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OPSC AAE (Paper-I) Exam - English

Duration: 120 ยท Questions: 100 ยท Max Marks: 100 ยท Language: 3

View OPSC Assistant Agriculture Engineer 2026 Exam Page

General Engineering

1
At temperature of 298 Kelvin, Silicon is not suitable for most-electronic applications, due to small amount of conductivity. This can be altered by
  1. A.Gettering
  2. B.Doping
  3. C.Squeezing
  4. D.Sintering
2
By doping Germanium with Gallium, the types of semi-conductors formed are
1. N type
2. P type
3. Intrinsic
4. Extrinsic
  1. A.1 and 4
  2. B.2 and 4
  3. C.1 and 3
  4. D.2 and 3
3
An n-type of silicon can be formed by adding impurity of:
1. Phosphorous
2. Arsenic
3. Boron
4. Aluminum 
Which of the above are correct ?
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.3 and 4
  4. D.1 and 4
4
According to Einstein’s relationship for a semiconductor, the ratio of diffusion constant to the mobility of the charge carriers is
  1. A.Variable and is twice the volt equivalent of the temperature
  2. B.Constant and is equal to the volt equivalent of the temperature
  3. C.Equal to two and is twice the volt equivalent of the temperature
  4. D.Equal to one and is equal to the volt equivalent of the temperature
5
Swept-out voltage in PIN diode happens when PIN diode is
  1. A.Forward biased and the thickness of the depletion layer decreases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
  2. B.Reverse biased and the thickness of the depletion layer increases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
  3. C.Forward biased and the thickness of the depletion layer increases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
  4. D.Reverse biased and the thickness of the depletion layer decreases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
6
The number of holes in an N-type silicon with intrinsic value 1.5 × 1010/cm3 and doping concentration of 1017/cm3, by using mass-action law is
  1. A.6.67 × 106/cc
  2. B.4.44 × 10-25/cc
  3. C.1.5× 10-24/cc
  4. D.2.25 × 103/cc
7
A tunnel-diode is best suited for
  1. A.Very low frequencies
  2. B.50 Hz
  3. C.100 Hz
  4. D.Microwave frequencies
8
Small recovery time of a diode is most significant for
  1. A.Line-frequency rectification
  2. B.Switching operations
  3. C.High-frequency rectifications and switching operations
  4. D.Low-frequency rectifications and switching operations
9
In JFET, when operated above the pinch-off voltage, the
  1. A.Depletion region becomes smaller
  2. B.Drain current starts decreasing
  3. C.Drain current remains practically constant
  4. D.Drain current increases steeply
10
Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because, as the temperature of FET increases
  1. A.The drain current increases
  2. B.The mobility of charge carriers decreases
  3. C.The mobility of charge carriers increases
  4. D.The transconductance increases
11
Consider the following statements regarding an N-P-N Bipolar Junction Transistor:
1. Emitter diode is forward biased and collector diode is reverse biased
2. Emitter has many free electrons
3. Free electrons are injected into base and pass through collector
4. Depletion layers around junction J1 and J2 of BJT are widened 
    Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 4
  2. B.1, 3 and 4
  3. C.2, 3 and 4
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
12
A freewheeling diode T phase controlled rectifier
  1. A.Improves the line power factor
  2. B.Enables inverse operation
  3. C.Is responsible for additional reactive power
  4. D.Is responsible for additional harmonics
13
The zeners incorporated within the encapsulations of some MOSFETs are meant for
  1. A.Reducing the cost
  2. B.Biasing the gate circuit
  3. C.Self-protecting the device against transients
  4. D.None of the above
14
When UJT is used for triggering an SCR, the wave-shape of the signal obtained from UJT circuit is
  1. A.Sine wave
  2. B.Saw tooth wave
  3. C.Trapezoidal wave
  4. D.Square wave
15
Darlington pairs are frequently used in linear ICs because, they
  1. A.Do not require any capacitors or inductors
  2. B.Have enormous impedance transformation capability
  3. C.Can be readily formed/hooked from two adjacent transistors
  4. D.Resemble emitter follower
16
Which one of the following helps experimental confirmation of the Crystalline state of matter?
