At temperature of 298 Kelvin, Silicon is not suitable for most-electronic applications, due to small amount of conductivity. This can be altered by
A
Gettering
B
Doping
C
Squeezing
D
Sintering
Question 2Single Answer
By doping Germanium with Gallium, the types of semi-conductors formed are
1.ย N type
2. P type
3. Intrinsic
4. Extrinsic
A
1 and 4
B
2 and 4
C
1 and 3
D
2 and 3
Question 3Single Answer
An n-type of silicon can be formed by adding impurity of:
1.ย Phosphorous
2. Arsenic
3. Boron
4. Aluminumย
Which of the above are correct ?
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
1 and 4
Question 4Single Answer
According to Einsteinโs relationship for a semiconductor, the ratio of diffusion constant to the mobility of the charge carriers is
A
Variable and is twice the volt equivalent of the temperature
B
Constant and is equal to the volt equivalent of the temperature
C
Equal to two and is twice the volt equivalent of the temperature
D
Equal to one and is equal to the volt equivalent of the temperature
Question 5Single Answer
Swept-out voltage in PIN diode happens when PIN diode is
A
Forward biased and the thickness of the depletion layer decreases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
B
Reverse biased and the thickness of the depletion layer increases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
C
Forward biased and the thickness of the depletion layer increases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
D
Reverse biased and the thickness of the depletion layer decreases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
Question 6Single Answer
The number of holes in an N-type silicon with intrinsic value 1.5 ร 1010/cm3 and doping concentration of 1017/cm3, by using mass-action law is
A
6.67 ร 106/cc
B
4.44 ร 10-25/cc
C
1.5ร 10-24/cc
D
2.25 ร 103/cc
Question 7Single Answer
A tunnel-diode is best suited for
A
Very low frequencies
B
50 Hz
C
100 Hz
D
Microwave frequencies
Question 8Single Answer
Small recovery time of a diode is most significant for
A
Line-frequency rectification
B
Switching operations
C
High-frequency rectifications and switching operations
D
Low-frequency rectifications and switching operations
Question 9Single Answer
In JFET, when operated above the pinch-off voltage, the
A
Depletion region becomes smaller
B
Drain current starts decreasing
C
Drain current remains practically constant
D
Drain current increases steeply
Question 10Single Answer
Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because, as the temperature of FET increases
A
The drain current increases
B
The mobility of charge carriers decreases
C
The mobility of charge carriers increases
D
The transconductance increases
Question 11Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding an N-P-N Bipolar Junction Transistor:
1.ย Emitter diode is forward biased and collector diode is reverse biased
2. Emitter has many free electrons
3. Free electrons are injected into base and pass through collector
4. Depletion layers around junction J1 and J2 of BJT are widenedย
ย ย Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 3 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 12Single Answer
A freewheeling diode T phase controlled rectifier
A
Improves the line power factor
B
Enables inverse operation
C
Is responsible for additional reactive power
D
Is responsible for additional harmonics
Question 13Single Answer
The zeners incorporated within the encapsulations of some MOSFETs are meant for
A
Reducing the cost
B
Biasing the gate circuit
C
Self-protecting the device against transients
D
None of the above
Question 14Single Answer
When UJT is used for triggering an SCR, the wave-shape of the signal obtained from UJT circuit is
A
Sine wave
B
Saw tooth wave
C
Trapezoidal wave
D
Square wave
Question 15Single Answer
Darlington pairs are frequently used in linear ICs because, they
A
Do not require any capacitors or inductors
B
Have enormous impedance transformation capability
C
Can be readily formed/hooked from two adjacent transistors
D
Resemble emitter follower
Question 16Single Answer
What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 โ 1988 ?
A
11 to 15 mm
B
8 to 10 mm
C
15 to 17 mm
D
5 to 7 mm
Question 17Single Answer
Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (QA to QB) .
A
B
C
1
D
Question 18Single Answer
Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .
A
The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
B
Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
C
The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
D
The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
Question 19Single Answer
A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is
A
0.5 L
B
0.85 L
C
2 L
D
0.75 L
Question 20Single Answer
What is the principle of plane surveying ?
