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Question for OPSC AEE Mechanical - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 11, 2026

Duration: 90 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 100

View OPSC AEE Mechanical 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in OPSC AEE Mechanical exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in OPSC AEE Mechanical exams.

Latest OPSC AEE Mechanical Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Mechanical Engineering

Question Bank OPSC AEE Mechanical Prelims Exam - English

Mechanical Engineering

Q 1 :
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
  1. A.Greater than 1
  2. B.Equal to 1
  3. C.Between 1 and 3
                   4        4
  4. D.Less than 1
Q 2 :
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
  1. A.1
  2. B.2
  3. C.3
  4. D.4
Q 3 :
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
  1. A.Newtonian fluid 
  2. B.Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
  3. C.Pseudo-plastic fluids
  4. D.Dilatent fluids
Q 4 :
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
  1. A.8
  2. B.6
  3. C.4
  4. D.2
Q 5 :
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
  1. A.0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
  2. B.4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
  3. C.0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
  4. D.4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Q 6 :
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force 
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
  1. A.Both 1 and 2
  2. B.1 only 
  3. C.2 only
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2 
Q 7 :
State whether following flow field is physically possible? 
  1. A.Possible for steady, incompressible flow
  2. B.Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
  3. C.Possible for steady, compressible flow 
  4. D.Not Possible 
Q 8 :
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
  1. A.0.25
  2. B.0.26
  3. C.2
  4. D.4
Q 9 :
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
  1. A.10 kW 
  2. B.20 kW
  3. C.30 kW
  4. D.50 kW
Q 10 :
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
  1. A.man power
  2. B.profit
  3. C.inventory
  4. D.manufacturing
Q 11 :
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
  1. A.3 m/s2
  2. B.6 m/s2
  3. C.9 m/s2
  4. D.15 m/s2
Q 12 :
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
  1. A.9
  2. B.-6
  3. C.117
  4. D.10.8
Q 13 :
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
  1. A.More for lighter fluid
  2. B.More for denser fluid
  3. C.Less for denser fluid
  4. D.Less for lighter fluid
Q 14 :
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
  1. A.Linearly with fluid density
  2. B.Inversely with pressure drop
  3. C.Directly as square of pipe radius
  4. D.Inversely with fluid velocity
Q 15 :
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
  1. A.1.5mm
  2. B.2.5mm
  3. C.4.0mm
  4. D.5.0mm
Q 16 :
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
  1. A.0.05m 
  2. B.0.07m
  3. C.0.08m
  4. D.0.09m
Q 17 :
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
 