  1. A.Shock compression
  2. B.Photo emission
  3. C.Conductivity measurements
  4. D.X-ray diffraction
17
The electrical conductivity of pure semiconductor is:
  1. A.Proportional to temperature
  2. B.Increases exponentially with temperature
  3. C.Decreases exponentially with temperature
  4. D.Not altered with temperature
18
Consider the following statements pertaining to the resistance of a conductor:
1. Resistance can be simply defined as the ratio of voltage across the conductor to the current through the conductor. This is, in fact, Georg Ohm’s law.
2. Resistance is a function of voltage and current.
3. Resistance is a function of conductor geometry and its conductivity
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
19
The ratio of ionic radii of Cations i.e.and that of Anions i.e.for stable and unstable ceramic crystal structure, is:
  1. A.Less than unity
  2. B.Greater than unity
  3. C.Unity
  4. D.Either lesser or greater than unity
20
Which one of the following statements is correct?
  1. A.For insulators the band-gap is narrow as compared to semiconductors
  2. B.For insulators the band-gap is relatively wide whereas for semiconductors it is narrow
  3. C.The band-gap is narrow in width for both the insulators and conductors
  4. D.The band-gap is equally wide for both conductors and semiconductors
21
In an extrinsic semiconductor the conductivity significantly depends upon:
  1. A.Majority charge carriers generated due to impurity doping
  2. B.Minority charge carriers generated due to thermal agitation
  3. C.Majority charge carriers generated due to thermal agitation
  4. D.Minority charge carriers generated due to impurity doping
22
In some substances when an electric field is applied the substance become polarized. The electrons and nucleii assume new geometrical positions and the mechanical dimensions are altered. This phenomenon is called:
  1. A.Electrostriction
  2. B.Hall-Effect
  3. C.Polarization
  4. D.Magnetization
23
In ferromagnetic materials, the net magnetic moment created due to magnetization by an applied field as:
  1. A.Normal to the applied field
  2. B.Adds to the applied field
  3. C.In line with magneto motive force
  4. D.Subtracts from the applied field
24
At what temperatures domains lose their ferromagnetic properties?
  1. A.Above ferromagnetic Curie temperature
  2. B.Below paramagnetic Curie temperature
  3. C.Above 4
  4. D.At room temperature
25
Which of the following materials does not have paramagnetic properties?
1. Rare earth elements (with incomplete shell)
2. Transition elements
3. Magnesium oxide
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.3 only
  4. D.1 and 2
26
In a superconducting magnet, wires of superconducting material are embedded in the thick copper matrix, because while the material is in the superconducting state:
  1. A.The leakage current passes through copper part.
  2. B.Copper part helps in conducting heat away from the superconductor
  3. C.Copper part helps in overcoming the mechanical stress
  4. D.Copper acts as an insulating cover for superconductor
27
The crystal structure of some Ceramic materials may be thought of being composed of electrically charged Cations and Anions, instead of Atoms, and as such:
  1. A.The Cations are negatively charged, because they have given up their valence electrons to Anions which are positively charged.
  2. B.The Cations are positively charged, because they have given up their valence electrons to Anions which are negatively charged.
  3. C.The Cations are positively charged, because they have added one electron to their valence electron borrowing from Anions which are negatively charged.