A
Working from part to whole
B
Working from point to area
C
Working from angle to volume
D
Working from whole to part
Question 21Single Answer
According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :
A
100 m
B
1000 m
C
600 m
D
150 m
Question 22Single Answer
A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygunโs formula is :
A
20
B
25
C
15
D
10
Question 23Single Answer
What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?
A
Reduces the secondary hydration process
B
Increases the heat of hydration
C
Increases the amount of air entrainment
D
Reduces the heat of hydration
Question 24Single Answer
As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :
A
M 20 and M 30
B
M 20 and M 25
C
M 22 and M 40
D
M 15 and M 25
Question 25Single Answer
Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :
A
Mass density
B
Moment of inertia
C
Poissionโs ratio
D
Modulus of elasticity
Question 26Single Answer
As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?
A
120
B
140
C
70
D
60
Question 27Single Answer
No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :
A
0.5 m2
B
1.0 m2
C
3 m2
D
0.75 m2
Question 28Single Answer
What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?
A
20 cm
B
10 cm
C
30 cm
D
25 cm
Question 29Single Answer
Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements
A
Statements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
B
Both statements S1 and S2 are false
C
Statements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
D
Both statements S1 and S2 are true
Question 30Single Answer
If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :
A
121o25'
B
148o25'
C
58o25'
D
211o25'
Question 31Single Answer
Resistance switching is normally resorted in case of
A
Air blast CB
B
Bulk oil CB
C
Minimum oil CB
D
All types of CB
Question 32Single Answer
By transmitting power at high voltage
A
it will give poor voltage regulation
B
it will give better voltage regulation
C
it will not effect voltage regulation
D
None of these
Question 33Single Answer
Which statement about the daily load curve is valid ?
A
The area under the curve gives the average demand
B
The ratio of the area under the curves to the total area of rectangle in which it is contained gives the load factor for the day
C
The peak of the curve gives the installed capacity of the plant
D
The area of the curves divided by the number of hours gives load factor
Question 34Single Answer
High voltage Schring bridge is used to measure
A
large capacitance without additional element
B
small capacitance without additional element
C
medium value capacitance
D
None of these
Question 35Single Answer
Draw - in - system of laying underground cables has the drawback (s) of
A
higher cost
B
reduced current carrying capacity of the cables
C
requirements of much deeper and wider trenches
D
repairs, alterations or additions difficult
E
all of the above except
Question 36Single Answer
Surge impedance of a transmission line is
A
independent of its length
B
dependent on its length
C
independent on its temperature
D
none of the above
Question 37Single Answer
If two synchronous generators connected in parallel loose synchronism, it will lead to
A
stalling of generators
B
wild fluctuations in current
C
wild fluctuations in current and voltage
D
None of these
Question 38Single Answer
A differential relay responds to
A
algebraic difference of two or more similar electrical quantities
B
vector difference of two or more similar electrical quantities
C
algebraic difference between two currents
D
algebraic difference between two voltages
Question 39Single Answer
The conductor carries more current on the surface in comparison to its core. This phenomenon is called the
A
Skin effect
B
Corona
C
Ferranti effect
D
Lenz's effect
Question 40Single Answer
A booster is connected in
A
series with the feeder
B
parallel with the feeder
C
both (a) and (b) are correct
D
none of these
Question 41Single Answer
Fuses have got advantages of
A
cheapest type of protection
B
inverse time - current characteristic
C
no maintenance
D
current limiting effect under short - circuit conditions
E
all of the above
Question 42Single Answer
The power transmitted will be maximum when
A
line reactance is high
B
corona losses are minimum
C
sending end voltage is more
D
receiving end voltage is more
Question 43Single Answer
The connected load of a consumer is 2 kW and his maximum demand is 1.5 kW. The load factor of the consumer is
A
0.75
B
0.375
C
1.33
D
None of these
Question 44Single Answer
In a transformer, the exciting current will be in phase quadrature with the impressed voltage provided
A
only the leakage impedance drop is ignored
B
only the core loss is ignored
C
both the leakage impedance drop and the core loss are ignored
D
only the no - load copper loss is ignored
Question 45Single Answer
Which of the following techniques is used for the measurements of a.c. high frequency voltages ?
