure at the center of the bottom is

A
Zero
B
One-fourth its value when the cylinder was full
C
One-third its value when the cylinder was full
D
three-fourth its value when the cylinder was full

Question 57Single Answer

Consider the following statements about velocity potential:
1.Velocity potential is a vector function similar to stream function
2.It is a fully three dimensional function and not limited to two
coordinates
3.Velocity potential does not exist at stagnation points
4.Velocity potential exists only if the flow is irrotational
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
1, 3 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4

Question 58Single Answer

During a constant pressure expansion of a gas, 33.3% heat is converted into work while the temperature rises by 20 K. The specific heat of the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of work, W is

A
8%
B
10%
C
12%
D
15%

Question 59Single Answer

Principle mechanism of material removal in ECM?

A
Chemical corrosion
B
Ionic dissolution
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
Non of the above

Question 60Single Answer

The centre-line velocity in a pipe flow is 2m/s. What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if the Reynolds number of the flow is 800?

A
2 m/s
B
1.5 m/s
C
1 m/s
D
0.5 m/s

General Awareness

Question 61Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 62Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 63Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 64Single Answer

In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3

Question 65Single Answer

Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women

A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna

Question 66Single Answer

It is said that Ashoka attacked Kalinga to get a Beautiful Girl of Fisherman Caste. Name the Girl

A
Lalita
B
Chandrika
C
Karubaki
D
Rupambika

Question 67Single Answer

In which year was the Kalinga War Fought

A
150 BC
B
261 BC
C
75 Dc
D
166 BC

Question 68Single Answer

In Odisha KingAshoka did set up two H.Q.One was at Bhubaneswar. Where was the Second H.Q

A
Jaugada
B
Lalitgiri
C
Mallechhmunda
D
Sonepur

Question 69Single Answer

Jaugada is in which district

A
Puri
B
Keonjhar
C
Ganjam
D
Koraput

Question 70Single Answer

Witnessing mindess' massaere in Kalinga Was Ashoka got repentant and embraced Bhddhism. From which Buddhist Guru. He took initiation and Wbcame Buddhist

A
Upagupta
B
Chankya
C
Panini
D
Harisen

Question 71Single Answer

‘Bharat Drone Shakti exhibition 2023’ was inaugurated in which state/UT ?

A
Rajasthan
B
Punjab
C
Uttar Pradesh
D
Assam

Question 72Single Answer

Which Union Ministry issued the ‘Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Rules, 2023’ ?

A
Ministry of Home Affairs
B
Ministry of Finance
C
Ministry of External Affairs
D
Ministry of Corporate Affairs

Question 73Single Answer

Which Union Ministry is associated with which ‘GOBA Rdhan’ scheme ?

A
Ministry of Jal Shakti
B
Ministry of Commerce and Industry
C
Ministry of MSME
D
Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

Question 74Single Answer

‘Jharia Master Plan’, which was seen in the news, is associated with which Union Ministry ?

A
Ministry of Coal
B
Ministry of MSME
C
Ministry of Steel
D
Ministry of Jal Shakti

Question 75Single Answer

Which country’s women’s cricket team has clinched a gold medal at the Asian Games 2023 ?

A
Bangladesh
B
Pakistan
C
India
D
Sri Lanka

Reasoning & Mental Ability

Question 76Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 77Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 78Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 79Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 80Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 81Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 82Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 83Single Answer

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 84Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 85Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

Question 86Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 87Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 88Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 89Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 90Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

Quantitative Aptitude

Question 91Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 92Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 93Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 94Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 95Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 96Single Answer

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Question 97Single Answer

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5

Question 98Single Answer

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say

Question 99Single Answer

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30

Question 100Single Answer

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121

Question 101Single Answer

Passage :

information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Chemistry but not in Physics.

A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206

Question 102Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.

A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these

Question 103Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25

What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?

A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%

Question 104Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?

A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these

Question 105Single Answer

Passage :

What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?

A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these

English

Question 106Single Answer

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the

Question 107Single Answer

Have the car stolen!

A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car

Question 108Single Answer

The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.

A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.

Question 109Single Answer

I had to stop all my work to complete this project.

A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me

Question 110Single Answer

They have published the names of all the successful candidates.

A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.

Question 111Single Answer

The online shopping site lowered the prices.

A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site

Question 112Single Answer

Who taught you to drive a truck ?

A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?

Question 113Single Answer

We shall invite Suresh.

A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us

Question 114Single Answer

Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.

A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.

Question 115Single Answer

The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.

A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow

Question 116Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold

Question 117Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.

Assets

A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits

Question 118Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Affidavit

A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony

Question 119Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Hollow

A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid

Question 120Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Cosset

A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle

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