  4. D.The Cations are negatively charged, as they are non-metallic whereas Anions are positively charged being metallic.
28
Manganin alloy used for making resistors for laboratory instruments contains:
  1. A.Copper, Aluminium and Manganese
  2. B.Copper, Nickel and Manganese
  3. C.Aluminium, Nickel and Manganese
  4. D.Chromium, Nickel and manganese
29
A rolled-paper capacitor of value 0.02  is to be constructed using two strips of aluminiumof width 6 cm, and wax impregnated paper of thickness 0.06 mm whose relative permittivity is 3. The length of foil strips should be:
  1. A.0.3765 m
  2. B.0.4765 m
  3. C.0.5765 m
  4. D.0.7765 m
30
In a semiconductor diode, cut-in voltage is the voltage:
  1. A.up to which the current is zero
  2. B.up to which the current is very small
  3. C.at which the current is 10% of the maximum rated current
  4. D.at which depletion layer is formed

Farm Machinery And Power

1
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
  1. A.Greater than 1
  2. B.Equal to 1
  3. C.Between 1 and 3
                   4        4
  4. D.Less than 1
2
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
  1. A.1
  2. B.2
  3. C.3
  4. D.4
3
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
  1. A.Newtonian fluid 
  2. B.Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
  3. C.Pseudo-plastic fluids
  4. D.Dilatent fluids
4
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
  1. A.8
  2. B.6
  3. C.4
  4. D.2
5
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
  1. A.0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
  2. B.4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
  3. C.0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
  4. D.4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
6
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force 
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
  1. A.Both 1 and 2
  2. B.1 only 
  3. C.2 only
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2 
7
State whether following flow field is physically possible? 
  1. A.Possible for steady, incompressible flow
  2. B.Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
  3. C.Possible for steady, compressible flow 
  4. D.Not Possible 
8
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
  1. A.0.25
  2. B.0.26
  3. C.2
  4. D.4
9
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
  1. A.10 kW 
  2. B.20 kW
  3. C.30 kW
  4. D.50 kW
10
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
  1. A.man power
  2. B.profit
  3. C.inventory
  4. D.manufacturing
11
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
  1. A.3 m/s2
  2. B.6 m/s2
  3. C.9 m/s2
  4. D.15 m/s2
12
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
  1. A.9
  2. B.-6
  3. C.117
  4. D.10.8
13
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
  1. A.More for lighter fluid
  2. B.More for denser fluid
  3. C.Less for denser fluid
  4. D.Less for lighter fluid
14
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
  1. A.Linearly with fluid density
  2. B.Inversely with pressure drop
  3. C.Directly as square of pipe radius
  4. D.Inversely with fluid velocity
15
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
  1. A.1.5mm
  2. B.2.5mm
  3. C.4.0mm
  4. D.5.0mm
16
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
  1. A.0.05m 
  2. B.0.07m
  3. C.0.08m
  4. D.0.09m
17
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
 
  1. A.8 kW     
  2. B.4 kW
  3. C.2 kW    
  4. D. 1 kW
18
In a hydraulic coupling
  1. A.The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
  2. B.The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
  3. C.The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
  4. D.The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque 
19
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
  1. A.1,2 and 3 only
  2. B.1,2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1,2, 3 and 4 
20
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
  1. A.150 N
  2. B.1470 N
  3. C.340 N
  4. D.900 N
21
Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n2.
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
  1. A.1,2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
22
Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?
  1. A.Energy 
  2. B.Mass
  3. C.Momentum
  4. D.Angle
23
Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in
  1. A.Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
  2. B.Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
  3. C.Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
  4. D.Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid 
24
Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 105. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be
  1. A.2Q
  2. B.A little more than 2Q
  3. C.A little less than 2Q
  4. D.4Q
25
 Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
  1. A. 7.5 W/m2K      
  2. B.15 W/m2K
  3. C.25 W/m2K      
  4. D. 35 W/m2K
26
For laminar flow through a round pipe, the shear stress
  1. A.Remains constant over the cross-section
  2. B.Varies linearly with the radial distance
  3. C.Must be zero at all point 
  4. D.Varies parabolically with radial distance
27
Percentage clongation during tensile test is indicative of
  1. A.Creep
  2. B.Malleability
  3. C.Ductility
  4. D.Elasticity in the metal
28
Which of the above statements is not correct in the context of laminar flow through a pipeline?
  1. A.Shear stress is zero at the center and varies linearly with pipe radius
  2. B.Head loss is proportional to square of the average flow velocity
  3. C.The friction factor varies inversely with flow Reynolds number
  4. D.No dispersion of die injected into the flow stream
29
Laminar flow between closely spaced parallel plates is governed by the consideration of which one of the following pair of forces?