A
Peak voltmeter
B
Series resistance mircro - ammeter
C
Resistance potential divider
D
All of these
Question 46Single Answer
Use of additional shunt capacitor can be made for increasing the capability of line as it
A
reduces surge impedance Z0
B
increases phase shift β
C
increase in α
D
all of the above
Question 47Single Answer
The sag of a transmission line is least affected owing to
A
weight of the conductor
B
current through the conductor
C
atmospheric temperature
D
ice deposited on the conductor
Question 48Single Answer
In case of Impulse Thermal break down of solid insulating materials, the critical electric field is proportional to
A
critical absolute temperature
B
square of critical absolute temperature
C
square of T0
D
none of these
Question 49Single Answer
The insulation of the modern EHV lines is designed based on
A
corona
B
switching voltages
C
lightning voltage
D
all of these
Question 50Single Answer
For constant voltage transmission, the voltage drop along the line is maintained constant by installing
A
capacitors
B
inductors
C
resistors
D
synchronous phase modifiers at the receiving end
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Basic Engineering
Question 51Single Answer
If a submerged body displaced from its equilibrium position, returns to its original position, it is called __________.
A
thermal equilibrium
B
neutral equilibrium
C
unstable equilibrium
D
stable equilibrium
Question 52Single Answer
In a flow measurement, a venturi meter is preferred over an orifice plate because _____.
A
energy of head loss is less
B
It is cheaper
C
pressure drop is more
D
space is limitedย ย
Question 53Single Answer
Pitot tube measures ______.
A
dynamic pressure of a moving stream
B
guage pressure
C
temperature of moving water
D
pressure difference between two fluids
Question 54Single Answer
Which of the following is not a property of an ideal fluid ?
A
flow is irrotational
B
it has no viscosity
C
it has viscosity
D
it is incompressible
Question 55Single Answer
Nozzle used in steam turbines convert ________.
A
enthalpy of steam into work
B
enthalpy of steam into kinetic energy
C
enthalpy of steam into pressure energy
D
pressure energy into work
Question 56Single Answer
Which of the following assumptions is the most relevant in air-standard cycle analysis ?
A
All the processes within the cycle are irreversible
B
Working fluid is a fixed mass
C
Specific heat of air changes during the cycle
D
Cycle is assumed to be an open cycle
Question 57Single Answer
The modern Francis turbine is a ___________flow turbine .
A
tangentialย
B
axial
C
radial
D
mixed
Question 58Single Answer
Variation of stress with strain rate for a Newtonian fluid is ______ .
A
hyperbolic
B
linear
C
elliptical
D
parabolic
Question 59Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a part of refrigeration systems ?
A
Turbine
B
Evaporator
C
Compressor
D
Condenser
Question 60Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT an intensive property ?
A
Temperature
B
Total volume
C
Pressure
D
Density
Question 61Single Answer
Which of the following does NOT represent a unit of viscosity ?
A
Stoke
B
Poise
C
mยฒ/sec
D
N-m/sec
Question 62Single Answer
__________ in the fuel is oxidised during knocking .
A
Hydrocarbon
B
Phosphorous
C
Water
D
Coal
Question 63Single Answer
_________ is defined as the ability of a material to resist deformation under action of an external load .
A
Stiffness
B
Resilience
C
Brittleness
D
Toughness
Question 64Single Answer
Draught is produced in locomotive boilers by which of the following components ?
A
Locomotive
B
Steam jet
C
Centrifugal fan
D
Chimney
Question 65Single Answer
For a steady flow, the value of all fluid properties at any fixed point _________ .
A
do not change with location
B
change with time
C
change with location
D
do not change with time
Question 66Single Answer
For a floating body, if the metacentre is below the centre of gravity, then the body is said to be __________ equilibrium .
A
thermalย
B
stableย
C
unstable
D
neutral
Question 67Single Answer
________ is useful for measuring flow of a conducting fluid .
A
Orifice meter
B
Rotameter
C
Vane meter
D
Electro-magnetic flow meter
Question 68Single Answer
A two- stroke engine consists of ________ port (s)
A
Three
B
Four
C
One
D
Two
Question 69Single Answer
Air Cooling is mostly preferred for _________ .
A
heavy truck
B
buses
C
moto cycles
D
multi-utility vehicles
Question 70Single Answer
_______ valves are provided in reciprocating compressors .
A
Simply supported
B
Solenoid
C
Plate
D
Poppet
Question 71Single Answer
What is an algorithm?