  1. A.8 kW     
  2. B.4 kW
  3. C.2 kW    
  4. D. 1 kW
Q 18 :
In a hydraulic coupling
  1. A.The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
  2. B.The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
  3. C.The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
  4. D.The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque 
Q 19 :
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
  1. A.1,2 and 3 only
  2. B.1,2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1,2, 3 and 4 
Q 20 :
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
  1. A.150 N
  2. B.1470 N
  3. C.340 N
  4. D.900 N
Q 21 :
Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n2.
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
  1. A.1,2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
Q 22 :
Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?
  1. A.Energy 
  2. B.Mass
  3. C.Momentum
  4. D.Angle
Q 23 :
Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in
  1. A.Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
  2. B.Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
  3. C.Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
  4. D.Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid 
Q 24 :
Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 105. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be
  1. A.2Q
  2. B.A little more than 2Q
  3. C.A little less than 2Q
  4. D.4Q
Q 25 :
 Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
  1. A. 7.5 W/m2K      
  2. B.15 W/m2K
  3. C.25 W/m2K      
  4. D. 35 W/m2K
Q 26 :
Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity _________________?
  1. A.Pascal
  2. B.Poise
  3. C.Stoke
  4. D.Faraday
  5. E.None of the above
Q 27 :
Consider the following processes:
1. Extension of a spring
2. Plastic deformation of a material
3. Magnetization of a material exhibiting hysteresis
Which of the above process are irreversible?
  1. A.1 and 2 only            
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.1 only                        
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Q 28 :
Which of the following statements are correct for a throttling process?
1. It is an adiabatic steady flow process
2. The enthalpy before and after throttling is same
3. In the processes, due to fall in pressure, the fluid velocity at outlet is always more than inlet velocity
  1. A.1 and 2 only            
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only                        
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Q 29 :
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
  1. A.10 kW      
  2. B.20 kW
  3. C.30 kW    
  4. D.50 kW
Q 30 :
A heat engine receives heat at the rate of 2500 kJ/min and gives an output of 12.4 kW. Its thermal efficiency is, nearly
  1. A.18%                        
  2. B.23%
  3. C.26%                        
  4. D.30%
Q 31 :
One reversible heat engine operates between 1000 K and T2 K and another reversible heat engine operates between T2K and 400 K. If both the engines have the same heat input and output, then the temperature T2 must be equal to
  1. A.582.7 K                   
  2. B.632.5 K
  3. C.682.8 K                   
  4. D.732.5 K
Q 32 :
Consider the following statements for isothermal process:
1. Change in internal energy is zero
2. Heat transfer is zero
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A.1 only                     
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2           
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 33 :
A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/K to 75 kJ/K. The process is:
  1. A.Reversible and isothermal
  2. B.Irreversible
  3. C.Reversible only
  4. D.Isothermal only
Q 34 :
Which one of the following statements is correct during adiabatic charging of an ideal gas into an empty cylinder from a supply main?
  1. A.The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
  2. B.The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
  3. C.The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
  4. D.The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
Q 35 :
Consider the following systems :
1. An electric heater
2. A gas turbine
3. A reciprocating compressor
The steady flow energy equation can be applied to which of the above systems?
  1. A.1 and 2 only            
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 3                
  4. D.2 and 3 only
Q 36 :
Consider the following conditions for the reversibility of a cycle:
1. The P and T of the working substance must not differ appreciably, from those of the surroundings at any state in the process.
2. All the processes, taking place in the cycle, must be extremely slow.
3. The working parts of the engine must be friction-free.
Which of the following conditions are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3                
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only                        
  4. D.2 and 3 only
Q 37 :
A Carnot engine operates between 300 K and 600 K. If the entropy change during heat addition is 1 kJ/K, the work produced by the engine is:
  1. A.100 kJ                     
  2. B.200 kJ
  3. C.300 kJ                     
  4. D.400 kJ
Q 38 :
1000 kJ/s of heat is transferred from a constant temperature heat reservoir maintained at 1000 K to a system at a constant temperature of 500 K. The temperature of the surroundings is 300 K. The net loss of available energy as a result of this heat transfer is:
  1. A.450 kJ/s                  
  2. B.400 kJ/s
  3. C.350 kJ/s                  
  4. D.300 kJ/s
Q 39 :
The effects of heat transfer from a high temperature body to a low temperature body are:
1. The energy is conserved
2. The entropy is not conserved
3. The availability is not conserved
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 2 only            
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only            
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Q 40 :
Which of the following statements pertaining to entropy are correct?
1. The entropy of a system reaches its minimum value when it is in a state of equilibrium with its surroundings
2. Entropy is conserved in all reversible processes
3. Entropy of a substance is least in solid phase
4. Entropy of a solid solution is not zero at absolute zero temperature
  1. A.1, 2 and 3                
  2. B.2, 3 and 4
  3. C.3 and 4 only                        
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 41 :
Consider the following statements:
1. Gases have a very low critical temperature
2. Gases can be liquefied by isothermal compression
3. In engineering problems, water vapour in atmosphere is treated as an ideal or perfect gas
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 2 only            
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only                        
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Q 42 :
The property of a thermodynamic system is:
  1. A.A path function
  2. B.A point function
  3. C.A quantity which does not change in reversible process
  4. D.A quantity which changes when system undergoes a cycle
Q 43 :
Consider the following statements :
1. There is no change in temperature when a liquid is being evaporated into vapour.
2. Vapour is a mixed phase of liquid and gas in the zone between saturated liquid line and saturated vapour line.
3. The saturated dry vapour curve is steeper as compared to saturated liquid curve on a T-s diagram.
4. The enthalpy of vaporization decreases with increase in pressure.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only        
  2. B.3 and 4 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 4 only        
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 44 :
The performance of a single stage reciprocating air compressor is evaluated by its:
  1. A.Isentropic efficiency
  2. B.Isothermal efficiency
  3. C.Adiabatic efficiency
  4. D.Volumetric efficiency
Q 45 :
In a two stage reciprocating air-compressor with a suction pressure of 2 bar and delivery pressure of 8 bar, the ideal intercooler pressure will be:
  1. A.10 bar                     
  2. B.6 bar
  3. C.4 bar                       
  4. D.3 bar
Q 46 :
An ideal heat engine, operating on a reversible cycle, produces 9 kW. The engine operates between 27°C and 927°C. What is the fuel consumption given that the calorific value of the fuel is 40000 kJ/kg?
  1. A.0.8 kg/hr                  
  2. B.1.02 kg/hr
  3. C.1.08 kg/hr                
  4. D.1.28 kg/hr
Q 47 :
If angle of contact of a drop of liquid is acute, then
  1. A.Cohesion is equal to adhesion
  2. B.Cohesion is more than adhesion
  3. C.Adhesion is more than cohesion
  4. D.Both adhesion and cohesion have no connection with angle of contact
Q 48 :
The Carnot cycle is impracticable because:
  1. A.Isothermal process is very fast; and isentropic process is very slow
  2. B.Isothermal process is very slow; and isentropic process is very fast
  3. C.Isothermal process and isentropic process are both very slow
  4. D.Isothermal process and isentropic process are both very fast
Q 49 :
An ideal Otto-cycle works between minimum and maximum temperature of 300 K and 1800 K. What is the compression ratio of the cycle for maximum work output when 1.5 for this ideal gas?
  1. A.5                             
  2. B.6
  3. C.7                             
  4. D.8
Q 50 :
Consider the following statements:

1. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle is a function of the properties of the working substance (gas)
2. For the same compression ratio and same input, the thermal efficiency of an Otto cycle is more than that of a Diesel cycle
3. The thermal efficiency of a Diesel cycle increases with decrease of cut-off ratio
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 2 only            
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only                        
  4. D.1, 2 and 3

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