  1. A.Pressure and inertial forces
  2. B.Gravity and inertial forces
  3. C.Viscous and inertial forces
  4. D.Pressure and inertial forces
30
Formation and collapse of vapour bubbles are believed to be the root cause for cavitation in hydraulic turbines. Most favorable condition for the formation of bubbles is set in the turbine at
  1. A.Penstock/nozzl
  2. B.Guide vanes/Inlet of the runner
  3. C.Vanes receiving impact of jet
  4. D.Outlet of the runner/Entrance of the draft tube 
31
For fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe with Reynolds number Rethe friction factor is
  1. A.Inversely proportional to Re
  2. B.Proportional to Re 
  3. C.Proportional to square of Re
  4. D.Independent of Re 
32
The ratio of power outlet of the pump to the power input to the pump is known as
  1. A.Mechanical efficiency
  2. B.Static efficiency
  3. C.Overall efficiency
  4. D.Manometric efficiency
33
A pump is defined as a device which converts
  1. A.Hydraulic energy into Mechanical energy
  2. B.Mechanical energy into Hydraulic energy
  3. C.Kinetic energy into Mechanical energy
  4. D.None of the above
34
The specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of the unit of such a size that is
  1. A.Delivers the unit discharge at unit head
  2. B.Requires unit power to develop unit head
  3. C.Delivers the unit discharge at unit power
  4. D.Produces unit power with unit head available
35
Negative slip occurs  in reciprocating pumps, when delivery pipe is
  1. A.Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running atlow speed
  2. B.Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running at high speed
  3. C.Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at low speed
  4. D.Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at high speed 
36
The pressure inside a soap bubble of 50 mm diameter is 25 N/m2 above the atmospheric pressure. The surface tension in soap film would be
  1. A.0.156 N/m
  2. B.0.313 N/m
  3. C.0.624 N/m 
  4. D.0.078 N/m
37
A Newtonian fluid is one which
  1. A.Is viscous but incompressible
  2. B.Has a linear relationship between the shear stress and the rate of angular deflection
  3. C.Exhibits an increase in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
  4. D.Exhibits a decrease in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
38
Unlike the viscosity of fluids, the viscosity of gases increases with increasing temperature. This is due to
  1. A.Increased cohesive force between the molecule
  2. B.Increased momentum transfer in the molecules
  3. C.Decreased momentum transfer in the molecules
  4. D.Increase in both cohesive force and momentum transfer
39
Manometer is a device used for measuring
  1. A.Velocity at a point in a fluid
  2. B.Pressure at a point in a fluid
  3. C.Discharge of a fluid
  4. D.None of the above
40
When a dolphin glides through air, it experiences an external pressure of 0.75 m of mercury. The absolute pressure on dolphin when it is 5m below the free surface of the water is
  1. A.0.10 N/m2
  2. B.0.5 N/m2
  3. C.1.0 N/m2
  4. D.0.15 N/m2
41
Which of the above statements is correct?
  1. A.For a floating body, the stable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
  2. B.For a floating body, the stable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains lower than the center of gravity of the body
  3. C.For a floating body, the neutral equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
  4. D.For a floating body, the unstable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
42
A wall of 0.6m thickness has normal area of 1.5 m2 and is made up of material of thermal conductivity 0.4 W/mK. If the temperature on the two sides of the wall are 800°C and 1000°C, the thermal resistance of the wall is
  1. A. 1.8 K/W         
  2. B. 1.8 W/K
  3. C.1 K/W           
  4. D. 1 W/K
43
A flownet is a graphical representation of streamlines and euqipotnetial lines such as these lines
  1. A.Intersect each other at various different angles forming irregular shaped nets
  2. B.Intersect each other orthogonally forming curvilinearsquares
  3. C.Indicate the direction but not magnitude of vector
  4. D.Indicate the direction and magnitude of vector
44
Which of the above statements is correct for the velocity of potential?