A
A step-by-step procedure to solve a problem
B
A computer program
C
A high-level programming language
D
A type of hardware
Question 72Single Answer
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good algorithm?
A
Finiteness
B
Ambiguity
C
Definiteness
D
Effectiveness
Question 73Single Answer
What does a flowchart represent?
A
A graphical representation of an algorithm
B
A programming language
C
A type of hardware
D
A database structure
Question 74Single Answer
Which symbol is used for decision-making in a flowchart?
A
Rectangle
B
Parallelogram
C
Diamond
D
Circle
Question 75Single Answer
What is the first step in problem-solving?
A
Writing code
B
Designing an algorithm
C
Debugging the program
D
Understanding the problem
Question 76Single Answer
Which of the following is the correct syntax for a C program?
A
#include int main() { return 0; }
B
include void main() { }
C
#include { int main() return 0; }
D
main() { print("Hello"); }
Question 77Single Answer
Which of the following is not a valid C identifier?
A
my_variable
B
_value123
C
123variable
D
varName
Question 78Single Answer
Which of the following is a correct declaration of a constant in C?
A
#define PI 3.14
B
const int PI = 3.14;
C
int const PI = 3.14;
D
All of the above
Question 79Single Answer
Which data type is used to store a single character in C?
A
int
B
float
C
char
D
double
Question 80Single Answer
Which keyword is used to define a variable in C?
A
data
B
define
C
var
D
None of the above
Question 81Single Answer
Which function is used to display output in C?
A
display()
B
printf()
C
show()
D
print()
Question 82Single Answer
What is the format specifier for an integer in C?
A
%c
B
%s
C
%d
D
%f
Question 83Single Answer
Which function is used to take user input in C?
A
get()
B
scanf()
C
input()
D
take()
Question 84Single Answer
Which of the following is not a valid data type in C?
A
float
B
bool
C
int
D
double
Question 85Single Answer
What will be the output of printf("%d", 'A');?
A
A
B
65
C
Error
D
a
Question 86Single Answer
Which data structure follows the First-In-First-Out (FIFO) principle?
A
Stack
B
Queue
C
Linked List
D
Tree
Question 87Single Answer
Which data structure follows the Last-In-First-Out (LIFO) principle?
A
Stack
B
Queue
C
Linked List
D
Tree
Question 88Single Answer
Which of the following operations is performed in constant time (O(1)) on a stack?
A
Insertion
B
Deletion
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
Searching
Question 89Single Answer
What is the time complexity of searching in a linked list?
A
O(1)
B
O(log n)
C
O(n)
D
O(n2)
Question 90Single Answer
Which sorting algorithm has the best average case time complexity?
A
Bubble Sort
B
Quick Sort
C
Selection Sort
D
Insertion Sort
Question 91Single Answer
Which of the following is the primary function of a lathe machine?
A
Milling
B
Drilling
C
Turning
D
Grinding
Question 92Single Answer
In a lathe machine, the part that holds and rotates the workpiece is called the:
A
Tailstock
B
Chuck
C
Carriage
D
Cross slide
Question 93Single Answer
The movement of the cutting tool in a lathe is controlled by which component?
A
Headstock
B
Tailstock
C
Carriage
D
Spindle
Question 94Single Answer
Which type of lathe is used for high-precision work?
A
Speed lathe
B
Engine lathe
C
Toolroom lathe
D
Capstan lathe
Question 95Single Answer
What is the purpose of the tailstock in a lathe machine?
A
To hold and rotate the workpiece
B
To support long workpieces
C
To move the carriage
D
To control spindle speed
Question 96Single Answer
In which of the following lathe operations is material removed to produce a cylindrical shape?
A
Knurling
B
Facing
C
Turning
D
Drilling
Question 97Single Answer
Which machine tool is used to produce gears?
A
Lathe
B
Milling machine
C
Drilling machine
D
Grinding machine
Question 98Single Answer
In a milling machine, the cutting tool is:
A
Stationary
B
Rotating
C
Moving along the workpiece
D
Fixed to the workpiece
Question 99Single Answer
Which type of milling machine has a horizontal spindle?