  1. A.Existence of velocity potential is an indication of irrotational nature of the flow
  2. B.The velocity potential automatically satisfies the continuity equation
  3. C.Velocity potential can be defined only for 2-dimensional flow
  4. D.All of the above
45
Angle of diverging portion of the venturimeter is limited to 7°, because:
1.Flow decelerates in the diverging portion and pressure increases in the downstream direction. Hence, the fluid experience an adverse pressure gradient, if the divergence angle is large.
2 .Flow separation takes place due to adverse pressure gradient when divergence angle is large.
3 .If the divergence angle is large, a negative pressure is created at the throat which obstructs the flow of fluid. 
Which of the above reasons are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only 
46
A gas is flowing through an insulated nozzle. If the inlet velocity of gas is negligible and there is an enthalpy drop of 45kJ/kg, the velocity of gas leaving the nozzle is 
  1. A.100m/s
  2. B.200m/s
  3. C.300m/s
  4. D.350m/s 
47
Which of the above statements are correct for turbo-prop powered aircrafts?
1 .The propulsion efficiency of turbo-prop is higher than that of turbo-jet and rockets for low speeds up to about 800km/hr.
2.For the same thrust the turbine in the turbo prop aircraft is smaller than in the turbo-jet aircraft.
3.For the turbo-prop the flight velocity cannot exceed the jet velocity. 
  1. A.1,2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 3 only 
48
If absolute jet exit velocity from a jet engine is 2800m/s and forward flight velocity is 1400m/s then propulsive efficiency is
  1. A.33.33%
  2. B.40%
  3. C.66.66%
  4. D.90%
49
An air-breathing aircraft is flying at an altitude where the air density is half the value at ground level. With reference to the ground level, the air fuel ratio at this altitude will be
  1. A.1
    2
  2. B.1
  3. C.2
  4. D.4
50
Which of the above statements are correct for rockets?
1.Unlike the turbo-jet aircraft, in rockets the flight velocity can exceed the jet velocity.
2.In rockets gases having lower molecular weight increase the specific thrust.
3.In rockets the gases are expanded in the nozzle up to the atmospheric pressure. 
  1. A.1,2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 3 only 
51
In a differential manometer a head of 0.6m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3m of fluid B in limb 2. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
  1. A.2
  2. B.0.5
  3. C.0.3
  4. D.0.18
52
At x = 0, the function f (x) = |x| will be
  1. A.minimum
  2. B.maximum
  3. C.point of inflection
  4. D.neither minimum nor maximum
53
The center of pressure of a plane submerged surface
  1. A.Is a point on the submerged area at which the resultant hydrostatic force is supposed to act
  2. B.Should always coincide within the center of submerged area
  3. C.Should be at the center of gravity of the plane surface
  4. D.Is always below the centroid of area 
54
A furnace is provided with an insulating refractory lining. The overall thermal conductivity of the material is 0.03 W/mK. The thickness of the lining is 100 mm. The inner and outer temperatures are 250°C and 50°C, respectively. The heat loss to the surroundings will be 
  1. A.30 J/m2/s 
  2. B. 60 J/m2/s
  3. C. 60 J/s              
  4. D.30 J/s
55
A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of its volume is under mercury?
  1. A.0.5
  2. B.0.4
  3. C.0.515
  4. D.Fully immersed
56
A right circular cylinder, open at the top, is filled with a liquid of specific gravity 1.2, and rotated about its vertical axis at such a speed that half of the liquid spills out. The pressure at the center of the bottom is
  1. A.Zero
  2. B.One-fourth its value when the cylinder was full
  3. C.One-third its value when the cylinder was full
  4. D.three-fourth its value when the cylinder was full 
57
Consider the following statements about velocity potential:
1.Velocity potential is a vector function similar to stream function
2.It is a fully three dimensional function and not limited to two
coordinates
3.Velocity potential does not exist at stagnation points
4.Velocity potential exists only if the flow is irrotational 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1, 2 and 4
  3. C.1, 3 and 4
  4. D.2, 3 and 4 
58
During a constant pressure expansion of a gas, 33.3% heat is converted into work while the temperature rises by 20 K. The specific heat of the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of work, W is
  1. A.8%      
  2. B. 10%
  3. C. 12%       
  4. D.15%
59
Principle mechanism of material removal in ECM?
  1. A.Chemical corrosion
  2. B.Ionic dissolution
  3. C.Both (a) and (b)
  4. D.Non of the above
60
The centre-line velocity in a pipe flow is 2m/s. What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if the Reynolds number of the flow is 800?
  1. A. 2 m/s 
  2. B.1.5 m/s
  3. C.1 m/s 
  4. D.0.5 m/s
61
In flow through a pipe, the transition from laminar to turbulent flow does not depend on
  1. A.Density of fluid
  2. B.Length of pipe
  3. C.Diameter of pipe
  4. D.Velocity of the fluid 
62
A 0.20m diameter pipe 20m long transports oil at a flow rate of0.01m3/s. Calculate power required to maintain flow if dynamic viscosity and density of oil is 0.08 Pas and 900 kg/m3 respectively
  1. A.4.064 kW
  2. B.3.074 kW
  3. C.5.064 kW
  4. D.4.074 kW 
63
Pressure loss for laminar flow through pipeline is dependent
  1. A.Inversely on flow of velocity
  2. B.Directly on square of pipe radius
  3. C.Directly on length of pipe
  4. D.Inversely on viscosity of flowing medium
64
Fanno line is a flow in a constant area duct 
  1. A.With friction and heat transfer but in the absence of work 
  2. B.With friction and heat transfer accompanied by work 
  3. C.With friction but in the absence of heat transfer or work
  4. D.Without friction but accompanied by heat transfer and work 
65
In an adiabatic flow with friction through a constant area duct, the following phenomenon are predicted:
1.The flow downstream tends to be sonic irrespective of the Mach-number upstream
2.In the case of initially supersonic flow, any increase in duct length beyond choked flow would make the exit flow subsonic
3.In the case of initially subsonic flow, any increase in duct length will not change sonic flow at the exit
4.The optimum pipe length for sonic outlet in supersonic flow is considerably longer than that of subsonic flow for the same flow rate 
Which of these are correct? 
  1. A.1,2,3 and 4
  2. B.1,2 and 3 only 
  3. C.1,3 and 4 only
  4. D.2,3 and 4 only 
66
In a reciprocating pump, air vessels are used to
  1. A.Smoothen the flow
  2. B.Reduce suction head
  3. C.Increase delivery head
  4. D.Reduce acceleration head 
67
Consider the following statements pertaining to centrifugal pumps:
1.The inlet to the impeller of a centrifugal pump is always axial, while the outlet may be radial or inclined.
2.The impeller may be shrouded on both sides with an eye at the centre and vanes curved backwards.
3.Impeller of double entry type has a balanced radial thrust.
4.Un-shrouded and part shrouded impeller are used only where high efficiency is unimportant. 
Which of these statements are correct? 
  1. A.1,2,3 and 4
  2. B.1,2 and 3 only
  3. C.1,2 and 4 only
  4. D.2,3 and 4 only 
68
A centrifugal pump is fully primed, but on starting it fails to deliver fluid. Thr probable reasons are listed below:
1.Leaky foot valve or suction line
2.Suction head is very slow
3.Insufficient motor speed
4.Damaged or closed delivery valve 
Which of these reasons are correct? 
  1. A.1,2,3 and 4 
  2. B.1,2 and 3 only 
  3. C.2,3 and 4 only
  4. D.1,3 and 4 only 
69
A centrifugal pump is to discharge 0.118 m3/s at speed of 1450 rpm against a head of 25m. The impeller diameter is 25cm, its width at outlet is 5cm and manometric efficiency is 75%. The vane angle at outer periphery of impeller is
  1. A.56.77°C
  2. B.59.77°C
  3. C.61.77°C
  4. D.48.77°C 
70
A turbine is working under a head of 200m. The power developed by the turbine is 100kW and discharge through the turbine is 0.125 m3/s. In such case, the ratio of unit power to unit discharge for the turbine will be
  1. A.4000
  2. B.16000
  3. C.160 × 103
  4. D.None of the above