A
Vertical milling machine
B
Universal milling machine
C
Horizontal milling machine
D
CNC milling machine
Question 100Single Answer
The main advantage of a universal milling machine is:
A
It is cheaper
B
It can perform multiple operations
C
It has only vertical movement
D
It does not require power
Question 101Single Answer
Which milling operation is used to create flat surfaces?
A
Slab milling
B
Face milling
C
End milling
D
Gear milling
Question 102Single Answer
In a milling machine, the workpiece is held using a:
A
Chuck
B
Vice
C
Spindle
D
Tailstock
Question 103Single Answer
Which type of milling cutter is used for making slots?
A
End mill
B
Slab mill
C
Fly cutter
D
Face mill
Question 104Single Answer
What is the primary function of a drilling machine?
A
Cutting metal
B
Boring holes
C
Grinding surfaces
D
Milling slots
Question 105Single Answer
The rotating component in a drilling machine that holds the drill bit is called the:
A
Column
B
Chuck
C
Bed
D
Headstock
Question 106Single Answer
A drilling machine that is mounted on the floor is called a:
A
Bench drill
B
Radial drill
C
Pedestal drill
D
CNC drill
Question 107Single Answer
What is the function of the feed mechanism in a drilling machine?
A
To control spindle speed
B
To rotate the drill bit
C
To provide downward movement to the drill bit
D
To hold the workpiece
Question 108Single Answer
Which component of a lathe holds the cutting tool?
A
Tailstock
B
Tool post
C
Chuck
D
Bed
Question 109Single Answer
A slotting attachment in a milling machine is used for:
A
Boring
B
Cutting slots
C
Taper turning
D
Facing
.0
Question 110Single Answer
The depth of cut in milling depends on:
A
Cutting speed
B
Feed rate
C
Material hardness
D
All of the above
Question 111Single Answer
The main source of carbon monoxide pollution in urban areas is:
A
Industrial emissions
B
Vehicular emissions
C
Forest fires
D
Agricultural activities
Question 112Single Answer
Which gas is the main contributor to acid rain?
A
Nitrogen gas
B
Sulfur dioxide
C
Methane
D
Carbon monoxide
Question 113Single Answer
Photochemical smog is mainly caused by:
A
Carbon monoxide
B
Sulfur dioxide
C
Hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides
D
Lead compounds
Question 114Single Answer
Which air pollutant is responsible for ozone layer depletion?
A
Carbon dioxide
B
Methane
C
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
D
Nitrogen dioxide
Question 115Single Answer
The major source of particulate matter (PM10 and PM2.5) in the air is:
A
Power plants
B
Diesel engines
C
Wildfires
D
All of the above
Question 116Single Answer
The phenomenon of temperature inversion affects air pollution by:
A
Increasing pollutant dispersion
B
Reducing pollutant dispersion
C
Increasing oxygen levels
D
Reducing humidity
Question 117Single Answer
The term "fumigation" in air pollution refers to:
A
Use of chemicals for pest control
B
Trapping of pollutants near the ground due to temperature inversion
C
Emission of harmful gases from industries
D
Excess carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Question 118Single Answer
What is the major cause of indoor air pollution in developing countries?
A
Refrigeration
B
Biomass burning for cooking
C
Air conditioners
D
Road transport
Question 119Single Answer
What does AQI stand for?
A
Air Quality Index
B
Atmospheric Quantity Indicator
C
Air Quotient Index
D
Air Quality Impact
Question 120Single Answer
Which air pollutant causes respiratory diseases like bronchitis?
A
Carbon dioxide
B
Sulfur dioxide
C
Helium
D
Nitrogen gas
Question 121Single Answer
Which pollutant is primarily responsible for the formation of smog?
A
Lead
B
Nitrogen oxides and VOCs
C
Carbon monoxide
D
Water vapor
Question 122Single Answer
Smog is a mixture of:
A
Smoke and fog
B
Carbon dioxide and oxygen
C
Methane and oxygen
D
Nitrogen and sulfur dioxide
Question 123Single Answer
Particulate matter of size less than 2.5 microns (PM2.5) is hazardous because:
A
It causes skin diseases
B
It can enter deep into the lungs
C
It is easily visible
D
It absorbs greenhouse gases
Question 124Single Answer
What is the major cause of ozone formation in the lower atmosphere?
A
Volcanic eruptions
B
Reaction of nitrogen oxides with sunlight
C
Industrial cooling systems
D
Underground mining
Question 125Single Answer
The best way to reduce particulate matter emissions from factories is:
A
Using wet scrubbers
B
Increasing chimney height
C
Diluting emissions with fresh air
D
Burning more fuel
Question 126Single Answer
Which pollutant is responsible for respiratory diseases like emphysema?
A
Sulfur dioxide
B
Carbon dioxide
C
Nitrogen gas
D
Carbon monoxide
Question 127Single Answer
Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
A
Carbon dioxide
B
Methane
C
Oxygen
D
Nitrous oxide
Question 128Single Answer
The term "particulate matter" refers to:
A
Gaseous pollutants
B
Liquid droplets and solid particles
C
Only liquid pollutants
D
Heavy metals in air
Question 129Single Answer
A high AQI value indicates:
A
Clean air
B
Poor air quality
C
High oxygen content
D
Less air pollution
Question 130Single Answer
Which device is used to control particulate emissions from industries?
A
Electrostatic precipitator
B
Air filters
C
Scrubbers
D
All of the above
Question 131Single Answer
Who is considered the father of Quality Management?
A
Philip Crosby
B
W. Edwards Deming
C
Joseph Juran
D
Kaoru Ishikawa
Question 132Single Answer
Which of the following is not a core principle of Quality Management?
A
Customer focus
B
Process approach
C
Profit maximization
D
Continual improvement
Question 133Single Answer
"Zero Defects" philosophy was introduced by:
A
W. Edwards Deming
B
Joseph Juran
C
Philip Crosby
D
Kaoru Ishikawa
Question 134Single Answer
The PDCA cycle stands for:
A
Plan-Do-Check-Act
B
Predict-Diagnose-Check-Analyze
C
Process-Develop-Control-Adjust
D
Prevent-Detect-Control-Action
Question 135Single Answer
ISO stands for:
A
International System of Optimization
B
Indian Standard Organization
C
International Organization for Standardization
D
Industrial Safety Organization
Question 136Single Answer
The concept of "Fitness for Use" in quality management was introduced by:
A
Joseph Juran
B
Philip Crosby
C
W. Edwards Deming
D
Armand Feigenbaum
Question 137Single Answer
Which of the following is Nnot a Quality Management principle?
A
Leadership
B
Evidence-based decision-making
C
Process approach
D
Quantity over quality
Question 138Single Answer
The primary goal of Quality Management is to:
A
Reduce cost
B
Increase sales
C
Improve product and service quality
D
Improve advertisements
Question 139Single Answer
Which tool is commonly used for root cause analysis in Quality Management?
A
Histogram
B
Fishbone diagram
C
Control chart
D
Pareto chart
Question 140Single Answer
Quality Management ensures:
A
Customer satisfaction
B
Increased production only
C
Higher product prices
D
Less employee participation
Question 141Single Answer
The cost of quality includes which of the following?
A
Prevention costs
B
Appraisal costs
C
Failure costs
D
All of the above
Question 142Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of internal failure cost?
A
Rework
B
Warranty claims
C
Customer complaints
D
Product recalls
Question 143Single Answer
External failure costs include:
A
Re-inspection of products
B
Warranty claims and returns
C
Process improvements
D
Training costs
Question 144Single Answer
Prevention costs include:
A
Training of employees
B
Scrap and rework
C
Warranty claims
D
Product recalls
Question 145Single Answer
The Cost of Poor Quality (COPQ) includes:
A
Prevention cost
B
Failure cost
C
Appraisal cost
D
None of the above
Question 146Single Answer
Which of the following is not a cost of quality?
A
Prevention costs
B
Appraisal costs
C
Labor costs
D
Failure costs
Question 147Single Answer
Cost of Quality (COQ) is primarily used to:
A
Increase profits
B
Measure and improve quality performance
C
Decrease employee wages
D
Increase production speed
Question 148Single Answer
The most expensive type of quality cost is:
A
Prevention cost
B
Internal failure cost
C
External failure cost
D
Appraisal cost
Question 149Single Answer
Internal failure costs occur:
A
Before the product reaches the customer
B
After the product reaches the customer
C
Due to better quality control
D
During marketing
Question 150Single Answer
The most cost-effective way to improve quality is by: